3

JUNIOR ENGINEER

1. The instrument used to reshape a grinding wheel that is grooved or out of round is called a: A. wheel aligner C. wheel emery B. wheel dresser D. wheel cutter 2. The instruments used to remove old packing from packing glands and stuffing boxes are called: A. packing tools C. gland box cleaners B. packing bits D. packing screws 3. When working on bearing and checking for high spots, it is customary to apply: A. white lead C. dykem blue B. read lead D. Prussian blue 4. If you wanted to check the face of a pump slide valve or other flat-faced valve, you could check for trueness on a: A. flat board C. piece of glass B. surface plate D. bearing plate 5. To keep a metal c lean while soldering, one would use a: A. flax B. torch C. flux D. corroder 6. Before splicing electric wires, they should be: A. tinned C. soldered B. clean and tinned D. insulated 7. To check the speed of a motor or other rotary machine, one would use a: A. speed indicator C. tachometer B. micrometer D. A or C 8. Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, it should be: A. marked with chalk C. scribed B. center-punched D. protracted 9. A tap or die marked ¼ - 20 indicates: A. ¼ ‘’ radius – 20 – 20 cm long B. ¼’’ radian – 20 – 20 threads per inch C. ¼’’ diameter – diameter – 20  20 threads per inch D. ¼ turn – turn – 20  20 times

10. After a piece o f pipe has been cut, the hole is cleaned out with a: A. pipe reamer C. pipe taper B. pipe cleaner D. hole cleaner 11. The tool used for cutting pipe thre ads is called a: A. pipe cutter C. pipe threader B. pipe stock and die D. pipe ratchet cutter 12. The tool used when working with large sizes of pipe is called a: A. chain pipe wrench C. chain holder B. chain tongs D. A or B 13. The tool used when preparing to put fittings on copper tubing is called a: A. tube spreader C. tube retarder B. flaring tool D. tube countersink 14. Which of the following is not a st andard thread form? A. square C. double flute B. American national D. 60° sharp V 15. The tool used to cut thre ads in a hole is called a: A. top B. tap C. bit D. reamer 16. Hand taps are provided in sets of thre e called: A. taper, plug, and end B. short, taper, and bottom C. taper, plug, and bottom D. short, medium, and long 17. Which of the following taps should be used to start a thread? A. plug B. short C. bottom D. taper 18. When preparing to tap a hole, the size of the drill will be: A. equal to the size of the tap B. smaller than the size of the tap C. larger than the size of the tap D. none of the above

19. Pipe taps are: A. the same size from end to end B. not fluted C. tapered D. not hardened 20. When preparing to tap a hole for a pipe fitting the size of the drill will be : A. larger than the tap size B. equal to the size of the tap C. smaller than the tap size D. none of the above 21. Which of the following does not have to be lubricated when drilling? A. steel B. brass C. monel D. tool steel 22. The tool to use when cutting a hole in the side of a round piece of metal is called a: A. vise B. jaw holder C. “V” block D. chuck 23. When measuring a drill for size measure across the: A. margins C. shank B. flutes D. point 24. N.C. stands for: A. neutral cut B. national coarse

C. national cut D. not center

25. N.F. stands for A. national file B. national fine

C. neutral file D. not found

26. The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge holes is called a: A. round out C. reamer B. drift pin D. protractor 27. Which of the following chisels would be used for cutting oil grooves? A. diamond –point  –point chisels C. round –nose  –nose chisel B. cold chisel D. hot chisel 28. Which of the following is not a cut of file? A. smooth C. half-round B. second cut D. bastard

29. The tool used for cleaning files is c alled a: A. file cleaner C. file oilstone B. file card D. scraper 30. Which of the following is the smallest size drill? A. #80 C. #1 B. #60 D. #0 31. Which of the following is the largest size drill? A. A C. Z B. X D. XX 32. The size of a drill is stamped on the: A. point C. margin B. shank D. flute 33. Which of the following safety precautions should be followed when pouring Babbitt? A. operator must wear goggles B. the surface to be babbitted must be free of moisture C. the surface to be babbitted must be clean D. all of the above 34. Which of the following safety precautions should be followed when renewing a flange gasket? A. drain the line thoroughly B. isolate the section to be worked on C. tie down isolation valves D. all of the above 35. Before installing a new flange gasket be sure that the: A. flange faces are painted B. isolating valves are open C. flange faces are absolutely clean D. old gasket is in place 36. On a standard wire gage: A. #10 is larger than #5 B. #25 is smaller than # 20 C. #1 is smaller than #2 D. #30 is larger than #25

37. Which of the following tools would be most useful when taking leads on bearings? A. dividers C. micrometer B. outside calipers D. center gage 38. The wrench size for a ¾ ‘’ nut is: A. 1 – ¼’’ C. ¾’’ B. 1 – ½’’ D. 10/24’’ 39. The sketch indicates that a ver tical pipe line must be offset 45° in order to avoid the obstruction. The center – 2 – center measurement for the offset T is (see fig. 3A): A. 36.5’’ C. 22.62’’ B. 30.45’’ D. 28.42’’ 40. Which of the following would cause got bearing? A. improper oil C. improper alignment B. dirt in oil D. all of the above 41. The melting point of Babbitt is approximately: A. 1000°F C. 750°C B. 650°F D. 500°F

B. outside diameter

D. wire gage

47. “Water hammer” is caused by: A. hitting pipe water with hammer B. too much water in pipe system C. water in steam lines D. steam in water lines 48. Insulation is used on piping to: A. hold in heat C. cut down heat loses B. hold in cold D. any of the above 49. Which of the following types of valves is used in the bilge manifold? A. swing check C. angle B. non-return D. globe 50. Valve stem packing is measured from the: A. O. D. of the valve stem to the bottom of the packing gland B. top of the packing gland to t he bottom of the gland C. O. D. of the valve stem to the I. D. of the packing box D. I. D. of the valve stem to the bottom of the gland

42. When pouring Babbitt it: A. can be poured in several pourings B. must be poured all at one time C. must be done at intervals D. must be done in cool place

51. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called a: A. pipe tool C. pipe vise B. pipe stock D. pipe cutter

43. Which of the following groups of pipe sizes is correct? A. ¼, ½, ¾, 7/8, 1 C. ¼, 3/8, ½, ¾, 1 B. ½, 3/8, ½, 5/8, ¾, 1 D. ¼, ½, 5/8, ¾, 1

52. The pipe fitting which has two openings and provides a turn of 90° is called: A. an elbow C. a coupling B. a tee D. a union

44. A pipe wrench (Stillsons) is designed for use on: A. hexagonal objects C. square objects B. round objects D. flat objects

53. A plug cock offers: A. more resistance of flow than a globe valve B. the same resistance to flow as a globe globe valve C. less resistance to flow than a globe valve D. the same resistance to flow as a angle valve

45. Pipe is measured by: A. inside diameter C. thickness of wall B. outside diameter D. wire gage 46. Tubing is measured by: A. inside diameter C. thickness of wall

54. The most common flux to use when soldering brass, copper, or tin is: A. tallow C. borax B. rosin D. sal ammoniac

55. One turn of the screw on a micrometer moves the spindle: A. .25” C. .025” B. .205” D. .110” 56. The process used to retard corrosion on iron pipe is called: A. soldering C. tempering B. annealing D. galvanizing 57. On XX heavy pipe the extra metal is added to the: A. outside B. inside C. half on the inside, half on the outside D. three quarters on the outside, one quarter on the inside 58. Valve seats are usually: A. screwed in C. pressed in B. dropped in D. A or C 59. When grinding in valves the disc is secured to the stem by: A. inserting a cotter pin B. placing emery cloth between stem and disc C. welding D. A or B 60. A fresh-water tank is located on the bridge deck. What will the pressure be at an outlet in the engine room 50’ below the tank? A. 20 psi C. 23 psi B. 21.7 psi D. 25 psi 61. In the duplex reciprocating pump: A. the slide valve for one cylinder is controlled by the piston rod of the other cylinder B. both slide valves operate simultaneously C. each slide valve is controlled by its own piston rod D. one slide valve operates the other slide valve 62. The jerky operation of a r eciprocating pump may be caused by: A. small leaks in the suction line B. suction valve only partially open C. dirty suction strainer

D. any of the above 63. The cylinder of piston type steam e ngines are counter bored to: A. give a larger head clearance B. prevent piston rings from wearing a groove in the cylinder at the end of the stroke C. give a larger volumetric clearance D. prevent piston rings from slipping on the piston 64. When installing packing in a packing box: A. leave one old turn at the bottom of the packing box B. remove one turn and install one new turn of packing D. leave sufficient end clearance on eac h turn to allow for expansion D. place end cuts directly in line with each other 65. The micrometer reading in Fig. 3B is: A. .299 B. .304 C. .306 D. .303 66. The micrometer reading in Fig. 3C is: A. .226 B. .225 C. .224 D. .250 67. The micrometer reading in Fig. 3D is: A. .226 B. .200 C. .201 D. .224

68. The heat required to change the physical state of a substance is called: A. sensible C. centigrade heat B. latent heat D. radiant heat 69. The latent heat of fusion is: A. 288 BTU C. 144 BTU B. 32 BTU D. 212 BTU 70. The amount of heat released by steam when it changes to water at the same temperature is called: A. latent heat of condensation B. latent heat of vaporization C. latent heat of saturation D. sensible heat of condensation 71. The latent heat of vaporization is: A.288 BTU C. 970 BTU B. 144 BTU D. 907 BTU 72. On board ship the chemical energy of the fuel oil is converted to: A. mechanical energy for propulsion B. electrical energy for lightning C. thermal energy for heating D. all of the above

77. The freezing point on the F ahrenheit thermometer is: A. 0° B. 30° C. 32° D. 34° 78. The freezing point on the c entigrade thermometer is: A. 32° B. 0° C. 15° D. 30° 79. The boiling point on the Fahrenheit thermometer is: A. 212° B. 180° C. 100° D. 200° 80. Atmospheric pressure at sea level is: A. 15.7 psi C. 14.0 psi B. 14.7 psi D. 0 psi 81. A perfect vacuum represented by: A. 30” of silver C. 30” of mercury B. 15” of mercury D. 15” of silver 82. Sensible heat changes: A. the temperature of a substance without changing its form B. the shape of a substance C. a solid to a liquid D. a liquid to a gas

73. Latent heat: A. changes the physical state of a substance B. changes the temperature of a substance C. changes the color of a substance D. has no effect on a substance

83. Specific heat is the number of: A. BTU that must be added or subtracted to change the temperature of a substance 1° F B. BTU needed to change a solid to a gas C. heat units in a liquid D. heat units in a specified amount of steam

74. The pressure of the atmosphere pressing down on the earth is called: A. air pressure C. atmospheric pressure B. absolute pressure D. sensible pressure

84. Assuming a perfect vacuum of 30” and atmospheric pressure as 15 psi, 28” of vacuum in a condenser would be the same as: A. 10 psi B.1 psi C. 2 psi D. 15 psi

75. Absolute pressure is: A. the pressure of the atmosphere of the earth B. the same as gage pressure C. the pressure of the steam in a boiler D. gage pressure plus atmospheric pressure

85. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to: A. melt one pound of metal B. melt one pound of ice at 3 2° F. without changing the temperature C. melt one pound of ice at 3 2° C. D. change one pound of ice to steam

76. The boiling point on the centigrade thermometer is: A. 212° B. 100° C. 200° D. 180°

86. The unit of measurement of energy is the: A. BTU B. BUT C. ASME D. ENG 87. The formula for work is: A. force x time C. force x distance B. force x time x distance D. none of the above 88. The unit of measurement of work is: A. the pound C. 1 ft – in B. the ft – oz D. 1 ft – pound 89. The latent heat of evaporation is the: A. amount of heat required to c onvert 1 lb of water at 212° F. into steam at the same temperature B. number BTU required to evaporate 1 lb of ice C. number of BTU in 1 lb of steam D. amount of heat required to change 1 lb of ice to 1 lb of steam 90. In a steam type radiator theoretically each pound of steam that condenses of water will give off: A. 180 BTU B. 970 BTU C. 144 BTU D. 212 BTU 91. A BTU is the amount of heat necessary to: A. change water to steam B. change steam to water C. change the temperature of any substance D. rise the temperature of 1 lb of water 1°F. under ordinary atmospheric conditions 92. The higher one goes above the earth’s surface the: A. less the atmospheric pressure B. more the atmospheric pressure C. atmospheric pressure stays the same D. none of the above 93. One horsepower is equal to: A. the amount of work a horse can produce in 1 hr B. 33,000 ft-lb to work per minute C. 33, 000 ft-lb work per hour D. the power delivered to a shaft in 1 hr 94. 32 lb of sea water contain: A. 2 lb of solid matter C. 3 lb of solid matter

B. 1 lb of solid matter

D. ½ lb of solid matter

95. An instrument consisting of a wet-and drybulb thermometer (used in air conditioning) is called a A. hygrometer C. psychrometer B. pyrometer D. A or C 96. A square foot of steel plate 1/8 ‘’ thick weighs 5 lb. The weight of a stee l plate 10 ft long and 4 ft wide would be: A. 200 lb C. 20 lb B. 2000 lb D. 20,000 lb 97. Cast iron weighs 640 lb per cubic foot. The weight of a cast iron block 14’’ x 12’’ x 18’’ is: A. 1200 lb B. 1000 lb C. 1120 lb D. 1088 lb 98. A tank 28’’ in diameter and 14’ high is filled with water. The total pressure on the bottom of the tank is: A. 3741 lb B. 4257 lb C. 2573 lb D. 3000 lb 99. A double-bottom tank is 18’ wide, 24’ long, and 4’ deep. It is filled with fresh water. The total capacity in tons is: A. 50 B. 48 C. 55 D. 45 100. Sheet metal of #18 gage is heavier than: A. 12 gage B. 14 gage C. 22 gage D. 16 gage 101. The pipe-fitting symbol represents a: A. cross C. screwed “T” B. straight elbow D. flange “T” 102. The pipe-fitting symbol represents a: A. flange 90° elbow C. reducer elbow B. screwed 90° elbow D. none of the above 103. The pipe-fitting symbol a: A. street elbow B. flanged reducing elbow 90° C. spigot D. flange reducing elbow 45°

represents

104. The pipe-fitting symbol represents a: A. screwed cross C. double “T” B. flanged cross D. any of the above 105. Shims are used to: A. separate fresh-and salt- water lines B. replace fuses C. adjust cylinder liners D. adjust bearing clearance 106. The process used to retard corrosion (rust) on iron pipe and fittings is called: A. tinning C. galvanizing B. soldering D. sulphurizing 107. The system used for braking scale from the evaporator coils while the evaporator is in operation is called: A. recirculating C. cracking-off B. blowing-down D. dumping 108. The coils in the evaporator are attached to the headers by: A. pipe nipples C. welding B. union-type fittings D. bolted flanges 109. When distilling salt water the coo lingwater discharge from the distiller is fed back to the evaporator as feedwater: A. to cut down on the amount of cooling water needed B. to prevent an excess amount of cooling water from being discharged to the bilges C. to supply hot water to the evaporator for more economical operation D. none of the above 110. When distilling salt water the evaporator should be blown down when the salinity reaches: A. 3/32 B. 1/32 C. 2/32 D. 5/32 111. The instrument also used in conjunction with the salinity indicator is the: A. pyrometer C. hydrometer B. monometer D. thermometer

112. The valve which is always partially open when the evaporator is in operation is the: A. vapor valve B. continuous blowdown valve C. bottom blowdown valve D. surface blowdown valve 113. An “offset” is pipe fitting refers t o: A. a cut-off running at right angles to the original piping B. two pipes running parallel to each other C. a bend in the pipe D. two sizes of pipe in the same run 114. If a piston-type flush valve is not operating properly, the most likely cause would be: A. a plugged by-pass hole B. a cracked diaphragm C. a stuck pilot valve D. Any of the above 115. The piping symbol A. soldered joint B. welded joint

represents a: C. screwed joint D. broken joint

116. The piping symbol represents a: A. 45° elbow-welded C. 120° elbow-welded B. 45° elbow-soldered D. 120° screwed joint

ANSWERS TO JUNIOR ENGINEER QUESTIONS 1.

B

41. B

81. C

2.

A

42. B

82. A

3.

D

43. C

83. A

4.

B

44. B

84. B

5.

C

45. A

85. B

6.

B

46. B

86. A

7.

D

47. C

87. C

8.

B

48. D

88. D

9.

C

49. B

89. A

10. A

50. C

90. B

11. B

51. B

91. D

12. D

52. A

92. A

13. B

53. C

93. B

14. C

54. B

94. B

15. B

55. C

95. D

16. C

56. D

96. A

17. D

57. B

97. C

18. B

58. D

98. A

19. C

59. D

99. B

20. A

60. B

100. C

21. B

61. A

101. C

22. C

62. D

102. B

23. A

63. B

103. B

24. B

64. C

104. B

25. B

65. B

105. D

26. C

66. A

106. C

27. C

67. D

107. C

28. C

68. B

108. B

29. B

69. C

109. C

30. A

70. A

110. A

31. C

71. C

111. D

32. B

72. D

112. B

33. D

73. A

113. C

34. D

74. C

114. A

35. C

75. D

115. B

36. B

76. B

116. A

37. C

77. C

38. A

78. B

39. C

79. A

40. D

80. B

REFRIGERATING ENGINEER

1. A method of reducing capacity without reducing compressor speed is called: A. low-pressure bypassing B. high- pressure bypassing C. hot-gas bypassing D. short-cycling 2. The thermal expansion valve responds to the: A. amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil B. amount of superheat in the liquid C. temperature in the evaporator coils D. pressure in the evaporator coils 3. The bulb for the thermal e xpansion valve is located: A. in the middle of the evaporator coils B. near the evaporator coils outlet C. near the evaporator coils inlet D. on the bottom row of evaporator coils 4. Thermostat is a: A. temperature-operated switch B. pressure-operated switch C. superheat-operated switch D. back-pressure-operated switch 5. The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of the: A. diaphragm type C. valve type B. bimetal type D. pilot-valve type 6. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the thermostat will be operated by a: A. small circuit breaker C. fusetron B. pressure pipe D. relay 7. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the: A. high-pressure cutout switch is jammed open B. low-pressure switch is jammed shut C. thermal bulb is not operating properly D. scale trap is clogged 8. The solenoid valve can be typed as a: A. thermal valve C. bellows valve

B. magnetic stop valve D. bimetallic valve 9. If the compressor has been running satisfactorilly for a long period of time but the oil level can rise slowly, the thing to do would be to: A. drain without sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level B. shutdown the compressor and check the oil level with the machine stopped C. check the dehydrator cartridge D. check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system 10. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long period of time but suddenly the compartment temperature started to rise, the trouble might be: A. the solenoid valve has jammed shut B. the expansion valve may have water frozen in it C. a refrigerant leak has developed D. Any of the above 11. When charging a Freon system, all the valves should be in their normal position except in the: A. expansion valve C. king valve (liquid) B. purge valve D. solenoid valve 12. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be caused by: A. leaky suction valves C. faulty piston rings B. leaky discharge valves D. any of the above 13. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and returning it to the suction line without compressing it is called a: A. discharge line bypass C. suction line bypass B. cylinder unloader D. relief valve 14. As heat is removed from a substance it gets colder. When no more heat can be removed and the temperature cannot be lowered any further, we have reached: A. perfect zero C. absolute zero B. double zero D. cold zero

15. The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 212°F. If the pressure in the open container is decreased, such as going up to the top of a mountain, the boiling point will be: A. increased C. the same B. decreased D. none of the above 16. Another name for the liquid valve is the: A. master valve C. Freon valve B. king valve D. shutoff valve 17. If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could be: A. a clogged scale trap B. air in the system C. automatic controls not functioning properly D. insufficient cooling water to the condenser 18. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by: A. pouring through oil hole in base B. pumping in with a hand pump C. pumping in with an electric-driven pump D. shutting down the machine and pouring in through the crack-case inspection plate opening 19. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, the joints must be is to: A. finished joints C. ground joints B. welded joints D. soldered joints 20. When adding oil to a Freon system one must be sure that: A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings B. there is not too high a suction pressure C. the discharge pressure is not too high D. the condenser is shutdown 21. If the head pressure is too high: A. the relief valve should open before t he highpressure cutout B. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant go to receiver C. the high-pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens D. close in on the suction valve

22. If the compressor-discharge temperature is higher than the receiver temperature: A. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser C. add more refrigerant to the system D. remove some of the refrigerant from the system 23. The dehydrator is used: A. to remove moisture from the system B. to remove air from the system C. when adding refrigerant to the system D. A and C 24. If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is warmer than the inlet side, the: A. expansion valve is working normally B. expansion valve is not working normally C. solenoid is not working normally D. scale trap is dirty 25. The oil level in the compressor should be checked: A. while the compressor is in operation B. just before starting the compressor C. after a long period of operation D. B and C 26. The relief valve is located on the: A. discharge side of condenser B. discharge side of compressor C. outlet of the evaporator coils D. receiver tank 27. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the: A. superheat of the gas leaving the c ompressor B. back pressure in the evaporator C. temperature of the icebox D. superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator 28. The scale trap is located betwee n the: A. king valve and the expansion valve B. solenoids valve and expansion valve C. evaporator and receiver

D. compressor and evaporator 29. If the high-pressure switch on the compressor opens and stops the compressor, a possible cause could be: A. too much cooling water going through t he condenser B. no enough refrigerant in the system C. a leak in the evaporator coils D. no enough cooling water going through the condenser 30. The capacity of the refrigerating unit can be regulated by: A. changing the speed of the com pressor B. changing the amount of cooling water to the condenser C. changing the amount of the re frigerant in the system D. any of the above 31. Which of the following would not cause high suction pressure? A. insufficient refrigeration B. leaky suction valves C. expansion valve stuck open D. suction valve not adjusted properly 32. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system is called a: A. humidifier C. dehydrator B. aerator D. trap 33. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might be a: A. defective thermal valve B. clogged scale trap C. stuck high-pressure switch D. Stuck low-pressure switch 34. Dairy products should be kept at a temperature of: A. 10° to 20° C. 35° to 45° B. 20° to 30° D. 15° to 25° 35. The purpose of the expansion valve bypass is to: A. increased the efficiency of t he plant

B. increased the capacity of the evaporator C. control the refrigerant to the evaporator in case the automatic valve fail D. bypass the compressor 36. Frost on the outside of the thermal expansion valve maybe caused by: A. air in the system C. moisture in the system B. too much superheat D. any of the above 37. The charging valve is located between the: A. king valve and expansion valve B. receiver and the condenser C. compressor and the receiver D. evaporator coils and the compressor 38. A high suction pressure and a cold crankcase indicate: A. air in the system B. leaky suction valves C. expansion valve open too wide D. B or C 39. A high temperature in the icebox could not be caused by: A. insufficient refrigerant B. air in the system C. expansion valve open too wide D. too much refrigerant in system 40. When securing a Freon system for repairs: A. pump down to 1 or 2 pounds pressure B. pump down to a slight vacuum C. pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure D. remove all refrigerant from system 41. The solenoid valve is located between the: A. scale trap and the thermal expansion valve B. thermal expansion valve and the evaporator C. king valve and the scale trap D. automatic and manual expansion valves 42. When starting s refrigerating system, always: A. vent the condenser B. vent the evaporator C. bypass the condenser D. none of the above

43. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure to: A. have gas mask handy B. notify the captain C. make arrangements to have perishables taken care of D. A and C 44. 212°F is equal to: A. 106°C B. 110°C C. 100°F

D. 100°C

52. Too much oil in the compressor would: A. absorb too much refrigerant from the system B. damage the expansion valve C. cause leakage through the shaft seals D. deposit oil on the condenser tubes 53. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is: A. NH3  B.CO2 C. F12 D. F22

45. A good refrigerant should: A. have a low boiling point B. have a higher latent heat C. be able to be liquefied at normal sea-water temperatures D. all of the above

54. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of: A. 288,000 BTU per 24 hrs B. 28,000 BTU per 24 hrs C. 28,800 BTU per 24 hrs D. 280,000 BTU per 24 hrs

46. 140°F is equivalent to: A. 50°C B. 60°C C. 40°C D. 55°C

55. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure? A. expansion valve not open enough B. expansion valve open too wide C. king valve not open wide enough D. dirty dehydrator

47. 70°C is equivalent to: A. 150°F B. 160°F C. 158°F D. 155°F 48. Low suction pressure is caused by: A. air in the system B. leaky compressor suction valves C. solenoid valve not functioning properly D. expansion valve causing flooding back 49. The charging connection in a refrigerating system is located: A. before the receiver B. between the condenser and the receiver C. between the receiver and the king valve D. between the king valve and the solenoid valve 50. If there is too much Freon in the system: A. the compressor will short cycle B. the compressor will run continuously C. the safety valve will discharge D. it will mix with the oil in the crankcase 51. A refrigerating unit of 1 ton capacity can remove: A. 500 BTU’s per min C. 200 BTU’s per min B. 288 BTU’s per min D. 100 BTU’s per min

56. Which of the following would cause high head pressure? A. dirty dehydrator B. insufficient cooling water C. air in the condenser D. all of the above 57. Which of the following would cause low head pressure? A. too much cooling water B. insufficient refrigeration gas C. insufficient cooling water D. A and B 58. The principle of mechanical refrigeration is: A. the absorption of temperature under heat, pressure, compression, and expansion B. the compression of a liquid under temperature and expansion C. the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure, and expansion D. the conversion of a liquid to a g as

59. The function of the expansion valve is to: A. change the high-pressure liquid to a lowpressure liquid B. regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion coils C. change the gas refrigerant to a liquid D. shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser 60. The oil separator (trap) is located betwee n the: A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser B. condenser and the receiver C. receiver and the king valve D. receiver and the expansion valve 61. The purpose of the oil trap is: A. to remove oil from the charging tank B. to add oil to the compressor C. to remove oil from the refrigerating gas D. none of the above 62. The boiling point of the ammonia at atmospheric pressure is: A. -28° C. B. +28° C. C. +28°F. D. -28° F. 63. The boiling point of CO 2 at atmospheric pressure is: A. +110°F. B. -110°F. C.+110°C. D.-110°C 64. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is: A. -22°F. B. +22°F. C.+22°C. D. -22°C. 65. The dehydrator is located between the: A. receiver and the king valve B. receiver and the expansion valve C. condenser and the king valve D. condenser and receiver 66. The purpose of the dehydrator is located between the: A. receiver and the king valve B. receiver and the expansion valve C. condenser and the king valve D. condenser and receiver

66. The purpose of the dehydrator is to: A. remove oil from the refrigerant B. add more refrigerant to the system C. remove moisture from the refrigerant D. remove moisture from the crankcase oil 67. Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon on his eyes? A. soapy water C. clean water B. sterile mineral oil D. sodium bicarbonate 68. The thermal expansion valve is located between the: A. receiver and the king valve B. king valve and the solenoid valve C. solenoid valve and the evaporator coils D. charging valve and the solenoid valve 69. The thermal expansion valve: A. controls the amount of gas coming from the dehydrator B. maintains a constant superheat of gas leaving the evaporator coils C. controls the amount of gas going to the receiver D. removes trapped oil from the refrigerant 70. Water in the refrigerant is liable to: A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut flow of the liquid refrigerant B. emulsify the oil in the compressor C. freeze in the king valve D. clog the oil trap 71. The purpose of the scale tr ap is to: A. control the amount of the scale g oing to the compressor B. remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant C. remove dirt, scale, and metal chips from the refrigerant D. dissolve scale and dirt in the system 72. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be: A. packed only in the closed position B. packed in wide open or closed position C. operated as suction or discharge valve

D. removed for replacement without shutting down

C. the CO2 will come out in liquid form D. pumped out with a suction pump

73. Sensible heat: A. can be measured with a thermometer B. cannot be measured with a thermometer C. changes in the receiver tank D. increases with the cold

80. How is a Freon system purged? A. the same as the ammonia system B. the same as the CO2 system C. back to the extra supply bottle D. with a reefer pump

74. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to convert: A. 2 lbs. of ice at 32°F to 1 lb. of ice at 32°F B. 1 lb. of ice at 32°F to 1 lb. of water at 32°F C. 1 lb. of ice at 32°F to 1 lb. of steam at 32°F D. 2 lbs. of ice at 32°F to 1 lb. of water at 32°F

81. The solenoid valve is: A. a pressure-controlled stop valve B. a Freon-controlled check valve C. a temperature-controlled stop valve D. none of the above

75. The latent heat vaporization of water is: A.144 BTU B. 940 BTU C. 970 BTU D. 288 BTU 76. The latent heat vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert: A. 1 lb. of water at 212°F to 1 lb. of steam at 212° F B. 1 lb. of water at 180°F to 1 lb. of steam at 180° F C. 2 lbs. of water at 212°F to 1 lb. of steam at 212° F D. 1 lb. of ice at 32°F to 1 lb. of steam at 212°F 77. Too high suction pressure could be caused by: A. expansion valve open too wide B. leaky suction valves C. expansion valve bulb not working properly D. any of the above 78. How is an ammonia system purged so t hat the operator will not be overcome by the fumes? A. into the atmospheric line B. into a bucket of water C. into a bucket of lube oil D. back into the compressor 79. How is a CO2 system purged? A. when CO2 comes out, frost will form on a piece of metal held near the outlet B. through the king valve

82. The latent heat of fusion of ice is: A. 144 BTU B. 188 BTU C. 940 BTU D. 500 BTU 83. Latent heat: A. can be measured with a thermometer B. can be measured with a pyrometer C. cannot be measured with a thermometer D. changes as the refrigerant cools 84. Absolute zero is: A. 970° below 0 on the Fahrenheit scale B. 460° below 0 on the Fahrenheit scale C. 144° below 0 on the Fahrenheit scale D. the same as 0 on the Centigrade scale 85. When the evaporator coils are located in the icebox, the system is unknown as a: A. direct system B. low-pressure system C. indirect system D. high-pressure system 86. The amount of CO 2 of Freon in a cylinder is measured by: A. pressure C. weight B. volume D. psi 87. An excessively high head pressure could be caused by: A. solenoid valve shutoff B. insufficient cooling water to the condenser coil

C. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coil D. too much cooling water to the condenser 88. The solenoid valve is controlled by: A. the amount of liquid in the system B. the amount of gas In the system C. the temperature in the condenser D. the thermal switch operated by the icebox temperature 89. The purge valve is located: A. in the lowest part of the system B. in the highest part of the system C. on the receiver discharge D. on the evaporator coil 90. The system should be purged: A. while the system is operating B. while starting up the system C. after the system has been shut down for a few hours D. once a week 91. The function of the compressor is to: A. pulls the refrigerant gas through the system B. increase the pressure of the refrigerant C. discharge the refrigerant to the condenser D. all of the above 92. The expansion valve is located between the: A. receiver and evaporator B. evaporator and compressor C. compressor and condenser D. condenser and receiver 93. If frost forms on the cylinder, the cause would be: A. expansion valve not open wide enough B. charging valve left open C. expansion valve open to wide D. dehydrator not working properly 94. Which of the following would cause high head pressure? A. icebox door left open B. Insufficient cooling water C.Too much cooling water

D. suction valve not open enough 95. The high pressure side of the system is sometimes referred to as the: A. suction side B. cold side C. hot side D. filling side 96. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of : A. 2000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hours B. 2000 lbs. of ice melting in 1 2 hours C. 2000 lbs. of water being converted to ice D. 2240 lbs. of ice melting in 2 4 hours 97. The scale trap (liquid strainer) is located between the A. compressor and oil separator B. king (liquid ) valve and expansion valve C. expansion valve and evaporator coils D. evaporator coil and compressor 98. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will burn : A. orange B. blue C. white D. green 99. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an ammonia system? A. litmus paper B. halide torch’ C. sulphur stick D. A and C 100. Valve and piping in an ammonia system are made of: A. iron B. Brass C. copper D. bronze 101. In an ammonia system, the oil gauge must be kept: A. closed except when checking oil level B. open at all times

C. closed when machine is shutdown D. open when machine is shutdown 102. Freon is : A. colorless B. odorless C. nonpoisonous D. All of the above 103. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system? A. Metallic B. asbestos C. rubber D. A and B 104. A double pipe condenser has: A. two piping systems side by side, one with cooling water one with refrigerant B. a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing through the small pipe and the refrigerant through the large pipe. C. two pipes for cooling water and one for the refrigerant D. none of the above 105. air can be prevented from getting into the system by: A. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high pressure side type B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low pressure side type D. running the refrigerant to an aerator 106. the agent used in an indirect reefer system is: A. sodium chloride B. potassium chloride C. calcium chloride D. A and C 107. An Ammonia leak will turn litmus paper : A. blue B. red C. green D. yellow

108. A sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give off a : A. dense yellow smoke B. dense whit smoke C. dense red smoke D. dense green smoke 109. If the compressor were to run continuously without lowering the temperature, the trouble would probably be: A. insufficient refrigerant in the system. B. leaks C. leaky discharge valve D. any of the above 110. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by: A. smelling the discharge water B. applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge C. adding oil of peppermint to the system and tracing the smell D. applying a soapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles 111. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out and ammonia starts to come through by the: A. smell of ammonia being liberated from the water B. color of the water turning green C. color of the water turning bluish D. change of the bubbling sound of air to the crackling sounds of ammonia 112. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with halide torch because it changes color with the slightest amount of Freon present. A large leak can be detected easier by applying A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for the color change B. a soapsuds solutions, mix with a little glycerine to hold the solutions together, and watch for the bubbles C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for bubbles

D. a lighted candle at the joints and watching for leaky spots blowing candle flame 113. When the evaporator coils are located in a brine solution and the brine is pumped through the icebox, the system is known as: A. a direct system B. an indirect system C. a low-pressure system D. a double-evaporator system 114. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused by: A. congealed oil in the system B. scale C. water in the system D. all of the above 115. Too low suction pressure could be caused by: A. dirty scale traps B. shortage of refrigerant gas C. too much oil in the system D. any of the above 116. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the cause might be: A. an open switch B. a blown fuse C. burned-out holding coils in solenoid valve D. any of the above 117. The oil separator is located between the: A. evaporator and the compressor B. compressor and the condenser C. condenser and the dehydrator D. solenoid valve and the thermal expansion valve 118. To help a person who had bee n overexposed to ammonia gas, one would: A. apply artificial respiration B. wrap in warm blankets C. apply could compresses D. douse with cold water 119. If the compressor short-cycles on the lowpressure cutout, the trouble might be:

A. lack of refrigerant B. dirty traps and strainers C. too much frost on coils D. any of the above 120. Ammonia will corrode: A. copper B. bronze C. brass D. all of the above 121. The dehydrating agent in Freon system is usually: A. slaked lime C. activated alumina B. sodium chloride D. calcium chloride 122. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction, which of the following valves will also automatically shut off? A. king valve B. expansion valve C. solenoid valve D. condenser cooling-water inlet valve 123. Many pressure gages on a F reon system have two dials or graduations on one gage. The two dials represent: A. pressure and temperature B. liquid pressure and gas pressure C. suction and discharge pressure D. cooling-water inlet and outlet temperatures 124. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by: A. a fluctuating high-pressure gage B. a drop in icebox temperatures C. a discharge pressure lower than normal D. any of the above 125. The suction pressure in a Freo n system should be: A. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20°F. below the temperature of the icebox B. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature equal to the temperature of the icebox C. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20° above the temperature of the icebox D. none of the above

126. The disadvantage of a CO 2 system over an ammonia system is the fact that: A. the CO2 system requires a larger prime mover B. the CO2 system operates at a much higher pressure C. the pipes and fittings of a C O2 system must be of the high-pressure type D. all of the above 127. One disadvantage of a CO 2 system is the fact that: A. it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too high B. it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too low C. due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from mixing with refrigerant D. it takes more refrigerant to keep the icebox cold

128. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used to: A. reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the condenser B. hot-gas defrost C. pump air out of the system D. add refrigerant to the system 129. Another name for discharge pressure is: A. suction pressure C. head pressure B. absolute pressure D. condenser pressure 130. Oil used in a refrigerating system is: A. lube oil SAE 20 C. lube oil SAE 10 B. straight mineral oil D. vegetable oil 131. The discharge pressure of the compressor should be: A. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5° to 15° below that of the condenser discharge B. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5° to 15° higher than the condenser discharge C. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal to that of the condenser discharge

D. none of the above 132. A leaky suction valve can usually detected by: A. a fluctuating suction-pressure gage B. a higher suction pressure C. closing in on the suction valve having no effect on the suction pressure D. any of the above 133. The purpose of relief valves on refrigerating machines is to: A. prevent overloading in the ice boxes B. bypass the compressor when dehydrating C. prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the discharge side of the system D. A and B 134. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located: A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser B. on the discharge pipe from the compressor C. on the compressor head D. A or B 135. The relief valve on a CO 2 machine is located: A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser B. next to the king valve C. on the discharge pipe between the compressor and the discharge valve D. in the compressor head 136. Excess frost on the evaporator coils: A. keeps the icebox cooler B. reduces the efficiency of the plant C. takes the load off the compressor D. does not affect the system 137. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the use of: A. louver doors C. diffuser fans B. hallow sidewalls D. air vents to deck 138. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure to: A. pump down system C. purge the system B. have spare parts ready D. A and B

139. Some causes of a noisy compressor are: A. worn bearings, pins, etc. B. too much oil in crankcase C. slugging due to folding back of refrigerant D. any of the above

147. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by: A. too much superheat B. insufficient superheat C. expansion of valve hung up D. too much oil in the system

140. Slugging is usually caused by: A. too much oil in the system B. too much refrigerant in the system C. expansion valve not operating properly D. too much cooling water to condenser

148. If an automatic Freon system will not start up, check the: A. high-pressure cutout B. low-pressure cutout C. reset mechanism D. all of the above

141. Zinc rods are found in the: A. evaporator coils B. salt-water side of condenser C. compressor crankcase D. refrigerant side of condenser 142. A double-trunk piston is used to: A. prevent gas from getting to crankcase B. absorb some of the side thrust C. prevent oil from mixing the refrigerant D. all of the above 143. The purpose of the receiver is to: A. cool the refrigerant gas B. separate the oil from the refrigerant C. store the refrigerant D. condense the refrigerant 144. When a pressure gage reads 0, the absolute pressure is: A. 30 psi B. 14.7 psi C. 0 psi D. 17.4 psi 145. The heat used to change a soil to a liquid is called: A. latent heat of fusion B. sensible heat of fusion C. latent heat of liquid D. specific heat of fusion 146. The heat used to change a gas to a vapor is called: A. latent heat of fusion B. latent heat of vaporization C. specific heat of vaporization D. latent heat of gas

149. The cooling-water side of the co ndenser should be opened for inspection every: A. 6 months C. 2 years B. year D. 3 months 150. If the thermal expansion valve becomes in operative the iceboxes will have to be controlled by the: A. solenoid valve B. manual expansion valve C. king valve D. manual solenoid valve 151. The low-pressure cutout switch is operated by: A. a magnet C. spring tension B. a bellows D. water pressure 152. A good refrigerant should be: A. nonpoisonous C. noninflammable B. nonexplosive D. all of the above 153. If a refrigerating system extracted 48,000 BTU per hour, the tonnage of the machine would be: A. 5 tons B. ½ ton C. 2 tons D. 4 tons 154. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to: A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor B. maintain a preset suction pressure to t he compressor C. cut out the compressor at a set pressure

D. cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure 155. The most likely cause of high superheat would be: A. too much refrigerant B. expansion valve open too wide C. expansion valve closed in too much D. back-pressure valve set too high 156. The pressure of the evaporator is to: A. absorb latent heat of the vaporization B. absorb latent heat of the fusion C. transfer latent heat of vaporization D. transfer latent heat of fusion 157. Air is removed from the system by: A. increasing the amount of cooling water B. opening the purge valve C. running the refrigerant through an aerator D. running the refrigerant through a deaerator 158. The suction pressure switch is operated by: A. electric current C. pressure on a bellows B. thermocouple D. a relay cutout 159. A hot suction line might be caused by: A. insufficient refrigerant B. insufficient lubrication C. expansion valve closed too much D. too much refrigerant 160. The device used for low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout on a compressor is called a: A. cutout C. controller switch B. compressor controller D. cutout switch 161. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the: A. bellows type C. diaphragm type B. magnetic type D. A or C 162. Liquid reaching the compressor through the suction line is called: A. flooding back C. overflowing B. superheating D. recycling

163. Pressure controllers usually of the: A. diaphragm-type construction B. bellows-type construction C. magnetic-type construction D. pilot-valve type construction 164. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail: A. the solenoid valve will close B. the expansion valve will close C. the compressor will shut down D. an alarm will ring to notify the e ngineer 165. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor would be stopped by the: A. low-pressure cutout switch B. high-pressure cutout switch C. low-water cutout switch D. automatic trip 166. The solenoid valve controls the: A. amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils B. amount of refrigerant going to t he expansion valve C. amount of refrigerant going to the compressor D. pressure of the refrigerant going to the evaporator coils 167. As Freon passes through the e xpansion valve: A. the volume decreases and the pressure increases B. the volume increases and the pressure increases C. the pressure decreases and the volume increases D. the volume decreases and the pre ssure decreases 168. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should: A. paint the plates with red lead B. install all new plates C. clean the plates and renew worn-out ones D. ground each plate to the shell

169. If the compressor short-cycles on the highpressure cutout, which of the following would you check? A. be sure system is getting cooling water B. if plenty of cooling water is running through but it is not picking up heat, t he condenser tubes need cleaning C. check for too much refrigerant in the system D. all of the above

B. dehydrator

D. receiver

179. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 8 is the: A. dehydrator C. strainer B. condenser D. evaporator 180. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 2 is the: A. dehydrator C. strainer B. oil trap D. scale trap

170. In a refrigerating system the temperature is at its highest between the: A. condenser and receiver B. compressor and condenser C. receiver and evaporator D. evaporator and compressor 171. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under: A. heavy loads C. light loads B. normal conditions D. all of the above

181. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 3 is the: A. charging valve C. purge valve B. liquid valve D. scale trap

172. Short-cycling means that the machine: A. grounds out frequently C. runs too fast B. stops and starts frequently D. runs too slow

182. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 5 is the: A. condenser C. evaporator B. receiver D. dehydrator

173. Freon is: A. noncorrosive B. flammable

183. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 6 is the: A. solenoid valve C. purge valve B. charging valve D. liquid valve

C. nontoxic D. A and C

174. A refrigerant should have a: A. high latent heat C. low latent heat B. high sensible heat D. low sensible heat

184. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 9 is the: A. thermal expansion valve C. solenoid valve B. manual expansion valve D. liquid valve

175. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 7 is the: A. purge valve C. charging valve B. liquid valve D. solenoid valve

185. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 11 is the: A. solenoid valve B. thermal expansion valve C. liquid valve D. none of the above

176. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 12 is the: A. thermal expansion valve C. liquid valve B. solenoid valve D. manual expansion valve 177. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 10 is the: A. solenoid valve C. liquid valve B. strainer D. purge valve 178. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 4 is the: A. evaporator C. condenser

186. Referring to Fig. 4A, part 15 is the: A. high-pressure cutout B. low-pressure cutout C. relief valve D. scale trap

ANSWERS TO REFRIGERATING ENGINEER QUESTIONS

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47.

C A B A D D B B B D C D B C B B C B C A C B D B D B D A D D A C D C C C A D C A A A D D D B C

48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94.

C D A C A B A B D D C B A C D B A B C B C B A C B A B C A D D A B C A C B A C B D B C D A C B

95. C 96. A 97. B 98. D 99. D 100. A 101. A 102. D 103. D 104. B 105. C 106. D 107. A 108. B 109. D 110. B 111. D 112. B 113. B 114. D 115. D 116. D 117. B 118. A 119. D 120. D 121. C 122. C 123. A 124. D 125. A 126. D 127. A 128. B 129. C 130. B 131. B 132. D 133. C 134. C 135. C 136. B 137. C 138. D 139. D 140. C 141. B

142. D 143. C 144. B 145. A 146. B 147. D 148. D 149. D 150. B 151. B 152. D 153. D 154. D 155. C 156. A 157. B 158. C 159. A 160. B 161. D 162. A 163. B 164. C 165. A 166. B 167. C 168. C 169. D 170. B 171. C 172. B 173. D 174. A 175. C 176. A 177. B 178. C 179. A 180. B 181. C 182. B 183. D 184. B 185. A 186. B