Performance » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3. With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min). O.A.T: ISA + 15°C, Pressure Altitude: 0 ft, Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs, Flaps: up. Speed:100 KIAS = 1290 ft/min » For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass. Given: O.A.T: ISA, Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft, Headwind component: 5 kt, Flaps: up, Runway: Tarred and Dry. Factored runway length: 2000 ft, Obstacle height: 50 ft = 3200 lbs » Given: TAS: 200 Still Air Gradient: 5% Tailwind: 50kts What is the effective wind gradient? 4% » Use Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 Given: OAT + 18 C Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 1500ft Aeroplane Mass: 1270 kg Wind Component: 4kt tailwind Runway Surface: Hard Dry Runway Slope: 0% The approximate take-off distance to 50ft is: 465 m
» The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is a shorter ground roll. » A headwind increases the flightpath angle but also has no effect on the climb angle. » The speed VLO is defined as landing gear operating speed. The maximum speed at which an aircraft can be operated with the landing gear extended.
» Vso stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration. Vs Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable. Vs1 Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration. Vmc minimum control speed wit the critical engine inoperative. » Maximum Tire Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation? Groundspeed. » What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant? The ROC speed increases with increasing mass. » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4. With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport? Given: Runway length: 1300 ft, Runway elevation: MSL, Weather: assume ISA conditions, Mass: 3200 lbs, Obstacle height: 50 ft = 10 kt. » How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.) The lift coefficient is independent of altitude. » The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-off is: High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature. » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : 27 °C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry = approximately : 1850 feet » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from 50ft. Given : O.A.T : ISA 15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Tailwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry = approximately : 1900 feet
» At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : -7°C Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Tarred and Dry = approximately: 2050 ft » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : ISA+10°C Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry = 71 and 82 KIAS » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2. With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given : O.A.T : 38°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Dry Grass Correction factor: 1.2 = 3400 ft x 1.2 = approximately: 4150 ft » A climb gradient required is 3.3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately: ROC (fpm) = Climb gradient (%) x Airspeed (kts), 3.3 x 100 = 330 » An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have: an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
» The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections : "± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " "- 5 m / kt headwind " "+ 10 m / kt tail wind " "± 15 m / % runway slope " "± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature " The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is : Elevation =+40m (+20m per 1000ft) ISA deviation = +50m (temp is +10 on ISA / +5m per degree) Slope = +30m (+15m per % of slope) Tailwind= + 50m (+10m per knot of tailwind) Total correction =170m add this to 800m = 970m » The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections: ± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation, - 5 m / kt headwind,+ 10 m / kt tail wind, ± 15 m / % runway slope,± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature. The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is: Altitude +1000ft = +20m Temp deviation from ISA at 1000ft is +4C = +20m Slope = + 15m 10kt tw = + 100m Total correction = 155m 600m + 155m = 755m » An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance » A runway is contaminated by a 0, 5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be: increased » With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about: 5.1% » On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed: equal to 95 kt Vmp » If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by: 15 %
» Climb limit is the weight limited by your ability to satisfactorily comply with the regulatory climb requirements based on temperature, pressure altitude and configuration/thrust. Wind has no impact. » If the actual landing mass is higher than planned: the landing distance will be longer. » For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4 With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft. Given :O.A.T : ISA,Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft, Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs, Tailwind component: 5 kt, Flaps: Landing position (down),Runway: Tarred and Dry = approximately : 1700 feet » For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°C, Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft,Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs, Tailwind component: 2.5 kt, Flaps: up, Runway: Tarred and Dry = approximately : 2500 feet » During a descent a headwind will: increases the angle of the descent flight path. Using the attached image: or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.23 Given the following data, determine the net level off altitude. Aircraft mass: 52,000kg Engine: Anti Ice On AC: Off ISA +20°C = First you must add the penalty for the engine anti ice on of 1950kg 52 000 + 1950 = 53 950kg. On figure 4.23 move to the ISA +20°C line and then left to find the stabilizing altitude Answer 15 400 ft » An airport has a 2600 meters long runway, and a 1000 meters clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed takeoff mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than: 3 600 m » Using the attached image: or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 Given the following, determine the take-off distance: TOM 58,500 kg OAT -7°C Press Alt 1,000 ft Flaps 15° H/W 10 kts Down slope 1° ACS OFF = 5,500 ft » Given: TAS: 140 Still Air Gradient: 7.5% Wind component 25kt Headwind. What is the effective wind gradient? 9.1 % » At reference or see Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3. With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min). O.A.T: ISA + 15°C, Pressure Altitude: 0 ft, Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs, Flaps: up. Speed:100 KIAS = 1290 ft/min » Given: TAS: 200 Still Air Gradient: 5% Tailwind: 50kts What is the effective wind gradient? 5% x 200 = 1000. 1000/250 = 4%
» For this question use reference or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass. Given: O.A.T: ISA, Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft, Headwind component: 5 kt, Flaps: up, Runway: Tarred and Dry. Factored runway length: 2000 ft, Obstacle height: 50 ft = 3200 lbs » The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25° FLLTOM (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 CLTOM: 72 200 69 000 61 800 Wind correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt, Tail wind: -360kg / kt. Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be: 67 700 kg / 15 ° » Given: VS= Stalling speed, VMCA= Air minimum control speed, VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure), V1= take-off decision speed, VR= Rotation speed, V2 min. = Minimum take-off safety speed, VLOF: Lift-off speed. The correct formula is: VS< VMCA< V2 min » Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. » During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). The certificated value of the Take-off Run is: 1747 x 1.15 = 2009 m » At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4. For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) are certified. Given: Field length available= 2400 m, Outside air temperature= -10°C, Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft. The maximum allowed take-off mass is: 56 000 kg » The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: 1.13 VSR for two- and threeengine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.
» Class A aircraft use VSR, the stall reference speed, rather than VS1 but it is substantially the same thing. The take-off safety speed is the highest of: 1.13 VSR for two-engined and three-engined turboprop powered aeroplanes and jet aircraft without provisions for obtaining a significant reduction in the one-engine-inoperative power-on stall speed. 1.08 VSR for turboprop aeroplanes with more than three engines and jet aircraft with provisions for obtaining a significant reduction in the oneengine-inoperative power-on stall speed. 1.10VMC VR plus the speed increment attained before reaching a height of 35 ft above the take-off surface a speed that provides adequate manoeuvring capability » The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is: smaller. » If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: not be affected. » Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)? Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT. / A lower flap setting means a longer takeoff roll but a better climb gradient. A lower pressure altitude and OAT also mean a higher air density which means improved aircraft performance. » At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? 400 ft above field elevation. / 2nd segment is from gear fully retracted to when the aircraft levels off to accelerate which is at a minimum height of 400 ft above the take-off surface. » A head wind will: increase the climb flight path angle. » An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least: 90m + 0.125D / 2 formulae to consider; Wingspan less than 60m then (0.125D +60m + 1/2 wingspan). Wing span more than 60m (0.125D + 90m) (The fraction D/8 = 0.125 D as a decimal). » What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? The time to climb does not change. » How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions)? TAS decreases. » The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. » Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant, both will increase with increasing altitude. » A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within: The runway is dry. 2400/1.67 = 1437m
» At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within: The regulation factor for a jet is 1.67 and the wet factor is 1.15. Total factor 1.67 x 1.15 = 1.92. SO; 3000/1.92 = 1562m » Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is: 3804 kg/h. / 115/130 x 4300 = 3800 kg » A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of: 0.035/0.06 x 14=8.17 kg/nm. » Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine, g = 10 m/s², Drag = 72 569 N, Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN (Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight. The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is: Weight =(100000 – 72569)/ 0.027 = 1015962N Then divide by 10m/sec² to get weight in kg = 101596 kg » Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by: primary aerodynamic control only. » Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged? Accelerate Stop Distance » V1 is lower or equal to VR » A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass. / It will be easier to accelerate the a/c assisted by the downhill component of weight therefore we can increase the mass and still make 35ft and V2 within TODA, however we will have to reduce V1 in case we have to stop with a heavier a/c. » The effect of increasing the flap setting, from zero to the recommended take-off setting, on the length of the Take-off Distance Required (TODR) and the Field-Length-Limited Take-off mass (TOM) is: Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM. » How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude. » Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? The climb limited take-off mass. » VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1. » Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? VMCG / VR=V1. VMU>V1. VLOF >V1.
» Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tire speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting? VR » During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are: - 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognized at V1 - 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: 3050 m » If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true? The accelerate stop distance increases. » During take-off the third segment begins: when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. » Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed. » Which of the following will decrease V1? Inoperative anti-skid. » In accordance with CS-25, the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following minimum margin above the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSR0): 23% / VREF may not be less than 1.23 x VSRO. » In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is: the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain. » During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured from brake release to the 35 feet point are equal to: - 1547 m with all engines running - 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: 1547x1.15= 1779 m. You must choose the greatest distance 1779m » For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet. It must be ensured that the landing mass of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within a landing distance of: 1339 m.
» At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5. With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0 ft? The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited. » At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.
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Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart? The limitation presented in this chart is taken relative to air. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would increase the maximum mass for take-off. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. The first segment of the take-off flight path ends at completion of gear retraction. You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ? The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb. The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2. In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft. At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28. What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?
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Elevation: 2000 ft, QNH: 1013 hPa, Landing mass: 50 000 kg. Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance. Runway condition: dry. Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt, Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt = 3100 m. "Stepped climbs" are used on long-distance flights: to fly a profile as close as possible to the optimum altitude as the aeroplane mass reduces. The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude. The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes. Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? Maximum Cruise Thrust
» At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine increases slightly with increasing airspeed. » The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM increases in proportion to the airspeed. » A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires a higher angle of attack. » "Maximum endurance" is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow. » The speed for maximum endurance: is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. / Maximum endurance speed is Vmd, whereas max range speed is 1.32 Vmd, therefore always higher. » The long-range cruise speed is selected because: the higher speed achieves 99% of the maximum still-air range. » The optimum altitude increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum. » The engine failure take-off run is: the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. » Reduced take-off thrust has the benefit of improving engine life. » A higher outside air temperature (OAT) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. » Uphill slope increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance. » V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when: the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available. » A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. » V2 has to be equal to or higher than 1.1 VMCA. / V2=1.1Vmca » The optimum cruise altitude increases if the aeroplane mass is decreased. » Below the optimum cruise altitude the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude. » Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude? If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected. » If, after experiencing an engine failure when cruising above the oneengine-inoperative ceiling, an aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude, the procedure that should be adopted is: Drift Down Procedure. The maximum drift down altitude is the altitude to which, following the failure of an engine above the one engine inoperative absolute ceiling, an aeroplane will descend and maintain, whilst using max available thrust/power on the operating engine. » If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
» The maximum mass for landing could be limited by the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. » The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus 92% » With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant) reduced. » Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles? Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100 » The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurized cabin is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation. » If the field-length-limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using balanced field-lengths, the use of any additional clearway in the calculation would cause: an increased field-length-limited take-off mass and a reduced V1. / The FLLTOM has increased because of the increase in clearway; however the stopway has not increased so if stopping is required the V1 has to be reduced. » The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. The effect a headwind has on the value of this limit is: None. » Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct? The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. » According to EU-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account. » Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct? When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account. » In accordance with CS 25 the take-off safety speed V2min for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than: 1.08 VSR » If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be lower. » The optimum cruise altitude is the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved. » Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? The speed at which the excess of thrust available over thrust required is greatest. » Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude. » Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment? The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.
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There is a maximum time that that t/o thrust can be set, usually 5 mins AEO and 10 mins OEI. By the end of segment 3 you must go from Max t/o thrust to MCT therefore you must limit the height at the start of segment 3 to ensure that the a/c is clean at VFTO (Vzf +10kts) at the end of segment 3 with MCT set. Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope... reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR). The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower") VMCG<=VEF < V1 Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: anti skid is not usable. In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation. For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation. With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to: the minimum power required. If you are you flying with all your engines out, you are a glider, it does not matter what kind of engines you had. The airframe is the only consideration, so you will get max range at VMD and max endurance at VMP. The only reason there is a difference between FLYING for range and endurance in jets and piston props is because you have to make some sacrifices to accommodate the performance of the engines. With a piston prop, the engines produce power, the propeller converts that into thrust, there is already a huge loss of efficiency, so the airframe becomes the most important consideration. Therefore range stays VMD and endurance VMP. With a jet, the engine is very inefficient at low speeds so we sacrifice some drag to make the engine more efficient for both range and endurance, so the speeds will be faster than a piston prop. Therefore best range at best EAS/D (1.32VMD) speed and endurance at VMD. When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry. The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT. Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: the runway is contaminated. Reduced take off thrust is not to be used on contaminated runways, if wind shear is reported, when anti-skid is unserviceable, or when reverse thrust is unserviceable.
» Which of the following statements regarding the reduced thrust take-off technique is correct? Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the performance limited take-off mass. » Which of the following statements is true regarding a balanced fieldlength? A balanced field length provides the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure. » During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. By selecting a higher flap setting. » Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?" Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. » The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for: maximum endurance. The tangent to the power required curve gives the best ratio of drag x TAS to TAS. Cancel out the TAS (mathematically) and we're left with drag, and as this was the best ratio of drag x TAS to TAS then it must be the point of least drag, Vmd. A jet flies at Vmd for max endurance » Using the attached image or CAP 698 Fig 4.30: Given: Aerodrome Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Temperature: 30°F Downslope 1.5% Headwind: 10kt Flaps: 40° Find the Maximum Quick Turnaround Mass. = 56 375 kg » Using the attached image: or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24 Given the following data, determine the driftdown time, fuel burn and distance flown to clear the obstacle by the statutory minimum. FL 370 Mass 44,000 kg Engine Anti-Ice ON Wing Anti-Ice OFF Temp ISA -10°C Obstacle 23,000’ amsl H/W 30 kts = 24 minutes, 600 kgs, 122 NM » When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance: decreases / remains constant. » A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change? Increase / decrease. So, Flying LRC (or flying whatever) the Specific Range INCREASES along the flight Now as the a/c is lighter along the flight, to maintain a given speed, the Fuel Flow DECREASES So INCREASES / DECREASES would be the correct answer
» The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower") VMCG<=VEF < V1 » The requirements of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane assume: the failure of the critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane at VEF. Vef is the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during take-off. » With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct? An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight. Optimum altitude increases with reducing aircraft weight. » The second segment begins when landing gear is fully retracted. » Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads greater than 1. » If on a particular flight the value of V1 used on take-off exceeds the correct value of V1, if an engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1 then: the accelerate/stop distance will exceed the accelerate/stop distance available. » In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VMCA Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation. » Which combination of answers of the following parameters give an increase or decrease of the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude. 1, 3, 5 and 8 » With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370? Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level. » In accordance to CS-25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min: VSR, VMC / V2min = 1.2 Vs. V2min = 1.1 Vmc » A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be exceeded? Maximum operating speed
» Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? VMCG, V1, VR, V2. » VR cannot be lower than: V1 and 105% of VMCA.
» Select from the following list of conditions those that must prevail in the second segment of the take-off net flight path for a Class A aeroplane are: 1. Undercarriage retracted. 2. Undercarriage extended. 3. Flaps up. 4. Flaps in take-off position. 5. All engines at take-off thrust. 6. Operative engine(s) at take-off thrust. 7. Climbing speed of V2 + 10kts. 8. Climbing speed of 1.3VS. 9. Climbing speed of V2. 10. Commencing height 35ft. 1, 4, 6, 9 » An aeroplane descends from FL 410 to FL 270 at its cruise Mach number and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS achieved at FL 270. Assuming idle thrust, a clean configuration and ignoring compressibility effects, how does the angle of descent change (i) in the first and (ii) in the second part of the descent? (i) Increases (ii) Remains constant » (Refer to CAP698 Section 4 Pages 17–19) Given the following data calculate Vmcg and V1: 3000 ft PA OAT +30º C RLTOM 60,000 kg RW 2% Upslope Flaps 5º 5kt TW PMC ON AC Packs Off = Vmcg 111kts V1 147 kts » How is V2 affected if a T/O flap 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°? V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. » Which of the following speeds may vary if a stopway or clearway is available? V1 » The value of V1 has to be equal to or higher than: VMCG. » A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change? Reduce / decrease. » The drift down requirements are based on: the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. » What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope decreases the take-off speed V1.
» The effects of an increased ambient air temperature beyond the flat rating cut-off temperature of the engines on (i) the field-length-limited take-off mass and (ii) the climb-limited take-off mass are: (i) Decrease (ii) Decrease. » V1 for a balanced-field is calculated when: the acceleration/stop distance available is equal to the take-off distance available. » To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible. » The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative. » For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of ‘maximum range speed’?? Minimum specific fuel consumption. » Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct? It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path". » At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24. With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross mass at engine failure”? The equivalent gross mass at engine failure is the actual gross mass corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C. » The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: VLOF in terms of ground speed. » If all other parameters remain constant, what is the influence of mass on the maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed? The ROC speed increases with increasing mass. » Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct? (from low to high speeds) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed. » For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct? The take-off performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests. » If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur? A higher cruise mach number.
» Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed. » Which of the following is true according to EASA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0, 7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available). » Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship? VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR » According to EU-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is: the same as that required at an alternate airport. » The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the: IAS increases. » The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature
» Using the attached image: or CAP 698 Fig 3.10 Given the following data, what is the FLLLM? Aerodrome pressure altitude 80ft Ambient Temperature: 10 °C Landing distance available : 3080 ft Wind: 12 kt Head Runway slope: 1.5% down Runway surface: Grass Condition: Wet Short field = 3 450 lbs » Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct? It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path". » The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by: 10% / V2 may not be less than 1.1 Vmc » On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient? At 110000kgs the gradient is 2.8%. What mass increase will put the gradient down to 2.6%? 2.8/2.6 x 110000 = 118455kgs
» Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph? Aerodynamics. » During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will: decrease / decrease.
» The vertical interval by which a Class A aeroplane must avoid all obstacles in the drift-down path, during the drift-down following an engine failure is: The net flight path must permit the aeroplane to continue flight from the cruising altitude to an aerodrome with the net flight path clearing vertically, by at least 2000ft all terrain and obstructions along the route within 5nm on either side of the intended track. » Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for: holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle. » During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will: increase, because the lift coefficient decreases. » Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: windshear is reported on the take-off path. » A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? The Maximum operating Mach number. » Compared with balanced-field calculations for an aerodrome with no stopway or clearway, the use of a clearway in the take-off calculations will: Increase the field-length-limited take-off mass. » The angle of attack required to attain the maximum still-air range for a turbo-jet aeroplane is: less than that for the maximum lift to drag ratio. » Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent? (Still air, no turbulence)? Maximum range. » During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: decrease.
» The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point. » Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct? A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition. » The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSRO) is that VREF may not be below: 1.23VSRO » The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in: The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane. » A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed of greatest lift-to-drag ratio. » Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? A high runway elevation and tail wind. » Using the attached image: or CAP 698 Fig 4.5 Given: CLTOM: 48020 kgs Flaps: 15° Airport pressure altitude: 6000 ft PACKS OFF PMC ON ANTI ICE OFF Find the maximum airport OAT with these conditions. = 30°C » The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise. Higher » Which statement relating to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties » Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes. » For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS and a constant mass the drag will: remain almost constant. » The pilot of an aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3250 kg. If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be: higher than 4000 m. » Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean" configuration? A
» Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off? Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. » In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag? In level flight with constant IAS » With a true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb angle is about: 3° / ROC/TAS = 1000/194 = 5.15% Each 5% of gradient is roughly equal to a 3 degree climb. » When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means a lower airspeed requires more thrust. » The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the maximum certified take-off flap setting is: an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass. A higher flap setting for takeoff result in a shorter take off roll, therefore the field length take-off mass increases. The climb gradient is less which decreases the climb limited take off mass. » For this question use Reference CAP698 third edition July 2006 SEP 1 Figure 2.3. Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T at Take-off: ISA, Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft, Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs, Speed:100 KIAS.= 1120ft/min and 9.3% » The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: 0 ft/min
» Compared to a more forward position, a Centre of Gravity close to, but not beyond, the aft limit: improves the maximum range. » Which of the following statements is correct? A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
» An airport has a 3000 meters long runway, and a 2000 meters clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed takeoff mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than: 4500 meters. The clearway used can't exceed 50% of the TORA. If TORA is 3000m and 50% of that is 1500m this means you can't use more than 1500m of the clearway. TODA is 3000 + 1500 = 4500m. » Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? Weight, drag and thrust. » How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine? Both decrease. » The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be: smaller. » How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for maximum range? First increases than decreases. » The length of a clearway may be included in: the take-off distance available. » Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in: a longer take-off distance and a better climb. » What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? It will decrease the take-off distance required.
» If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will: increase the take-off distance. » What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'? The speed is unstable. The faster the airspeed is above Vmd, the greater the speed stability. Conversely the slower the airspeed is below Vmd the greater the speed instability.
» What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane? The speed for best angle of descent increases. A heavier aircraft has to glide at a faster speed to be at Vmd because the drag curve has moved up and to the right. » Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight? the lift » The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on the bank angle only. » The induced drag of an aeroplane decreases with increasing airspeed. » The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is greatest at: the lowest achievable speed in a given configuration » The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for: minimum drag. » The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is the lowest point of the drag curve. » The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum is always lower than the minimum drag speed. » On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight, the point at which a tangent from the origin touches the power required curve: is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
» At a higher gross mass on a piston-engined aeroplane, in order to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude: the airspeed must be increased and the drag will also increase. » On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass: an increase in airspeed and power is required. » An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag: remains unchanged but the TAS increases. » On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required: increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage. » Assuming the gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, moving the Centre of Gravity from the forward safe limit to the aft safe limit: decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required. » The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane: in unaccelerated level flight. » In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag: a lower speed requires a higher thrust. » A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires: a higher coefficient of lift. » The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by: increasing the angle of attack. » Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow » Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available? No. » The take-off distance available is: the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available. » A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature: decreases the field length limited take-off mass. » The take-off distance required increases: due to slush on the runway.
» Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be: lower. » On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased: by uphill slope. » On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is: The specific range and the optimum altitude increases. » In unaccelerated climb: thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. » The rate of climb is approximately equal to: the still-air gradient multiplied by the TAS. » If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight: the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained. » Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting, decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb. » The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of: the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. » A higher outside air temperature: reduces the angle and the rate of climb. » A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant): has no effect on rate of climb. » A constant headwind: increases the angle of the descent flight path. » The absolute ceiling: is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero. » The aerodynamic ceiling: is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same. » In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on: altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board. » For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to: the maximum CL/CD ratio » What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only): Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
» At reference or use Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1 Airport characteristics: hard, dry and runway slope zero Actual conditions are: pressure altitude: 1500 ft outside temperature: 18°C wind component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 2800 lbs, the take-off distance will be: 1500 ft » Density altitude is the: pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature » The Density Altitude: is used to determine the aeroplane performance. » Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance? High temperature and high relative humidity » During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component: decreases the ground distance flown during that climb. » The effect that a tailwind has on the value of the maximum endurance speed is: none. » During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: Service ceiling. » Take-off run is defined as the: horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the takeoff surface. TOR is the total distance from brake release o the screen height.
» In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by: (T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight): T + W sin GAMMA = D » An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL / CD ratio: Increases / increases / decreases » An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance: decreases. » The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached: at the lowest possible altitude. » Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.) Configuration and angle of attack. » Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at zero wind and zero thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics? At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane. » Compared with still-air, the effect a headwind has on the values of the maximum range speed and the maximum gradient climb speed respectively is that: the maximum range speed increases and the maximum gradient climb speed is not affected. » The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when: The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag. » Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? Tailwind. » Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? Low mass. » When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass. » A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a
thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s²) 12.86%. / First we need to convert the weight into Newtons 150 000 kgs x 10m/s² = 1 500 000 N L/D ration is 14:1 so the drag will be 1 500 000 / 14 = 107142.85 N Substitute values in formula (T-D) / W = SIN THETA x 100 (as the questions wants a percentage) (300 000 - 107 142.85)/1 500 000 = 0.1285714 X 100 = 12.86% » Regarding unaccelerated horizontal flight, Minimum Drag is: proportional to aircraft mass. » VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
» If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases: the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases. » The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the: acceleratestop distance available. » Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5 270 kg - obstacle limit: 4 630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at: 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases » A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorizes a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway: increased » An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance » A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance » A decrease in atmospheric pressure results in a decrease in air density which therefore means a decrease in aircraft performance. These results in an increased take off distance required and degraded climb performance.
» The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: Degraded » Which one of the following statements is true concerning the effect of changes of ambient temperature on an aeroplane's performance, assuming all other performance parameters remain constant? A decrease will cause an increase of the climb gradient. » Ignoring the effect of compressibility, the effect a change of altitude has on the value of the coefficient of lift is that it: is independent of altitude. » The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass, 3 increasing density, 5 increasing flap setting, 8 decreasing pressure altitude. » Besides lift, the forces that determine the gradient of climb of an aeroplane are: Weight, drag and thrust. » The effect that an increased outside air temperature has on the climb performance of an aeroplane is that it: reduces both the climb gradient and the rate of climb. » The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the maximum certified take-off flap setting is: an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass. » Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off? Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. » In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag? In level flight with constant IAS » When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means a lower airspeed requires more thrust. » The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: 0 ft/min » In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? In the accelerate stop distance available. » Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass? Allowable take-off mass decreases.
» The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for: the failure of the critical engine on a multiengines aeroplane. » Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: lower than that for clean configuration. » Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS? Both will increase. » Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed. » With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance » In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: reduce the engine thrust. » At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: 5% » An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to: 180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative. » ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of: 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed. » At reference or see Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24. With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level. » You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA)? The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb. » At reference or see Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2.
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set? No, the performance will be worse than in the chart. » The critical engine inoperative: increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment. » To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be: higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. » How wind is considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals? Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind. » V1 has to be: equal to or higher than VMCG. » Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent. » As long as an aeroplane is in a steady climb: VX is always less than VY. » The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass: decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density. » Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas: VY and VX are increased. » The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as: take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. » VX is: the speed for best angle of climb. » The speed for best rate of climb is called: VY. » What percentages of the head wind and tail wind component are taken into account when calculating the take off field length required? 50% head wind and 150% tail wind. » For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is: that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
» The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance. » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: 0°C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25°F rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1050 ft/min » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: 10°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given? 430 ft/min
» Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 20°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 120°/ 8 kts Take off Mass: 4500 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 4200 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 30L Wind: 180°/10 kts Take off Mass: 4600 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph.
What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 4250 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 24L Wind: 310°/20kts Take off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 3750 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 20°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft RWY: 07R Wind: 120°/ 15 kts Take off Mass: 4500 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 3450 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: 25°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 26L Wind: 310°/20kts Take off Mass: 4400 lbs Heavy Duty Brakes installed Other conditions as associated in the header of the of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 3500 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2 Given: OAT: -10°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 180°/10 kts Take off Mass: 4600 lbs
Heavy Duty Brakes installed. Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Accelerate and Stop Distance under the conditions given? 3550 ft » How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust: decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up. » A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with takeoff thrust on both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilizing the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be maintainable? Straight flight. » Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires: an increase in approach speed » What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained? (Assume a constant Mass.): The drag remains almost constant. » What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number? The lift coefficient increases. » Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? The speed for maximum climb angle Vx. » If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct? V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG. » Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? The field length limited take-off mass will increase. » The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative. » Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of: 115 m / Change in ht = gradient x distance travelled/100 Change in ht = 10 x 10000/100 = 1000 m Add to this the start height at the screen of 15m = 1015 m. So the a/c will clear the 900m obstacle by 115m
» The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: obstacle clearance after engine failure. » Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct? Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed » Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses? (Assume zero thrust and wind): Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger. » Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of: 105 m » The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in: an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance. » At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turbo-prop aeroplane is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: 123 kt » Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? A tailwind component increases the ground distance. » According to CS-25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than: 1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060°/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given? 2000 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: - 20°C Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Mixture: full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1300 ft/min » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given? 1350 ft
» Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: 10°C Pressure Altitude: 2000 ft Gross Mass: 3750 lbs Mixture: full rich Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1770 ft/min » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: -15°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given? 1270 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 12L Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given? 1700 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: - 20°C Pressure Altitude: 18000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Mixture: leaned to 25°F rich of peak EGT Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the two engine rate of climb for the conditions given? 1050 ft/min » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: -15°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft RWY: 12R Wind: 080°/12 kts Take off Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Take-off Distance under the conditions given? 1550 ft
» Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.7 Given: OAT: - 20°C Pressure Altitude: 14000 ft Gross Mass: 4000 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the one engine inoperative rate of climb for the conditions given? 175 ft/min » Use Performance Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.1 Given: OAT: 24°C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft RWY: 30R Wind: 060°/4 kts Take off Mass: 3800 lbs Other conditions as associated in the header of the graph. What is the Ground Roll Distance under the conditions given? 1670 ft » Use Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2 With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, if the brakes are released before take-off power is achieved, the accelerate/stop distance will be: longer than the graphical distance. » Assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting, increasing the aerodrome pressure altitude: Will cause the maximum permitted take-off mass to decrease.
» The engine failure during take-off run results in: A longer ground roll. » When carrying out Short Landing Operations what is the maximum length of the Declared Safe Area? 90m » You are flying at minimum drag speed of 230 kts in a jet, if you fly at maximum range speed what is your speed? 1.32 x 230 = 304 kts » Using the attached image: or CAP 698 Fig 4.28 Given the following data determine the Field Length Limiting Landing Mass. Runway: Dry Manual spoilers Anti-skid: Operative Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind: 30 kts Field Length: 2100 meters Flaps: 15° = 57 200 kg » What is maximum range speed for a Turbo Prop aircraft with a VMD of 143kts? 143 kts » If you experience an engine failure before speed (1)... the pilot must, with a reaction time of (2).... be able to stop the plane within (3).... (1) V1 (2) 2 secs (3) ASDA.
