AIR LAW ATPL GROUND TRAINING SERIES
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Introduction © CAE Oxord Aviation Academy (UK) Limited 2014
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All Rights Reserved
I n t r o d u c t i o n
This text book is to be used only for the purpose of private study by individuals and may not be reproduced in any form or medium, copied, stored in a retrieval system, lent, hired, rented, transmitted or adapted in whole or in part without the prior written consent of C AE Oxford Aviation Academy. Academy.
Copyright in all documents and materials bound within these covers or attached hereto, excluding that material which is reproduced by the kind permission o third parties and acknowledged as such, belongs exclusively to CAE Oxord Aviation Academy. Certain copyright material is reproduced with the permission o the International Civil Aviation Organisation, the United Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority and the European Aviation Saety Agency (EASA).
This text book has been written and published as a reference work to assist students enrolled on an approved EASA Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) course to prepare themselves for the EASA ATPL theoretical knowledge examinations. Nothing in the content of this book is to be interpreted as constituting instruction or advice relating to practical fying.
Whilst every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy o the inormation contained within this book, neither CAE Oxord Aviation Academy nor the distributor gives any warranty as to its accuracy or otherwise. Students preparing or the EASA ATPL (A) theoretical knowledge examinations should not regard this book as a substitute or the EASA ATPL (A) theoretical theoretical knowledge training training syllabus published in the current current edition o ‘Part-FCL 1’ (the Syllabus). Sylla bus). The Syllabus constitutes the sole authoritati authoritative ve definition o the subject matter to be studied in an EASA ATPL (A) theoretical knowledge training programme. No student should prepare or, or is currently entitled to enter himsel/hersel or the EA SA ATPL (A) theoretical knowledge examinations examinations without first being enrolled in a training school which has been granted approval by an EASA authorised national aviation authority to deliver EASA ATPL (A) training. CAE Oxord Aviation Academy excludes all liability or any loss or damage incurred or suffered as a result o any reliance on all or part o this book except or any liability or death or personal injury resulting rom CAE Oxord Aviation Academy’s negligence or any other liability which may not legally be excluded.
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Introduction
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Introduction Textbook Series
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I n t r o d u c t i o n
Book
T i tl e
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010 Air Law
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020 Aircraf General Knowledge 1
Subjec t
Airrames & Systems Fuselage, Wings & Stabilising Suraces Landing Gear Flight Controls Hydraulics Air Systems & Air Conditioning Anti-icing & De-icing Fuel Systems Emergency Equipment
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020 Aircraf General Knowledge 2
Electrics – Elec tronics Direct Current Alternating Current
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020 Aircraf General Knowledge 3
Powerplant Piston Engines Gas Turbines
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020 Aircraf General Knowledge 4
Instrumentation Flight Instruments Warning & Recording Automatic Flight Control Power Plant & System Monitoring Instruments
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030 Flight Pe Perormance & Pl Planning 1
Mass & Balance Perormance
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030 Flight Per o ormance & Pla nn nning 2
Flight Planning & Monitoring
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040 Human Per o ormance & Limitations
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050 Meteorology
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060 Navigation 1
General Navigation
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060 Navigation 2
Radio Navigation
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070 Operational Procedures
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080 Principles o Flight
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090 Communications
VFR Communications IFR Communications
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Introduction
Contents
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n o i t c u d o r t n I
ATPL Book 1 Air Law 1. Definitions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 2. Interna International tional Agreement Agreementss and Organizations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
21
3. Airworthiness o Aircraf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
55
4. Aircraf Nationality and Registration Marks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
61
5. Flight Crew Licensing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
69
6. Rules o the Air . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
95
7. Instrument Procedures - Departures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
149
8. Approach Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
165
9. Circling Approach . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
199
10. Holding Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
207
11. Altimeter Setting Procedure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
219
12. Parallel or Near-parallel Runway Operation. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
231
13. SSR and ACAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
245
14. Airspace . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
255
15. Air Traffic Services . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
271
16. Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
289
17. Control o Aircraf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
323
18. Aeronautical Inormation Service (AIS) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
349
19. Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
367
20. Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
391
21.. Aerodrome Lighting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21
417
22. Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Serv rviices. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
437
23. Facilitation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
451
24. Search and Rescue . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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25. Security . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
471
26. Aircraf Accident and Incident Investigation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
485
27.. Revision Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27
495
28. Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
537
29. Index . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
557
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Chapter
1 Definitions
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Air Law. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Abbreviations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Definitions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Definitions
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
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Definitions Introduction
1 s n o i t i n fi e D
The content o the CAE Oxord Aviation Law Course meets the requirements o the EASA FCL syllabus (Subject 010 – Air Law) and the associated Learning Objectives (LOs). The main reerence reere nce documents are the Annexes to the Convention on International Aviation (The Chicago Convention) and the associated PAN documents. Additional reerences are taken rom EASA Part-FCL and EASA Part-MED.
Air Law The subject o Air Law is a misnomer misnomer.. The content o the subject is effectively airmanship with the addition o inormation concerning concerning some o the international international conventions that that have been adopted to regularize the administration o aviation and the aviation industry. The subject matter is diverse ranging rom internat international ional agreements through the rules o the air, flight crew licensing, instrument procedures, ATC and the physical characteristics o aerodromes. A student does not need to be a lawyer to pass this subject. Most o the requirements are common sense, the majority o which which will be amiliar amiliar to a PPL holder. The ab initio student student should approach the subject rom the ‘need to know’ principle and be guided g uided by the examination eedback eedback as well as the syllabus. The end o chapter questions are based on examination questions and should give the student a eel or the level o knowledge required on completion o the course.
Abbreviations Air Law, perhaps more than any other subject, is inundated with abbreviations, some o which are examinable. Where this is the case, the abbreviations are specified in the appropriate chapter and ‘decoded.’ The ollowing is a list (not exhaustive) o abbreviations commonly used in aviation. AAIB AAL ABIP ABN a/c ACC AD ADA ADF ADO ADR ADT AFI AFIS AFS AFTN AGL AGNA AIC AIP AIREP AIS a/l ALT
Air Accident Investigation Board Above Aerodrome Level Advisory Body o Interest Interested ed Parties Aerodrome Beacon Aircraf Area Control Centre Airworthiness Directive Advisory Airspace Automatic Direction Finding Approved Design Organization Advisory Route Approved Departure Time Assistant Flying Instructor Aerodrome Flight Inormation Service Aeronautical Fixed Service Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunications Network Above Ground Level Advisory Group o National Authorities Aeronautical Inormation Circular Aeronautical Inormation Publication Air Report Aeronautical Inormation Service Airline Altitude
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Definitions AMC AME AMO AMOSS AMSL AMT ANO A-NPA AOC A/P APO APU ARC ARP ARN ASDA ASL ASR ATAS AT AS ATC ATCC ATCU ATCRU ATFM ATIS ATM ATO ATS ATSU ATTCS ATZ AUW AWD AW D AWO AWY BEA BR CAA CAME CANP CAS CAT CDFA CF CJAA C o A COM CRD CRI CRS CS CSP
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
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Acceptable Means o Compliance Aero Medical Examiner Approved Mainten Maintenance ance Organization Airline Mainten Maintenance ance and Operation Support System Above Mean Sea Level Approved Maintenance Training Air Navigation Order Advance Notice o Proposed Amendment Air Operator’s Certificate Autopilot Approved Production Organization Auxiliary Power Unit Airworthiness Review Certificate Aerodrome Aerodrom e Reerence Point ATS Route Network Accelerate-Stop Distance Available Above Sea Level Altimeter Setting Region Air Traffic Advisor Advisoryy Servi Service ce Air Traffic Control Air Traffic Control Centre Air Traffic Control Unit Air Traffic Control Radar Unit Air Traffic Flow Management Automatic Terminal Inormati Inormation on Servi Service ce Air Traffic Management Approved Training Organizati Organization on Air Traffic Servi Service ce Air Traffic Servi Service ce Unit Automatic Take-off Thrus Thrustt Control System Air Traffic Zone All Up Weight Airworthiness Division All Weather Operation Operationss Airway Bureau d’Enquêtes Accidents (Frenc (French h equivalent o NTSB) Basic Regulation Civil Aviation Authority Continuous Airworthiness Mainten Maintenance ance Exposition Civil Aviation Notification Procedure Controlled Airspace Commercial Air Tr Transport ansport Constant Descent Final Approach Certification Central Joint Aviation Authorities Certificate o Airworthiness (European) Commission Comment Response Document Certification Review Item Certificate o Release to Service Certification Specification Certification Standardiz Standardization ation Panel
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Definitions CTR DA db DF DG TREN TREN DH DME DOA DOE DR E EASA EAT EC ECAC ED EET ELT EPA EPIRB EPR ER ETA ETSO ETSOa ETOPS EU FAA FAL FAT FA T FCL FFS FI FIR FIS FL FLPFM FTD FTL GA GASIL GCA GM GMT GPS H24 HF Hz IAS Ibn ICAO IFR
Control Zone Decision Altitude Decibel (acoustic measurement unit) Direction Finding Directorate-General Directorat e-General or Tr Transport ansport and Energy (European Commission) Decision Height Distance Measuring Equipment Design Organization Approval Design Organization Exposition Dead Reckon Reckoning ing Engine European Aviation Saety Agency Expected Approach Time European Commission European Civil Aviation Conere Conerence nce Emergency Distance Estimated Elapsed Time Emergency Location Transmitter European Part Approval Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon Environmental Protection Requirement Requirementss Essential Requirement Requirementss Estimated Time o Arrival European Technical Standard Order European Technical Standard Order authorization Extended Twin Jet Operations European Union Federal Aviation Administration Facilitation Facilitati on o Air Transport Final Approach Track Flight Crew Licensing Full Flight Simulator Flying Instructor Flight Inormation Region Flight Inormation Service Flight Level Foot Launched Powered Flying Machine Flight Tr Training aining Device Flight Time Limitations General Aviation General Aviation Saety Inormation Leaflet Ground Controlled Approach Guidance Materi Material al Greenwich Mean Time Global Positioning System Day and Night Operating Hours High Frequency Hertz Radio Frequency Indicated Air Speed Identification Beacon International Internat ional Civil Aviation Organization Instrument Flight Rules
1 s n o i t i n fi e D
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Definitions ILS IMC IPC IR IR IRE IRVR ISA JAA JAR k kHz KIAS kt LAPL(A) LARS LATCC LDA LHA LF LHA LoA MATZ MB MCC MDH MEHT MEL METAR MF MHz MMEL MNPS MOA MoC MoD MOE MOM MOTNE MRSA MSA MS MTOA MTOE MTOM MTOP MTWA NAA NAPs NAV NATS NDB
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
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Instrument Landing System Instrument Meteorological Conditions Illustrated Parts Catalogue Implementing Rules Instrument Rating Instrument Rating Examiner Instrument Runway Visual Range International Standard Atmosphere Joint Aviation Authorities Joint Aviation Requirements thousand Kilohertz Indicated Airspeed in Knots Knots (nautical miles/ hour) Light Aircraf Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) Lower Airspace Radar Service London Air Traffic Control Centre Landing Distance Available Lowest Holding Altitude Low Frequency Lowest holding altitude Letter o Agreement Military Air Traffic Zone Management Board (EASA) Multi-crew Co-operation Minimum Descent Height Minimum Eye Height (PAPIs) Minimum Equipment List Aviation Routine Weather Report Medium Frequency Megahertz Master Minimum Equipment List Minimum Navigation Perormance Specification Maintenance Organization Approval Means o Compliance Ministry o Deence Maintenance Organization Exposition Maintenance Organization Manual (Subpart F) Meteorological Operational Telecommunications Network Mandatory Radar Service Area Member States Administration Member State (o the European Community) Maintenance Training Organization Approval Maintenance Training Organization Exposition Maximum Take-off Mass Maximum Take-off Power Maximum Take-off Weight Authorized National Aviation Authority Noise Abatement Procedures Navigation National Air Traffic Services Non-directional Beacon
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Definitions NDB(L) NOH NOSIG NOTAM NPA OCA OCA OCH OCL OCP OEM OIS Ops P PAD
Locator (a low-powered NDB serving approaches) Notified Operating Hours No Significant Change Notice to Airmen Notice o Proposed Amendment Oceanic Control Area Obstacle Clearance Altitude Obstacle Clearance Height Obstacle Clearance Limit Organizations Certification Procedure Original Equipment Manuacturer Obstacle Identification Surace Operations Propeller Proposed Airworthiness Directive Part 145 Part 21 Part 22 PANS Procedures or Air Navigation PAR Precision Approach Radar PAPI Precision Approach Path Indicator Pax Passengers PCM Project Certification Manager PCP Products Certification Procedure PIC Pilot-in-command PICUS Pilot-in-command Under Supervision POA Production Organization Approval POE Production Organization Exposition PPA Products, Parts and Appliances PT Public Transport RCC Rescue Co-ordination Centre RG Rulemaking RIA Regulatory Impact Assessment RIS Radar Inormation Service RLCE Request Level Change En route RNOTAM Royal NOTAM RP Responsible Party RTA Request or Technical Advice RTF Radio Telephony RTOW Regulated Take-off Weight RTG Radio Telegraphy RTR Radar Termination Range RVR Runway Visual Range RVSM Reduced Vertical Separation Minima Rwy Runway SAR Search and Rescue SARP ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices SARSAT Search and Rescue Satellite Tracking System SDF Step-down Fix SELCAL Selective Calling Sc Surace SID Standard Instrument Departure
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Definitions SIGMET SNOCLO SoD SoR SPECI SPIC SPL SSCC SSR STAR STC STD STCH SVFR TAF TAS TC TCA TCDS TCH TMA TMG ToA TODA TOM ToR TORA TP TR TRE TL TVOR TVP Twr UAV UHF UIR U/s UTC VASI VFR VHF VLA VLR VMC VOR VSTOL WA WEF WG WIP Wpt
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
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Significant Meteorological Warning Closed by Snow State o Design State o Registry Special Met Report Student Pilot-in-command Supplementary Flight Plan Saety Standards Consultative Committee Secondary Surveillance Radar Standard Instrument Arrival Supplemental Type Certificate Synthetic Training Device STC Holder Special Visual Flight Rules Aerodrome Meteorological Forecast True Airspeed Type Certificate Terminal Control Area Type Certificate Data Sheet Type Certificate Holder Terminal Manoeuvring Area Touring Motor Glider Terms o Approval Take-off Distance Available Take-off Minima Terms o Reerence Take-off Run Available Turning Point Type Rating Type Rating Examiner Transition Level Terminal VHF Omni-ranging Type Validation Principles Tower (Aerodrome Control) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle Ultra High Frequency Upper Inormation Region Unserviceable Co-ordinated Universal Time Visual Approach Slope Indicator Visual Flight Rules Very High Frequency Very Light Aeroplane Very Light Rotorcraf Visual Meteorological Conditions VHF Omni-ranging Very Short Take-off and Landing Working Arrangement With Effect From Working Group Work in Progress Waypoint
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Definitions Definitions
1 s n o i t i n fi e D
Some o the examination questions relate to the wording o definitions and the LOs require the student to be able to identiy the correct definition rom a list o offered alternatives. The ollowing are the definitions used in the Annexes to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. Advisory Airspace. Airspace o defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air traffic advisory service is available. Advisory Route. A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available. Aerial Work Aircraf means an aircraf (other than a public transport aircraf) flying, or intended by the operator to fly, or the purpose o aerial work. Aerial Work Undertaking means an undertaking whose business includes the perormance o aerial work. Aerobatic Manoeuvres includes loops, spins, rolls, bunts, stall turns, inverted flying and any other similar manoeuvre. Aerodrome means any area o land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used or affording acilities or the landing and departure o aircraf and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roo o a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart or affording acilities or the landing and departure o aircraf capable o descending or climbing vertically, but shall not include any area the use o whi ch or affording acilities or the landing and departure o aircraf has been abandoned and has not been resumed. Aerodrome Control Service means an air traffic control service or any aircraf on the manoeuvring area or apron o the aerodrome in respect o which the service is being provided or which is flying in, or in the vicinity o, the aerodrome traffic zone o that aerodrome by visual reerence to the surace. Aerodrome Flight Inormation Unit means a person appointed by the Authority or by any other person maintaining an aerodrome to give inormation by means o radio signals to aircraf flying or intending to fly within the aerodrome traffic zone o that aerodrome and aerodrome flight inormation service shall be construed accordingly. Aerodrome. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part or the arrival, departure and sur ace movement o aircraf. Aerodrome Control Tower. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to aerodrome traffic. Aerodrome Operating Minima in relation to the operation o an aircraf at an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and runway visual range or take-off, and the decision height or minimum descent height, runway visual range and visual reerence or landing, which are the minimum or the operation o that aircraf at that aerodrome. Aerodrome Traffic. All traffic on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome and all aircraf flying in the vicinity o an aerodrome. Aerodrome Traffic Zone. Airspace o defined dimensions established around an aerodrome or the protection o aerodrome traffic.
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Definitions Aeronautical Ground Light means any light specifically provided as an aid to air navigation, other than a light displayed on an aircraf.
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
Aeronautical Part. That part o an aerodrome including buildings to which access is limited by security measures (airside). Aeronautical Radio Station means a radio station on the surace, which transmits or receives signals or the purpose o assisting aircraf. Aeronautical Station. A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, or example, on board ship or on a platorm at sea. Aeroplane. A power driven heavier than air aircraf, deriving its lif in flight chiefly rom aerodynamic reactions on suraces which remain fixed under given conditions o flight. Aircraf. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere rom the reactions o the air other than the reactions o the air against the earth’s surace. Aircraf Category. Classification o aircraf according to specified basic characteristics e.g. aeroplane, helicopter, glider, ree balloon. Aircraf certified or Single-pilot Operation. A type o aircraf which the State o Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated saely with a minimum crew o one pilot. Aircraf - Type o. All aircraf o the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those modifications which result in change in handling or flight characteristics Air Traffic. All aircraf in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome. Air Traffic Advisory Service. A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so ar as practical, between aircraf which are operating on IFR flight plans. Air Traffic Control Clearance Authorization or an aircraf to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit. Note. For convenience, the term “air traffic control clearance” is requently abbreviated to “clearance” when used in appropriate contexts. Note 2. The abbreviated term “clearance” may be prefixed by the words “taxi”, “take-off”, “departure”, “en route”, “approach” or “landing” to indicate the particular portion o flight to which the air traffic control clearance relates. Air Traffic Control Service. A service provided or the purpose o:
•
•
Preventing collisions: •
Between aircraf
•
On the manoeuvring area between aircraf and obstructions
Expediting and maintaining an orderly flow o air traffic.
Air Traffic Control Unit. A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach control office or aerodrome control tower. Air Traffic Services Airspaces. Airspaces o defined dimensions alphabetically designated, within which specific types o flights may operate and or which air traffic services and rules o operation are specified.
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Definitions Air Traffic Services Reporting Office. A unit established or the purpose o receiving reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted beore departure.
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Air Traffic Services Unit. A generic term meaning variously, air traffic control unit, flight inormation centre or air traffic services reporting office.
s n o i t i n fi e D
Air Transport Undertaking means an undertaking whose business includes the undertaking o flights or the purposes o public transport o passengers or cargo. Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS). An aircraf system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently o ground-based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraf that are equipped with SSR transponders. Airway. A control area or portion thereo established in the orm o a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids. Alerting Service. A service provided to notiy appropriate organizations regarding aircraf in need o search and rescue aid, and to assist such organizations as required. Alternate Aerodrome. An aerodrome to which an aircraf may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to continue to or to land at, the aerodrome o intended landing. Alternate aerodromes include the ollowing:
• Take-off alternate. An aerodrome at which an aircraf can land should this become necessary shortly afer take-off where it is not possible to use the aerodrome o depar ture. • En route alternate. An aerodrome at which an aircraf would be able to land afer experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route. • Destination alternate. An aerodrome to which an aircraf may proceed should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome o intended landing. Note. The aerodrome rom which a flight departs may also be an en route or a destination alternate aerodrome or that flight. Altitude. The vertical distance o a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured rom mean sea level. Annual Costs in relation to the operation o an aircraf means the best estimate reasonably practicable at the time o a particular flight in respect o the year commencing on the first day o January preceding the date o the flight, o the cost o keeping and maintaining and the indirect costs o operating the aircraf, such costs in either case excluding direct costs and being those actually and necessarily incurred without a view to profit. Annual Flying Hours. The best estimate reasonably practicable at the time o a particular flight by an aircraf o the hours flown or to be flown by the aircraf in respect o the year commencing on the first day o January preceding the date o the flight. Approach Control Office. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled flights arriving at, or departing rom, one or more aerodromes. Approach Control Service. Air traffic control service or arriving or departing controlled flights. Approach to Landing means that portion o the flight o the aircraf, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height o 1000 f above the relevant specified decision height or minimum descent height.
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Definitions Appropriate ATS Authority. The relevant authority designated by the State responsible or providing air traffic services in the airspace concerned.
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
Appropriate Authority.
• Regarding flight over the high seas: the relevant authority o the State o Registry • Regarding flight other than over the high seas: the relevant authority o the State having sovereignty over the territory being overflown Apron. A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraf or the purposes o loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, uelling, parking or maintenance. Area Control Centre. An air traffic control unit established to provide an area control service to aircraf flying within a notified flight inormation region which are not receiving an aerodrome control service or an approach control service. Area Control Service. Air traffic control service or controlled flights in control areas. Area Navigation Equipment (RNAV). Equipment carried on board an aircraf which enables the aircraf to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage o appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the limits o that on-board equipment or a combination o the two. ATS Route. A specified route designed or channelling the flow o traffic as necessary or the provision o air traffic services. Note. The term “ATS route” is used to mean variously, airway, advisory route, controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route, etc. Authorized Person means:
• Any constable • Any person authorized by the Secretary o State (whether by name, or by class or description) either generally or in relation to a particular case or class o cases • Any person authorized by the Authority (whether by name or class or description) either generally or in relation to a particular case or class o cases Cabin Attendant in relation to an aircraf means a person on a flight or the purpose o public transport carried or the purpose o perorming in the interests o the saety o passengers duties to be assigned by the operator or the commander o the aircraf but who shall not act as a member o the flight crew. Captive Flight means flight by an uncontrollable balloon during which it is attached to the surace by a restraining device. Cargo includes mail and animals. Certified or Single-pilot Operation means an aircraf which is not required to carry m ore than one pilot. Change-over Point. The point at which an aircraf navigating on an ATS route segment defined by reerence to very high requency omni-directional radio ranges (VOR) is expected to transer its primary navigational reerence rom the acility behind the aircraf to the next acility ahead o the aircraf. They are normally every 60 NM.
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Definitions Note. Change-over points are established to provide the optimum balance in respect o signal strength and quality between acilities at all levels to be used and to ensure a common source o azimuth guidance or all aircraf operating along the same portion o a route segment.
1 s n o i t i n fi e D
Clearance Limit. The point to which an aircraf is granted an air traffic control clearance. Cloud Ceiling in relation to an aerodrome means the vertical distance rom the elevation o the aerodrome to the lowest par t o any cloud visible rom the aerodrome which is sufficient to obscure more than one-hal o the sky so visible. Commander in relation to an aircraf means the member o the flight crew designated as commander o that aircraf by the operator thereo, or, ailing such a person, the person who is or the time being the pilot-in-command o the aircraf. Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL). A licence held by a proessional pilot which permits the holder to:
• Exercise all the privileges o a PPL • Act as PIC in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transport • Act as PIC in commercial air transport in any aeroplane certificated or single-pilot operation • To act as co-pilot in commercial air transport in aeroplanes required to be operated with a co-pilot Competent Authority. The authority responsible under the law o the State or promoting the saety o civil aviation. Contracting State means any state which is party to the Convention on International Civil Aviation signed at Chicago on the 7 December 1944. Control Area. A controlled airspace extending upwards rom a specified limit above the earth. Controlled Aerodrome. An aerodrome at which air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic. Note. The term “controlled aerodrome” indicates that air traffic control service is provided to aerodrome traffic but does not necessarily imply that a control zone exists. Controlled Airspace. An airspace o defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Note. Controlled airspace is a generic term which covers ATS airspace Classes A, B, C, D and E. Controlled Flight. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance. Control Zone. A controlled airspace extending upwards rom the surace o the earth to a specified upper limit. Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane). A particular combination o the positions o the moveable elements, such as wing flaps, landing gear, etc., which affect the aerodynamics o the aeroplane. Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraf or the sole purpose o receiving flight instruction. CPL (Current Flight Plan). The Flight Plan, including changes i any, brought about by subsequent clearances.
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Definitions Crew means a member o the flight crew, a person carried on the flight deck who is appointed by the operator o the aircraf to give or to supervise the training, experience, practice and periodical tests as required and in respect o the flight crew or as a cabin attendant.
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
Critical Power-Units(s). The power-unit(s), ailure o which gives the most adverse effect on the aircraf characteristics relative to the case under consideration. Cross-country. A flight between the point o departure and a point o arrival ollowing a preplanned route using standard navigation procedures. Cruise Climb. An aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the aeroplane mass decreases. Cruising Level. A level maintained during a significant portion o a flight. Danger Area. An airspace o defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight o aircraf may exist at specified times. Day means the time rom hal an hour beore sunrise until hal an hour afer sunset (both times exclusive), sunset and sunrise being determined at surace level. Decision Height in relation to the operation o an aircraf at an aerodrome means the height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated i the required visual reerence to continue that approach has not been established. Design Landing Mass. The maximum mass o the aircraf at which, or structural design purposes, it is assumed to be planned to land. Design Take-off Mass. The maximum mass at which the aircraf, or structural design purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start o the take-off run. Design Taxiing Mass. The maximum mass o the aircraf, at which the structural provision is made or load liable to occur during the use o the aircraf, on the ground prior to the start o take-off. Destination Alternate. An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraf may proceed should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome o intended landing. Dual Instruction Time. Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction rom a properly authorized pilot on board the aircraf. En route Clearance. Where an ATC clearance is issued or the initial part o a flight solely as a means o expediting departing traffic, the subsequent clearance to the aerodrome o intended landing is an en route clearance. Essential Local Traffic. Any aircraf, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take-off, climb-out or final approach areas, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraf. Estimated Off Blocks Time. The estimated time at which the aircraf will commence movement associated with departure. Estimated Time o Arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraf will arrive over that designated point, defined by reerence to navigation aids, rom which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, i no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraf will arrive over the aerodrome.
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Definitions Expected Approach Time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraf, ollowing a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach to landing.
1 s n o i t i n fi e D
Note. The actual time o leaving a holding point will depend on the approach clearance. Final approach and take-off area/FATO (helicopters). A defined area over which the final phase o the approach manoeuvre to hover or landing is completed and rom which the take-off manoeuvre is commenced and, where the FATO is to be used by perormance class 1 helicopters, includes the rejected take-off area available. Filed Flight Plan. The flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated representative, without any subsequent changes. Note. When the word “message” is used as a suffix to this term, it denotes the content and ormat o the filed flight plan data as transmitted. Flight Crew Member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation o an aircraf during flight time. Flight Inormation Service. A service provided or the purpose o giving advice and inormation useul or the sae and efficient conduct o flights. Flight Level. A surace o constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.2 hPa, and is separated rom other such sur aces by specific pressure intervals. Note 1. A pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordance with the Standard Atmosphere:
• When set to QNH, altimeter will indicate altitude • When set to QFE, altimeter will indicate height above the QFE reerence datum • When set at a pressure o 1013.2 hPa, may be used to indicate flight levels Note 2. The terms “height” and “altitude”, used in Note 1 above, indicate altimetric rather than geometric heights or altitudes. Flight Plan. Specified inormation provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion o a flight o an aircraf. Flight Procedures Trainer. See Synthetic flight trainer. Flight Simulator. See Synthetic flight trainer. Flight Recording System means a system comprising either a flight data recorder or a cockpit voice recorder or both. Flight time – Aeroplanes. The total time rom the moment an aircraf first moves or the purpose o taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end o the flight. Note 1. Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term “block to block” time or “chock to chock” time in general usage which is measured rom the time an aircraf moves rom the loading point until it stops at the unloading point. Note 2. Whenever helicopter rotors are engaged, the time will be included in the flight time. Flight Time as Student Pilot-in-command. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as PIC and shall not influence or control the flight o the aircraf.
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Definitions Flight Visibility. The visibility orward rom the cockpit o an aircraf in flight.
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Free Balloon means a balloon which when in flight is not attached to the surace by any orm o restraining device.
D e fi n i t i o n s
Free Controlled Flight means flight during which a balloon is not attached to the surace by any orm o restraining device (other than a tether not exceeding 5 metres in length which may be used as part o the take-off procedure) and during which the height o the balloon is controllable by means o a device attached to the ball oon and operated by the commander o the balloon or by remote control. Ground Visibility. The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer. Government Aerodrome means any aerodrome in the United Kingdom which is in the occupation o any Government Department or visiting orce. Heading. The direction in which the longitudinal axis o an aircraf is pointed, usually expressed in degrees rom North (true, magnetic, compass or grid). Heavier Than Air Aircraf. Any aircraf deriving its lif in flight chiefly rom aerodynamic orces Height. The vertical distance o a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured rom a specified datum. IFR. The symbol used to designate the instrument flight rules. IFR Flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules. IMC. The symbol used to designate instrument meteorological conditions. Instrument Approach Procedure. A series o predetermined manoeuvres by reerence to flight instruments with specified protection rom obstacles rom the initial approach fix, or where applicable, rom the beginning o a defined arrival route to a point rom which a landing can be completed and thereafer, i a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route clearance criteria apply. Instrument Flight Time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraf solely by reerence to instruments and without external reerence points. Instrument Ground Time. Time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground, simulated instrument flight in a synthetic flight trainer approved by the Licensing Authority. Instrument Meteorological Conditions. Meteorological conditions expressed in terms o visibility, distance rom cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified or visual meteorological conditions. Note. In a control zone, a VFR flight may proceed under instrument meteorological conditions i and as authorized by air traffic control. Instrument Time. Instrument flight time or instrument ground time. JAA means the Joint Aviation Authorities, an associated body o the European Civil Aviation Conerence. JAR means a joint aviation requirement o the JAA bearing that number as it has effect under the Technical Harmonization Regulation and reerence to a numbered JAR is a reerence to such a requirement.
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Definitions Landing Area. That part o a movement area intended or the landing or take-off o aircraf.
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Landing Surace. That part o the surace o an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority has declared available or the normal ground or water run o aircraf landing in a particular direction.
s n o i t i n fi e D
Level. A generic term relating to the vertical position o an aircraf in flight and meaning variously, height, altitude or flight level. Liejacket includes any device designed to support a person individually in or on the water. Log Book in the case o an aircraf log book, engine log book or variable pitch propeller log book, or personal flying log book includes a record kept either in a book, or by any other means approved by the Authority in the particular case. Manoeuvring Area. That part o an aerodrome to be used or the take-off, landing and taxiing o aircraf, excluding aprons. Maintenance. Tasks required to ensure the continued airworthiness o an aircraf including any one or combination o overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification or deect rectification. Medical Assessment. The evidence issued by a Contracting State that the licence holder meets specific requirements o medical fitness. It is issued ollowing an evaluation by the Licensing Authority o the report submitted by the designated medical examiner who conducted the examination o the applicant or the licence. Minimum Descent Height in relation to the operation o an aircraf at an aerodrome means the height in a non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without the required visual reerence. Multiple Pilot Aeroplanes. Aeroplanes certificated or operation with a minimum crew o at least two pilots. Multi-crew Co-operation. The unction o the flight crew as a team o co-operating members led by the pilot-in-command. Movement Area. That part o an aerodrome to be used or the take-off, landing and taxiing o aircraf, consisting o the manoeuvring area and the apron(s). Nautical Mile means the International Nautical Mile, that is to say, a distance o 1852 metres. Night. The hours between the end o evening civil twilight and the beginning o morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority. Note. Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre o the sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon and begins in the morning when the centre o the sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon. Non-precision Approach means an instrument approach using non-visual aid s or guidance in azimuth or elevation but which is not a precision approach. Normal Residency. The place where a person lives or at least 185 days in each calender year because o personal and occupational ties, or in the case o a person with no occupational ties, because o personal ties which show close links between that person and the place where he or she is living.
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Definitions Private Pilot Licence (PPL). The licence held by a pilot which prohibits the piloting o an aircraf or which remuneration is given.
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
(To) Pilot. To manipulate the flight controls o an aircraf during flight time. Pilot-in-command. The pilot responsible or the operation and saety o the aircraf during flight time. Pilot-in-command under supervision (PICUS). A co-pilot perorming, under the supervision o the pilot-in-command, the duties and the unctions o a pilot-in-command Power Unit. A system o one or more engines and ancillary parts which are together necessary to provide thrust, independently o the continued operation o any other power unit(s), but not including short period thrust-producing devices. Precision Approach means an instrument approach using Instrument Landing System, Microwave Landing System or Precision Approach Radar or guidance in both azimuth and elevation. Pressure Altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms o altitude which corresponds to the pressure in the Standard Atmosphere. Proficiency Check. Demonstration o skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examinations as the examiner may require. Prohibited Area. An airspace o defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters o a State within which flight o aircraf is prohibited. Rating. An authorization entered on or associated with a licence and orming part thereo, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such licence. Renewal. The administrative action taken afer a rating has expired. Rendering a Licence Valid. The action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative to issuing its own licence, in accepting a licence issued by any other State as an equivalent o its own licence. Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series o requently recurring, regularly operated individual flights with identical basic eatures, submitted by an operator or retention and repetitive use by ATS units. Reporting Point. A specified geographical location in relation to which the position o an aircraf can be reported. Residency - Normal. The place where a person lives or at least 185 days in each calender year because o personal and occupational ties, or in the case o a person with no occupational ties, because o personal ties which show close links between that person and the place where he or she is living. Restricted Area. An airspace o defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters o a State within which flight o aircraf is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. Revalidation. The administrative action taken within the period o validity o a rating or approval that allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges o a rating or approval or a urther specified period consequent upon the ulfilment o specified requirements.
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Definitions Runway. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared or the landing and takeoff o aircraf.
1 s n o i t i n fi e D
Runway Visual Range in relation to a runway means the distance in the direction o take-off or landing over which the runway lights or surace markings may be seen rom the touchdown zone as calculated by either human observation or instruments in the vicinity o the touchdown zone or where this is not reasonably practicable in the vicinity o the mid-point o the runway; and the distance, i any, communicated to the commander o an aircraf by or on behal o the person in charge o the aerodrome as being the runway visual range or the time being. Scheduled Journey means one o a series o journeys which are undertaken between the same two places and which together amount to a systematic service. Signal Area. An area o an aerodrome used or the display o ground signals. Skills Test. Demonstration o skills or licence or rating issue including such oral examinations as the examiner may require. Solo Flight Time. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant o an aircraf. Special VFR Flight. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC. State o Design. The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible or the type design. State o Registry. The State on whose register the aircraf is entered. Strayed Aircraf. An aircraf that has deviated significantly rom its intended track or reports that it is lost. Student pilot-in-command (SPIC). A student pilot acting as pilot-in-command on a flight with an instructor where the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or control the flight o the aircraf Synthetic Flight Trainer. Any one o the ollowing three types o apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
• A Flight Simulator. Which provides an accurate representation o the flight deck o a particular aircraf type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic etc aircraf control unctions; the normal environment o flight crew members, and the perormance and flight characteristics o that type o aircraf are realistically simulated • A Flight Procedures Trainer. Which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and which simulates instrument responses, simple control unctions o mechanical, electric, electronic etc aircraf systems, and the perormance and flight characteristics o aircraf o a particular class • A Basic Instrument Flight Trainer. Which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment o an aircraf in flight in instrument flight conditions Take-off Surace. That part o the surace o an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority has declared available or the normal ground or water run o aircraf taking off in a particular direction.
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Definitions Taxiing. Movement o an aircraf on the surace o an aerodrome under its own power, excluding take-off and landing.
1 D e fi n i t i o n s
Taxiway. A defined path on a land aerodrome established or the taxiing o an aircraf and intended to provide a link between one part o the aerodrome and another, including:
• Aircraf stand taxi-lane. A portion o an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraf stands only • Apron taxiway. A portion o a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron • Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimizing runway occupancy times Terminal Control Area (TCA). A control area normally established at the Confluence o ATS routes in the vicinity o one or more major aerodromes. Total Estimated Elapsed Time. For IFR flights, the estimated time required rom take-off to arrive over that designated point, defined by reerence to navigation aids, rom which it is intended than an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, i no navigation aid is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the d estination aerodrome. For VFR flights, the estimated time required rom take-off, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. Track. The projection on the Earth’s surace o the path o an aircraf, the direction o which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees rom North (true, magnetic or grid). Traffic Avoidance Service. Advice provided by an air traffic service unit speciying manoeuvres to assist a pilot to avoid a collision. Traffic Inormation. Inormation issued by an air traffic service unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route o flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision. Transition Altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position o an aircraf is controlled by reerence to altitudes. Unidentified Aircraf is one o which the Air Traffic Control Unit is aware but o which the identity is not known. VFR. The symbol used to designate the visual flight rules. VFR Flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules. Visibility. The ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed in units o distance, to see and identiy prominent unlighted objects by day and prominent lighted objects by night. Visual Meteorological Conditions. Meteorological conditions expressed in terms o visibility; distance rom cloud, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minima. VMC. The symbol used to designate visual meteorological conditions.
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Chapter
2 International Agreements and Organizations
The Chicago Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .23 International Law . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .24 Commercial Considerations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .25 Customs and Excise, and Immigration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .25 International Obligations o Contracted States . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .26 Duties O ICAO Member States . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27 Status o Annex Components . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .28 The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .28 The Organization o ICAO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .29 Regional Structure o ICAO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .30 Regional Structure and Offices. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .30 ICAO Publications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .31 Other International Agreements. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .32 The Conventions o Tokyo, the Hague and Montreal . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .33 The Warsaw Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .35 The Rome Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .36 IATA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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ECAC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .38 EASA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .39 JAA. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .39 Eurocontrol . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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World Trade Organization . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .40 Geneva Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .42 EU Regulation 261/2004 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .42 Summary. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .46 Relevant International Conventions and Agreements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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International Agreements and Organizations
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I n t e r n a t i o n a l A g r e e m e n t s a n d O r g a n i z a t i o n s
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International Agreements and Organizations The Chicago Convention 2.1 Historical Background. As ar as modes o transport are concerned, civil aviation has been the astest growing and the most technically innovative o any. From the first attempts at powered manned flight to regular space flight we have only just exceeded 100 years o aviation and we have had scheduled commercial air services since 1919. The first International Conerence on Civil Aviation also took place in 1919 at Paris. Since then, the field o our chosen proession has been subjected to ar more international legislation and regulation, than any other. The overriding need, which is recognized by all, regardless o political inclination, is or higher and higher saety standards. The degree o international co-operation in this respect is outstanding and shows that where there is a genuine desire to achieve international agreement, it is orthcoming.
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s n o i t a z i n a g r O d n a s t n e m e e r g A l a n o i t a n r e t n I
2.2 The Second World War. The Second World War had a major effect upon technical development o the aeroplane condensing a quarter o a century o normal peacetime development into just six years. The strategic use o aeroplanes or the movement o men and materiel to and rom theatres o war laid the oundation or the air transport industry we have today. It was oreseen that a vast network o passenger and reight services would be set up but also many problems were oreseen to which solutions had to be ound to benefit and support a world subsequently at peace. There was the question o commercial rights - what arrangements would be made or the airlines o one country to fly into and through the territories o another? There were other concerns with regard to the legal and economic conflicts that might come with peace-time flying across national borders such as how to maintain existing air navigation acilities, many o which were located in sparsely populated areas. However, international commercial aviation was considered to be o such importance and a priority issue, that the government o the United States conducted exploratory discussions with other allied (riendly) nations during the early months o 1944. Subsequently, invitations were sent to 55 states to meet in Chicago in November 1944. 2.3 The Meeting at Chicago. For five weeks the delegates o the 52 nations who attended, considered the problems o international civil aviation. The outcome was the Convention on International Civil Aviation, the purpose o which was “…. to oster the uture development o International Civil Aviation, to help to create and preserve riendship and understanding among peoples o the world, so as to prevent its abuse becoming a threat to the g eneral security thus promoting co-operation between peoples”. The 52 States agreed on policy and arrangements so that civil aviation may be developed in a sae and orderly manner and that international air transport services might be established on the basis o equality o opportunity and economically sound operation. A permanent body was subsequently charged with the admi nistration o the principles, the International Civil Aviation Organization (known throughout the world by the acronym ICAO pronounced eye-kay-oh). 2.4 The “Chicago” Convention. The Chicago Convention, consisting o ninety-six articles (legislative items o agreement), accepts the principle that every State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory and provides that no scheduled international air service may operate over or into the territory o a Contracting State without that State’s previous consent. It established the privileges and restrictions o all Contracting States, to provide or the adoption o International Standards and Recommended Practices or:
• Regulating air navigation • The installation o navigation acilities by Contracting States • The acilitation o air transport by the reduction o customs and immigration ormalities
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International Agreements and Organizations International Law
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2.5 Applicable law. There is no world parliament or global legislative body so there is legally no such thing as international law. However, at conventions o States (meetings or the purpose o reaching consensus between States), arrangements are made to regulate activities affecting more than one State through common agreement. The agreements themselves are not legally enorceable as there is no global police orce, and all States are entitled to their sovereignty (see definition). What happens is that the national delegation to the convention places beore the national parliament (or legislative body) a proposal to make the text o the agreement (and any codicils, appendices, protocols etc...) the law o that State. This process is known as adoption and subsequently, ratification. In this manner what has been agreed internationally, becomes locally enorceable law in the states concerned. An offence committed against such law would be try-able and punishable under national penal legislation in any Contracting State anywhere in the world.
I n t e r n a t i o n a l A g r e e m e n t s a n d O r g a n i z a t i o n s
2.6 Territorial airspace. The application o national law is only applicable to the territory over which that state has jurisdiction. In aviation, the extent o jurisdiction is limited by the lateral limits o territorial airspace, but unlimited vertically. (An interesting situation regarding satellites and space craf!). Lateral territorial limits have been agreed internationally where such a limit is not coincident with a land boundary. The airspace o Switzerland is easily defined because the country is land-locked. For the UK however, the limit is defined by the limit o territorial waters, which was agreed at the Geneva Convention on the Territorial Sea and Contiguous Zones (1958). 2.7 High Seas. The early international maritime agreements concerned the right to use the “high seas” unhindered. The right o ree aviation operation over the high seas was embodied in the Geneva Convention on the High Seas (also o 1958), in which the high seas are defined as ‘...all the seas outside o territorial seas’. In these (and other) conventions, the established privileges and reedoms o mariners, including those o the flag state (the State in which a vessel is registered and the flag o which the vessel is allowed to fly), were applied to aeroplanes. The rights o non-coastal states to ply the seas under the flag o those countries, requires the co-operation o coastal States to allow ree access to the sea. In aviation, similar reedoms are embodied in the Chicago Convention to allow Contracting States to fly over the territory o other Contracting States or the purpose o international civil aviation operations. At the subsequent UN Convention on the Law o the Sea (1982) the original agreements were updated and reinorced. 2.8 Territory. As defined in international legislation, in aviation terms applies to the airspace existing over the defined limits o a country’s territory at ground level. 2.9 Sovereignty. This is the right o a country (or Contracting ICAO State) to impose national law to users o the State’s territorial airspace. 2.10 Suzerainty (rom the French “Suzerain” - Feudal overlord) is the acceptance by a State o all the rules and regulations agreed by common consent at international conventions, even i there is no practical requirement or a State to adopt all o the rules.
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International Agreements and Organizations Commercial Considerations 2.11 International Civil Aviation. A matter to which the Chicago Conerence attached great importance was the question o exchange o commercial rights in international civil aviation. The States addressed the subject, resulting in Contracting States agreeing, bilaterally, to grant each other certain rights regarding the commercial exploitation o civil aviation. These rights are now known as the Freedoms o the Air. The reedoms give rights to transit the airspace o Contracting States to scheduled flights.
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2.12 Bilateral Agreements. Due to political and national rivalries, it was not ound possible to reach a single agreement satisactory to all 52 States, thereore two supplementary bilateral agreements were set up which gave each State the oppor tunity to enter into agreements with other States on a ‘one-to-one’ basis i considered desirable bet ween those States: 2.13 The International Air Services Transit Agreement permits aircraf o a signatory State to fly over, or land or technical reasons in, the territory o another signatory State; 2.14 The International Air Transport Agreement allows the carriage o traffic between the State o Registration and another signatory State. (Traffic: the carriage o mail, cargo or passengers). 2.15
Definitions. The ollowing definitions are required knowledge. 2.16 Scheduled flight is a flight, or which agreement has been reached between States (at government level), concerning the schedule. For instance, how many flights would be allowed in any period, what aerodromes could be used, what time o day the flights would be allowed, and what reciprocal arrangements would be required. A State is not obliged to grant permission or an operator to operate a schedule. 2.17 Non-scheduled flights are those to which a schedule is not attached. i.e. one-off flights or charter flights that are not flown on a regular basis. It is an embodiment o the reedoms that a State cannot reuse, on political or economic grounds, to accept a non-scheduled flight. 2.18 Cabotage. Cabotage is defined as the transport o goods or passengers between two points in the same country by a vessel or aircraf registered in another country or State. Most countries reuse cabotage. However, an EU State may not reuse cabotage by another EU State.
Customs and Excise, and Immigration 2.19 Facilitation. Under international law the imposition o customs tariffs and the prohibition o the importation o proscribed items, is allowed. In order to allow Contracting States to maintain national Customs and Excise regulations, international flights are required to make the first point o landing in a Contracting State at a recognized international airport which provides customs, health and immigration acilities. (In the UK these are known as customs airports). Within the EU the removal o restrictions to ree trade now allows flights rom one EU State to another to make the first point o landing at a non-customs aerodrome providing certain rules are observed. These rules are explored in the section o this manual concerning Facilitation. Other rules apply to immigration.
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International Agreements and Organizations International Obligations of Contracted States
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2.20 National and ‘International’ Law. In becoming an ICAO Contracting State, states agree to observe the International Standards specified by ICAO. From the standards, the international rules and regulations governing civil aviation are drawn. By accepting contracted status, each state accepts the responsibility or enorcement o the rules and regulations within its sovereign territory and airspace (through national law). Article 38 o the Chicago Convention requires each Sovereign State to notiy ICAO o any differences between their national regulations and the International Standards adopted. Furthermore States are to publish these differences in their national Aeronautical Inormation Publication (AIP). Thus a situation is recognized where national legislation and regulations have precedent over international rules within the territorial airspace o that State. Where flights are conducted over the high seas, the international rules apply without exception. The International (ICAO) Rules o the Air are promulgated (Annex 2) to standardize the procedures or civil aviation specifically or the saety o aircrew and passengers. Other regulations are established to acilitate the smooth and expeditious flow o air traffic by the adoption o Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs).
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2.21 Right to Prosecute Offenders. Where an offence is committed in an aeroplane contrary to the ‘international’ law, the state, in whose airspace the offence occurs, has the right to try and punish offenders. I the offence occurs over ‘the high seas’ the state o registration o the aircraf has the right to prosecute the offender(s). Note: The international agreements oblige states to prosecute. I a state does not want to (or political reasons) another state may do so. For instance: A bomb is placed on an American aeroplane (contrary to the Montreal Convention and Protocols) by 2 Libyans, in Frankurt or Rome. The aeroplane explodes over Scotland. Who has the power to prosecute? The order is as ollows:
• • • • • •
The UK (under Scottish law) – the offence happened over Scotland The United States – the aeroplane was registered in the USA The Italians – because the bomb was placed on board in Rome The Germans – because the aeroplane made an intermediate stop in Frankurt Any other state, the citizens o which were killed or injured Libya – because the suspects are Libyan
Note: I the UK had not prosecuted, the US most certainly would have. 2.22 Search and Rescue. In accepting Contracted State status, each State specifically undertakes to provide procedures and acilities or Search and Rescue (SAR) within the territory o that State. The provision o SAR services in areas o high seas, and areas o undetermined sovereignty, will be established on the basis o Regional Air Navigation (RAN) agreements. The standards governing the provision o SAR services oblige the State to provide at least the minimum service compatible with the type and requency o the air traffic using the airspace or which the State is responsible, and that service is to be available 24 hours per day. The requirement also imposes upon the State the need to maintain a degree o co-op eration with adjacent States and the readiness to assist with SAR operations i requested. 2.23 Conditions to be ulfilled with respect to aircraf as stipulated by the Chicago Convention.
a.
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Documents to be carried in aircraf. Every aircraf engaged in international navigation shall carry the ollowing documents : 1. Certificate o Registration 2. Certificate o Airworthiness 3. Crew member licences 4. Journey Logbook
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Aircraf radio station licence - i equipped with a radio I passengers are carried, a list o names and place o both embarkation and destination I cargo is carried, a maniest and detailed declaration o the cargo
b.
Cargo restrictions. No munitions o war may be carried in or above the territory o a State without the permission o that State
c.
Photographic apparatus. Each Contracting State may prohibit or regulate the use o photographic apparatus in an aircraf over its territory.
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Duties of ICAO Member States 2.24 Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs). The stated aim o the Convention on International Civil Aviation and subsequently the aims o ICAO are to ensure saety, regularity and efficiency o international civil aviation operations. In order to achieve this, the Contracting States are required to comply with the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs). There are 18 annexes to the Convention. The SARPs are established afer consultation with the Contracting States and interested international organizations, finalized by the ICAO Air Navigation Commission and submitted to the Council where a two-thirds majority is required or adoption. The SARPs are considered binding on Contracting States but i a State finds it impossible to implement the SARPs, it must inorm ICAO under the terms o Article 38 o any differences that will exist on the applicability date o the amendment. Such differences will be detailed in the national aeronautical inormation publication (AIP) and summarized in a supplement to each annex o the Chicago Convention. 2.25 Customs Duty and Excise. ICAO has addressed taxation in the field o international aviation and Member States are required to ollow the resolutions and recommendation o the Council in this respect. States are asked to exempt uel, lubricants, and other technical consumables taken on an aircraf in a State other than the State o registry, providing such supplies are or consumption in flight. Also to reduce or eliminate taxes on international air transport (ares) and to grant, reciprocally to air transport enterprises o other States, exemption rom taxation on income and profits. Within the area o customs duty and excise charges, Annex 9 (Facilitation) requires states to apply procedures, which allow expeditious handling o goods and cargo intended or import or which are passing through. The establishment o ‘ree zones’ is encouraged. 2.26 Aircraf Certificates, Registration and Licences. Annex 7 (Aircraf Nationality and Registration Markings) requires Contracting States to apply standard procedures or registration. It includes the ormat o registration marks and nationality symb ols, including the size and where these are to be displayed on aircraf. The annex also calls or the registration o all aircraf and provides a sample o a certificate o registration or use by States. Annex 8 (Airworthiness o Aircraf) requires States to provide a Certificate o Airworthiness, or each registered aircraf, declaring that the aircraf is fit to fly. Under the terms o Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing), SARPs are established requiring each State to apply standardization in the licensing o personnel involved in international aviation including flight crew members (pilots, flight engineers), air traffic controllers and maintenance technicians. The overriding purpose o such standardization is to ensure that all involved in air transport operations are licensed to common standards and able to operate throughout the world, thus generating greater trust in aviation on the part o the traveller. A licence issued by the authority in one State is not automatically valid in another State. In this instance, the annex requires States to establish procedures or the validation o licences issued in other States and defines the method by which such validation shall be annotated. 27
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.27 Carriage o Dangerous Cargo. More than hal the cargo carried by all modes o transport in the world is classified as dangerous. Because o the speed advantages o air transport, a great deal o this cargo is carried by aircraf. In Annex 18 (The Sae Transport o Dangerous Goods by Air), States are required to accept the SARPs associated with the carriage o dangerous goods and to implement the Technical Instructions or the Sae Transport o Dangerous Goods by Air.
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2.28 Searching o aircraf. Contracting States have the right, without unreasonable delay, to search aircraf o another Contracting State on landing or departure. They also have the right to inspect the certificates and other documents prescribed by the Chicago Convention
Status of Annex Components 2.29 Definition. An annex is made up o the ollowing component parts, not all o which are necessarily ound in every annex. They have the status indicated: 2.30 Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) are adopted by the Council and are considered binding upon all Contracting States unless a state has notified a ‘difference’ as defined under article 38 o the convention. SARPs defined thus: 2.31 A Standard is any specification or physical characteristics, configuration, materiel, perormance, personnel or procedure, the uniorm application o which is recognized as necessary or the saety or regularity o international air navigation and to which Contracting States will conorm in accordance with the Convention. In the event o impossibility o compliance, notification to the Council is compulsory under article 38 o the Convention. 2.32 A Recommended Practice is any specification or physical characteristics, configuration, materiel, perormance, personnel or procedure, the uniorm appli cation o which is recognized as desirable in the interest o saety, regularity or efficiency o international air navigation and to which Contracting States will endeavour to conorm in accordance with the Convention.
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
2.33 Status. ICAO, created by the Chicago Convention, is an inter-governmental organization, which has become a specialized agency in relationship with the United Nations. The headquar ters o ICAO is in Montreal and it provides the machinery to achieve standardization and agreement
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2.34 ICAO Aims and Objectives. The aims and objectives o ICAO are to develop the principles and techniques o international civil air navigation and to oster the planning and development o international air transport so as to:
• • • • • • • • •
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Ensure the sae and orderly growth o international civil aviation throughout the world. Encourage arts o aircraf design and operation. Encourage the development o airways, airports and air navigation acilities. Meet the need or sae, regular, efficient and economical air transport. Prevent waste caused by unreasonable competition. Ensure the rights o Contracting States are ully respected. Avoid discrimination between Contracting States. Promote the saety o flight in international aviation. Generally promote all aspects o international civil aeronautics.
The Organization of ICAO
2.35 The Assembly. The sovereign body o ICAO is the Assembly, which meets at least once every three years and is convened by the Council. Each Contracting State is entitled to one vote and decisions o the Assembly are by majority vote o the Contracting States. 2.36 The Council. The Council o ICAO is a permanent body responsible to the Assembly and is composed o 33 Contracting States elected by the Assembly or a three-year term. The Council is the governing body o ICAO. 2.37 The Commissions and Committees o ICAO are composed o members, appointed by the Council, rom nominations o Contracting States or elected rom amongst Council members.
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The Air Navigation Commission The Air Tr Transport ansport Committee Committee The Legal Committee The Committee on Joint Support o Air Navigation Navigation Services Services The Personnel Committee The Finance Committee The Committee on Unlawul Unlawul Intererence Intererence
2.38 Air Navigation Commission. This is the body that proposes, ormulates and finalizes the SARPs and presents presents them or adoption by the Council. 2.39 The ICAO Secretariat is divided into sections, each corresponding to a Committee, and supplies technical and administrative aid to the Council. It is headed by a Secretary-General, appointed by the Council, and is divided into five main divisions:
• • • • •
Air Navigation Bureau Air Tr Transport ansport Bureau Technical Te chnical Assistance Bureau Legal Bureau Bureau o o Administration Administration and Services
Regional Structure of ICAO 2.40 Regions and Offices. ICAO maintains seven regional offices: Bangkok, Cairo, Dakar, Lima, Mexico City, Nairobi and Paris. Each regional office is accredited to a group o Contracting States (making up nine recognized geographic regions) and the main unction o regional offices is maintaining, encouraging, assisting, expediting and ollowing-up the imp lementation o air navigation plans. The nine geographic regions are:
AFI - Arica - Indian Ocean; NAM - North America; ASIA - Asia; CAR - Caribbean; NAT NA T - North Nor th Atlantic; EUR - Europe; PAC PAC - Pacific; MID - Middle East; SAM - South America 2.41 The Need or a Regional Structure. In dealing with international civil aviation, there are many subjects that ICAO considers on a regional basis as well as on a worldwide scale in order to acilitate:
• • • •
The planning o acilities acilities and services services The ormulation o o supplementary procedures procedures to support increases in traffic density New air routes The introduction o new new types o aircraf aircraf
Regional Structure and Offices 2.42 Regional Air Navigation (RAN) meetings are held periodically to consider the requirements o air operations within specified geographic areas. The plan, which emerges rom a regional meeting, is so designed that, when the states concerned implement it, it will lead to an integrated, efficient system system or the entire region and contribute to the global system. In addition to the duties detailed above, the regional offices are responsible or keeping the regional plans up to date.
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.43 Financial Assistance. Through the regional offices, financial assistance is provided to assist states in specific circumstances. The provision o air traffic control, navigation aids and meteorological services in Greenland and Iceland are examples o this specific aid, where due to the intense air traffic using the airspace o those states states such expenditure is disproportionate to the gross national national product o those states. states.
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ICAO Publications 2.44 The Annexes. One o the major duties o the ICAO Council is to adopt International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) and incorporate these as annexes to the Convention on International Civil Aviation. There are now 18 annexes to the 1944 convention which are constantly under review to ensure that the content realistically meets the requirements o civil aviation now. You are required to be able to identiy the annex and content. The 18 annexes are:
Annex 1. Annex 2. Annex 3. Annex 4. Annex 5. Annex 6. Annex 7. Annex 8. Annex 9. Annex 10. Annex 11. Annex 12. Annex 13 13.. Annex 14. Annex 15. Annex 16. Annex 17 17.. Annex 18.
Personnel Licensing Rules o the Air Meteorological Services or Internation International al Air Navigation Aeronautical Charts Units o Measurement to be used in Air and Ground Operations Operation o Aircraf Aircraf Nationality and Registration Marks Airworthiness o Aircraf Facilitation Aeronautical Te Telecommunications lecommunications Air Traffic Servi Services ces Search and Rescue Aircraf Accident Investigations Aerodromes Aerodrom es Aeronautical Inormation Services Environmental Protection Security - Saeguarding Internat International ional Civil Aviation against Acts o Unlawul Intererence The Sae Tr Transport ansport o Dangerous Goods by Air
2.45 PANS. Where the content o the SARPs is somewhat technical and requires urther explanation or discussion, Procedures or Air Navigation Services (PANS) are published by ICAO. PANS are approved by the Council, unlike u nlike SARPs which are adopted by the Council. 2.46 PANS OPS (Doc 8168) Procedures or Air Navigation Services - Aircraf Operations. This publication (in two par ts) describes the Operational Procedures recommended recommended or the guidance o flight operations personnel (Vol. 1) and procedures or specialists in the essential essential areas o obstacle obstacle clearance clearance requirements requirements or the production o instrument flight charts (Vol. 2). 2.47 PANS ATM (Doc 4444) Procedures or Air Navigation Services – Air Traffic Management. This document specifies the requirements or the establishment o an Air Traffic Control Service. 2.48 PANS - RAC Procedures or Air Navigation Services - Rules o the Air and Air Traffic Services. This contains certain procedures applicable to pilots, or the provision o flight inormation, the alerting service and the operation o ATC.
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.49 Regional Supplementary Procedures (Doc 7030/4). Where navigational procedures, which differ rom the worldwide procedures, are deemed necessary or a specific geographic region by the appropriate Regional Air Navigation Meeting, such procedures are recorded in the relevant region section o Doc 7030/4, and are known as Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS). As in the case o PANS, SUPPS are approved by the Council, but only or regional use.
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Other International Agreements Agreements 2.50 The International International Air Services Transit Transit Agreement and the International International Air Transport Agreement. The Chicago Convention attached great importance to the question o the exchange o commercial rights in international civil aviation. It was not ound possible to reach an agreement satisactory to all the original 52 states, but the conere conerence nce set up two supplementary agreements - the Internat International ional Air Services Tr Transit ansit Agreement Agreement,, and the International Interna tional Air Transport Agreement. The first agreement made provision or aircraf o any participating state to fly over, or to land or technical reasons in, the territory o any other participating state. The second provided, among other things, or the carriage o traffic (passengers, mail and cargo) between the State o Registration o the aircraf and any other signatory state. 2.51 The Freedoms o the Air. The International Air Services Transit Agreement established two technical reedoms o the air (known as the first and second reedoms). In this context the word ‘reedom’ reers reers to the privilege conerred conerred by virtue o signatory status to to a bilateral agreement. Because the two agreements require bilateral understandings between the parties, ICAO IC AO has produced the ‘Chicago Standard Form or Bilateral Agreement Agreement or Regular Air Transport’ based on the definitions or the Freedoms o the Air, as defined in the Interna International tional Air Services Transit and the International Air Transport Agreements. For general aviation and non-scheduled commercial operations, the filing o an international flight plan is the method by which a flight fl ight gives notification to exercise the privileges o the appropriate reedoms. 2.52 The Te Technical chnical Freedoms: These comprise the first two reedoms and were established through the International International Air Services Transit Transit Agreement: Agreement: 2.53 First Freedom: The privilege to fly across the territory o another participating state without landing. 2.54 Second Freedom: The privilege to land in another participating state or non-traffic purposes (i.e. reuelling or repair, but not or uplif or discharge o traffic passengers, cargo or mail). 2.55 The Commercial Freedoms. The International Air Transport Agreement established three urther reedoms. These are defined as commercial and whilst still bilateral, are subject to inter-government inter-government negotiation. negotiation. 2.56 Third Freedom: The privilege to put down in i n another state (e.g. the USA) traffic traffic taken on in the the state o registration registration (e.g. the UK). UK). 2.57 Fourth Freedom: The privilege to take on in another state (e.g. the USA), traffic destined or the state o airline registration (e.g. the UK). 2.58 Fifh Freedom: The privilege or an airline registered in one state (e.g. the UK) and en route to or rom that state, to take on traffic in a second state (e.g. Greece) and put them down in a third state (e.g. Italy).
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.59 Modern Freedoms. Due to the process o growth in air transport and the evolution o airlines operating on a global basis, urther commercial reedoms have evolved. However, these are not covered covered by the LOs LOs or Air Law. Law.
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2.60 Bermuda Agreement. The first bilateral Air Transport Agreement (ATA) was signed at Bermuda in 1946 between the UK government and the US government and set an example or other states to ollow. Currently there are some 3000 ATAs in orce globally.
The Conventions of Tokyo, the Hague and Montreal 2.61 Unlawul acts against the saety o Civil Aviation. The act that unlawul acts o violence endanger the saety o persons and jeopardize the sae operation o airports and the act this undermines the confidence o the peoples o the world in the saety o civil aviation, led to the signing o the Conventions o Tokyo, Tokyo, Hague and Montreal. 2.62 The Tokyo Convention o 1963. This convention provides that the State o Registration o an aircraf is competent to exercise jurisdiction over offences and acts committed on board. Its object is to ensure that offences, wherever wherever committed should not go unpunished. A s certain acts committed on board an aircraf may jeopardize the saety o the aircraf or persons and property on board or may prejudice good order and discipline on board, the aircraf commander and others are empowered to prevent such acts being committed and to deliver the person concerned to the appropriate authority. In the case o an anticipated or actual unlawul or orcible seizure o an aircraf in flight by a person on board, the States party to the Convention are obliged to take all appropriate measures to restore and preserve control o the aircraf to its lawul commander commander.. 2.63 The Hague Convention o 1970. Afer a spate o politically motivated terrorist terrorist hijackings o aircraf in the 1960s, the international community, under the auspices o ICAO, IC AO, resolved to work together to prevent or deter (suppress) such acts. Otherwise known as the Convention or the Suppression o Unlawul Seizure o Aircraf, signed at The Hague in December 1970, the convention defines the act o unlawul u nlawul seizure o aircraf (hijacking), and lists which contracting states have undertaken to make such offences punishable by severe penalties. The convention contains detailed provisions on the establishment o jurisdiction by states over the offence; on the taking o the offender into custody; custody; and on the the prosecution or extradition o o the offender offender.. This convention came into effect on 14 October 1971. 2.64 The Montreal Convention o 197 1971. 1. This Convention is correctly titled the Convention or the Suppression o Unlawul Unlawul Acts against the Saety o Civil Aviation. It makes it an offence offence to attempt any o the unlawul acts specified or to be an accomplice to such ac ts. The contracting states have undertaken undertaken to make these offences punishable by severe severe penalties. The convention contains similar detailed provisions regarding jurisdiction, custody, prosecution and extradition o the alleged offender as the Hague Convention o 1970. 1970. This convention came into orce on 26 January 1973. It is mainly concerned with acts other than those pertaining to the unlawul seizure i.e.:
• Acts o violence on board which endanger endanger people and property and the saety o the aeroplane • The destruction o an aircraf in service service or causing damage which renders it incapable incapable o flight or which is i s likely to endanger its saety in flight • Placing in an aircraf any device likely likely to destroy, damage or render render unfit or flight any aircraf
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International Agreements and Organizations • Destroying or damaging any any air navigation acility acility or intererence intererence with its correct correct operation • The communication o inormation inormation known to be alse alse which endangers the saety saety o an aeroplane in flight
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2.65 The Protocol Supplementary to the Montreal Convention o 1971 1971.. This protocol was adopted by a conerence, which met at Montreal in 1988. It extends the definition o offence given in the 1971 Convention to include specified acts o violence at airports serving international interna tional civil aviation. Such acts include:
• The intentional intentional and unlawul unlawul use o any device, device, substance or weapon in perorming an act o violence against a person at an airport serving international civil aviation, which causes or is likely to cause serious injury or death • The intentional intentional and unlawul use o any device, substance or weapon to: to: • Destroy or seriously damage damage the acilities o an airport • Destroy or seriously damage damage aircraf aircraf not not in service at the airport • Disrupt the services at an airport 2.66 Enorcement. Contracting States have undertaken to make these offences punishable by severe penalties. The protocol also contains provisions on jurisdiction. 2.67 Annex 17 17.. The measures taken by ICAO have resulted in the adoption o the SARPs detailed in Annex 17 - Security. The provisions o the SARPs are applicable to all Contracting States. State s. The annex requires all Contracting States to:
• • • •
Establish national national civil aviation security programmes designate an authority responsible or security security keep the level o threat under constant review review co-ordinate activities with other relevant relevant national agencies agencies and liaise with the corresponding authority in other States
2.68 Programmes and Plans. In order to make such activities workable and efficient, States States are also required to set up training programmes, establish airport security committees and to have contingency plans drawn up. 2.69 International Co-operation. As an on-going commitment to security, each State is required to co-operate with other States in research and development o security systems and equipment which will better satisy civil aviation security objectives. 2.70 The Authority o the Commander. The aircraf commander may order or authorize the assistance o other crew members and may request and authorize authorize,, but not order order,, the assistance o passengers to restrain any person he is required to restrain. The aircraf commander may, when he has reasonable ground to believe that a person has committed, or is about to commit, an act which may or does jeopardize the saety o the aircraf or persons or property on board or which jeopardize good order and discipline on board, impose reasonable measures, which may include restraint, necessary:
• To protect the saety o the aircraf, or o persons or property on board • To maintain good order and discipline on board • To enable him to deliver such a person to competent authorities authorities or to disembark him in accordance with provision o the Convention Note: The PIC may request - but not require require - the assistance o passengers in the restraint o an unruly passenger.
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International Agreements and Organizations The Warsaw Convention 2.71 Liability o the Carrier. The Warsaw Convention o 1929 concerned itsel with responsibilities and liabilities o the Carrier and the Agents o aircraf together with matters o compensation or loss o lie or injury to passengers, delays and loss o baggage. This limited the liability, except in cases o gross negligence, to roughly the equivalent o US$1 US$10 0 000 in International Bank Special Drawing Rights (SDRs). In 1955 an amendment to the Convention was adopted by a diplomatic conere conerence nce at The Hague (known as The Hague Protocol) which doubled the existing limits o liability and the present limit is a maximum amount a mount o US$100 000 per person. By agreeing to the terms o the Warsaw agreement, an airline agrees to pay compensation without urther process o law however, the amounts payable are nowadays relatively small in litigation circumstances. Some airlines state that they will not be bound by the Warsaw agreement agreement and will pay higher amounts o compensation i awarded awarded by a Court.
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2.72 Issue o a Ticket. The issuing o a passenger ticket, luggage ticket or cargo consignment note, orms a contract between the carrier and the person receiving the ticket/note. The contract is defined by the Warsaw Convention including the previously mentioned exclusion or limitation o liabilities. I a carrier accepts a passenger, luggage or cargo on board an aeroplane without a ticket/note, then the carrier is liable or any loss which is occasioned without the protection o the limits set by the Warsaw Convention. The loss, irregularity or absence o a ticket/note does not affect the existence or the validity o the contract. I applicable, the Operator is required to draw the passenger’s attention to the Warsaw Convention limits o liability where ‘electronic’ tickets are issued. 2.73 Delay. The carrier is liable or damage occasioned by delay in the carriage by air o passengers, baggage or cargo. Nevertheless, the carrier shall not be liable or damage occasioned by delay i it proves that it and its ser vants and agents took all measures that could reasonably be required to avoid the damage or that it was impossible or it or them to take such measures. 2.74 Limits o Liability in Relation to Delay, Baggage and Cargo. In the case o damage caused by delay as specified in Article 19 in the carriage o persons, the liability o the carrier or each passenger is limited to 4150 Special Drawing Rights.
In the carriage o baggage, the liability o the carrier in the case o destruction, loss, damage or delay is limited to 1000 Special Drawing Rights or each passenger unless the passenger has made, at the time when the checked baggage was handed over to the carrier, a special declaration o interest interest in delivery at destination and has paid a supplementary sum i the case so requires. In that case the carrier will be liable to pay a sum not exceeding the declared sum, unless it proves that the sum is greater greater than the passenger’s passenger’s actual interest in delivery delivery at destination. In the carriage o cargo, the liability o the carrier in the case o destruction, loss, damage or delay is limited to a sum o 17 Special Drawing Rights per kilogram, unless the consignor has made, at the time when the package was handed over to the carrier, a special declaration o interest in delivery at destination and has paid a supplementary sum i the case so requires. In that case case the carrier will be liable to pay pay a sum not exceeding the declared declared sum, unless unless it proves that the sum is greater greater than the consignor’s actual interest in delivery at destination.
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International Agreements and Organizations In the case o destruction, loss, damage or delay o part o the cargo, or o any object contained therein, the weight to be b e taken into consideration in determining the amount to which the carrier’s liability is limited shall be only the total weight o the package or packages concerned. Nevertheless, when the destruction, loss, damage or delay o a part o the cargo, or o an object contained therein, affects the value o other packages covered by the same airway bill, or the same receipt, or i they were not issued, by the same record preserved by the other means reerred to in paragraph 2 o Article 4, the total weight o such package or packages shall also be taken into consideration in determining the limit o liability.
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The oregoing provisions o paragraphs 1 and 2 o the Article shall not apply i it is proved that the damage resulted rom an act or omission o the carrier, its servants ser vants or agents, done do ne with intent to cause damage or recklessly and with knowledge that damage would probably result; provided that, in the case o such an act ac t or omission o a servant ser vant or agent, it is also proved that such servant or agent was acting within the scope o its employment. The limits prescribed in Article 21 21 and in this Article shall not prevent prevent the court rom awarding, in accordance with its own law, in addition, the whole or part o the court costs and o the other expenses o the litigation incurred by the plaintiff, including interest. The oregoing provision shall not apply i the amount o the damages awarded, excluding court costs and other expenses o the litigation, does not exceed the sum which the carrier has offered in writing to the plaintiff within a period o six months rom the date o the occurrence causing the damage, or beore beore the commencement commencement o the action, i that is later later.. 2.75 Compensation in Case o Death Death or or Injury Injury o Passengers. Passengers. (The (The Warsaw Convention as amended by the Montreal Convention in 1999.) For damages arising under paragraph 1 o Article 17 not exceeding 100 000 Special Drawing Rights or each passenger, the carrier shall not be able to exclude or limit its liability.
The carrier shall not be liable or damages arising under paragraph 1 o Article 17 to the extent that they exceed exceed or each passenger passenger 100 000 Special Drawing Drawing Rights i the carrier proves that: that: a. such damage was not due to the negligence or other wrongul act or omission o the carrier or its servants or agents; or b. such damage was solely due to the negligence or other wrongul act or omission o a third party.
The Rome Convention 2.76 The Rome Rome Convention Convention o 1952 dealt with with damage caused by oreign oreign aircraf to third parties on the ground. It permits a claimant to pursue a claim against a oreign operator through the Court in the state state o residence. residence. Any resulting judgement judgement would then be enorce enorceable able in the state o the Operator.
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s n o i t a z i n a g r O d n a s t n e m e e r g A l a n o i t a n r e t n I
t r a h c n o i t a z i n a g r o A T A I 1 . 2 e r u g i F
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International Agreements and Organizations IATA
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2.77 The International Air Transport Association Associa tion (IATA) (IATA) is the air transport industry global trade organization. Over 60 years, IATA IATA has developed the commercial standards that have built a global industry. Today, IATA’s mission is to represent, lead and serve the airline industry. Its members comprise some 260 airlines - the world’s leading passenger and cargo airlines among them - representing 94 percent o international scheduled air traffic. IATA IATA seeks to improve understanding o the industry among decision makers and increase awareness o the benefits that aviation brings to national and global economies. It fights or the interests o airlines across the globe, globe, challenging challenging unreasonable unreasonable rules and charges, holding regulators regulators and governments to account, and striving or sensible regulation.
I n t e r n a t i o n a l A g r e e m e n t s a n d O r g a n i z a t i o n s
ECAC 2.78 European Civil Aviation Conerence (ECAC) is the driving orce or a common civil aviation policy in Europe. It was set up under the auspices o the Council or Europe and ICAO. Membership now extends rom Iceland to Turk Turkey ey (all the European Commission countries are members o ECAC). ECAC is an inter-governmental organization ounded in 1955 rom the Conerence on the Coordination o Air Transport in Europe (CATE), with the aim o promoting the continued development o a sae, efficient and sustainable European air transport system. ECAC seeks to:
• Harmonize civil aviation policies and practices amongst its member states states • Promote understanding on policy matters matters between member member states and other parts o the world 2.79 Aims. Within Europe, because o its established position, ECAC is the only orum or consideration o major civil aviation topics relevant to all European states. The strength o ECAC is derived rom:
• Membership across Europe • Active co-operation with institutions o the the EU, including including the EC and the European Parliament Parliament • Close liaison with ICAO • Established relationships with organizations organizations representing representing all parts o the air transport industry including consumer and airline interests
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International Agreements and Organizations EASA 2.80 European Aviation Saety Agency (EASA). The European Aviation Saety Agency is the centrepiece o the European Union’s strategy or aviation saety. Its mission is to promote the highest common standards o saety and environmental protection in civil aviation. While national authorities continue to carry out the majority o operational tasks - such as certification o individual aircraf or licensing o pilots - the Agency ensures common saety and environmental standards at the European level. The agency’s current responsibilities include:
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s n o i t a z i n a g r O d n a s t n e m e e r g A l a n o i t a n r e t n I
• Rulemaking: drafing saety legislation and providing providing technical advice to the European European institutions and the member states • Inspections, training and standardization standardization programmes to to ensure uniorm uniorm implementation o European aviation saety legislation in all member states • Saety and environmental environmental type-certification o aircraf, aircraf, engines engines and parts • Approval and oversight o aircraf design design organizations organizations world-wide and o production and maintenance organizations organizations outside the EU • Data collection, analysis and research to improve aviation saety saety
JAA 2.81 The Joint Aviation Authorities. The Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) are an associated body o ECAC representing the civil aviation regulatory authorities o a number o European States States who have agreed to co-operate in developing and implementing common saety regulatory standards and procedures. This co-operation is intended to provide high and consistent standards o saety and a ‘level playing field’ or competition in Europe. The JAA Membership is based on signing the “JAA Arrangements” document originally signed by the then current member member states in Cyprus in 1990. 1990. At the time o publishing EASA has taken over the role o JAA; however, JAA remains as an integral organization to administer those countries outside the EU Member States which have adopted JAA rules and regulations. 2.82
Objectives. The JAA objectives and unctions unc tions may be summarized as ollows:
• To ensure, ensure, through co-operation, common high levels o o aviation saety within Member States • Through the application o uniorm saety standards, to contribute to air and equal competition within Member States • To aim or cost-effective cost-effective saety and minimum regulatory burden so as to contribute contribute to European industry’s intern international ational competitiveness 2.83 JAA Organization. The JAA is controlled by a Committee, which works under the authority o the Plenary Conerence o ECAC and reports to the JAA Board o Directors General. The Board is responsible or review o general policy and long term objectives o the JAA. The JAA Committee is composed o one member rom each Authority and is responsible or the administrative and technical implementation o the Arrangement. The Committee and the Board are supported by a Secretariat.
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.84 JAA Documentation. The Authorities agreed to co-operate to produce common comprehensive and detailed requirements and where necessary acceptable means o compliance with and interpretations o them (the Joint Aviation Requirements - JARs). JARs encompass both technical and administrative unctions. In developing JARs, the JAA takes into account the duties and obligations under the Chicago Convention; consults the parties to whom the requirements requirements apply and takes into account other other aviation aviation codes so as to acilitate acilitate exchange o products, services or persons or reliance on organizations, between the JAA countries and other countries in the world.
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Eurocontrol 2.85 History and Role. Eurocontrol was ounded in 1960 with the objective o providing common ATC services in the upper airspace o Member States and strengthening cooperation between Member States in matters o air navigation. Eurocontrol was established under the Interna International tional Convention Relating to Co-operation or the Saety o Air Navigation signed at Brussels on 13 December 1960. Initially, six countries signed the agreement: Germany (FDR); Belgium; France; United Kingdom; Luxembourg and the Netherlands. The Eurocontrol ATCC is at Maastricht, Holland. The role o Eurocontrol is now much wider than originally envisaged. The limit o operations, to just the upper airspace, was abandoned in 1986 and Eurocontrol now has a much wider remit, placed on the Organization by ECAC, most notably in the area o Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM) which led to the establishment o the Eurocontrol Central Flow Management Unit (CFMU) in 1988. Eurocontrol has a training centre in Luxembourg and an experimental research centre at Brétigny, France, with a new ATC ATCC C in Vienna (CEATS).
World Trade Trade Organization Organi zation 2.86 World Trade Organization and the General Agreement on Trade in Services or Aviation (WTO/GATS). In recognition o the need to establish a world order to promote international trade on a air basis by the removal o unair barriers to international trade, the World Trade Organization was set up and through the negotiated General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) leading to General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS), international arrangements have been established to abolish unair practices and to encourage growth, and thus prosperity, in the global economy. See Figure 2.2 or the WTO organization structure.
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e r u t c u r t s O T W 2 . 2 e r u g i F
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.87 Single European Sky (SES). This agreement between European States was published in a document EC 550/2004. Its objectives are:
2
a. b.
I n t e r n a t i o n a l A g r e e m e n t s a n d O r g a n i z a t i o n s
The provision o air navigation services in the single European sky. To establish common requirements or the sae and efficient provision o air navigation services in the Community. These requirements include: (i) technical and operational competence and suitability (ii) systems and processes or saety and quality management (iii) reporting systems (iv) quality o services (v) financial strength (vi) liability and insurance cover (vii) ownership and organizational structure, including the prevention o conflicts o interest (viii) human resources, including adequate staffing plans (ix) security
Geneva Convention 2.88 The Convention on International Recognition o Rights in Aircraf (Geneva 1947) established the right o the seller o an aircraf to secure any lending (mortgage) granted to the buyer, by a mortgage against the aircraf. Specifically the convention:
• Outlawed double registration • Made it a requirement that the registering authority address appeared on the certificate o registration • Contained requirements regarding salvage o aircraf • Stipulated that an aircraf could not be transerred rom one register to another unless all interested parties had been inormed • Stipulated that the articles o the Convention would not prevent a State imposing its laws relating to immigration, customs or air navigation
EU Regulation 261/2004 2.89
The regulation applies to any passenger:
• departing rom an airport located in the territory o a Member State The protection accorded to passengers departing rom or to an airport located in a Member State should be extended to those leaving an airport located in a third country or one situated in a Member State, when a Community carrier operates the flight. • departing rom an EU member state, or • travelling to an EU member state on an airline based in an EU member state i that person has: • a confirmed reservation on the flight, and • arrived in time or check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication rom the airline, or, i no time is so indicated, no less than 45 minutes prior to the scheduled departure time o the flight
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International Agreements and Organizations or • has been transerred rom the flight or which he/she held a reservation to some other flight
2
unless
s n o i t a z i n a g r O d n a s t n e m e e r g A l a n o i t a n r e t n I
• the passenger is travelling on a ree or discounted ticket not available to the general public, other than a ticket obtained rom a requent flyer programme. 2.90 Denied boarding. Beore denying passengers boarding involuntarily, the airline is required to first seek volunteers to give up their reservation in return or whatever benefit is negotiated between the airline and the volunteers. Irrespective o such negotiation, such volunteers are also entitled to reimbursement or re-routing as described below.
I insufficient volunteers are obtained, the airline may then proceed to involuntarily deny passengers the right to board their flight. All passengers so denied must be offered all three types o compensation and assistance described below. 2.91 Cancellation. I a flight is cancelled, passengers are automatically entitled to their choice o (a.) re-routing to the same destination at the earliest opportunity; (b.) later re-routing, at the passenger’s convenience, to the same destination under comparable conditions; or (c.) a reund o the ticket as well as a return flight to the point o first departure. Any ticket reund is the price paid or the flight(s) not used, plus the cost o flights already flown in cases where the cancellation has made those flights o no purpose. Where applicable, passengers are also entitled to rereshments, communication and accommodation as described below. Where rerouting is to another airport serving the same destination, the airline must pay or onward transport to the original airport or to a close-by destination agreed with the passenger. These choices, and the entitlement to rereshments, etc., apply to all cancellations, regardless o whether the circumstances are extraordinary or not.
The airline is also required to pay cash compensation as described below, unless one o the ollowing conditions applies: • the airline notifies the passengers at least two weeks prior to departure • the airline notifies the passengers between one and two weeks prior to departure, and reroutes passengers so that they can: • depart no more than two hours earlier than scheduled, and • arrive no more than our hours later than scheduled • the airline notifies the passengers less than one week prior to departure, and re-routes passengers so that they can: • depart no more than one hour earlier than scheduled, and • arrive no more than two hours later than scheduled • the cancellation was caused by extraordinary circumstances that could not have been avoided by any reasonable measure. The airline must also provide an explanation to passengers o alternative transport.
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International Agreements and Organizations 2.92 Delays. I an airline expects a flight to be delayed, passengers are entitled to rereshments and communication i the expected delay is more than:
2
I n t e r n a t i o n a l A g r e e m e n t s a n d O r g a n i z a t i o n s
•
two hours, in the case o a type 1 flight
•
three hours, in the case o a type 2 flight
•
our hours, in the case o a type 3 flight
Additionally, i the flight is expected to depart on the day afer the original scheduled departure time, passengers are entitled to accommodation. I a flight is delayed by five hours, passengers are additionally entitled to abandon their journey and receive a reund or all unused tickets, a reund on tickets used already i the flight no longer serves any purpose in relation to their original travel plan, and, i relevant, a flight back to their original point o departure at the earliest opportunity. 2.93 Compensation and assistance. There are three broad categories o compensation and assistance that may be required in the case o cancellations or denied boarding. 2.94
Cash compensation. Cash compensation is a payment o:
1.
€250/400/600 or flights type 1/2/3 respectively.
Where re-routing is offered and results in the passenger arriving within two/three/our hours o the scheduled arrival time or a type 1/2/3 flight, the compensation payable is halved. The Airline is not obliged to provide Cash compensation in the case o “Extraordinary Circumstances”. 2.95 Re-routing or reunding. Re-routing or reunding is, at the passenger’s choice, one o the ollowing three compensations:
1. Repayment o the cost o unused flight tickets, and or used tickets where the flight(s) taken no longer serve(s) any purpose in relation to the passenger’s original travel plan, and where applicable, a flight back to the original point o depar ture at the earliest opportunity 2. Re-routing under similar conditions to the intended final destination at the earliest opportunity 3. Re-routing under similar conditions to the intended final destination at the passenger’s leisure, subject to the availability o seats. I a passenger’s destination is an airport at a city with multiple airpor ts and re-routing results in the passenger being taken to another o those airports, the airline must also pay or transport or the passenger to the original intended airport or an agreed nearby destination. 2.96 Rereshments, communication and accommodation. When passengers become entitled to these assistances, they must be offered, ree o charge:
• Meals and rereshments in proportion to the waiting time • Two telephone calls, ax or telex messages, or emails • Hotel accommodation and transport between the airport and the hotel, i a stay o one or more nights, or a stay additional to that intended by the passenger becomes necessary
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International Agreements and Organizations In the case o a delay, the airline may withdraw these entitlements i offering them would delay the flight urther.
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2.98 Upgrades and downgrades. I a passenger is placed in a higher class than that or which a ticket was purchased, the airline may not request any additional p ayment.
s n o i t a z i n a g r O d n a s t n e m e e r g A l a n o i t a n r e t n I
I a passenger is placed in a lower class than that or which a ticket was purchased, the airline must reund 30/50/75% o the cost o the ticket or type 1/2/3 flights. 2.99 Method o reund. Reunds payable under this regulation may be paid in cash, by electronic bank transer, bank draf, or cheque. With the signed agreement o a passenger, they may also be paid in travel vouchers or other services. 2.100 Obligation to notiy passengers. Airlines are obliged to display a notice at their checkin counters stating:
“I you are denied boarding or i your flight is cancelled or d elayed or at least two hours, ask at the check-in counter or boarding gate or the text stating your rights, particularly with regard to compensation and assistance.” Additionally, when an airline cancels a flight, denies a person boarding, or incurs a delay exceeding two hours to a flight, it is obliged to provide each passenger affected with a written notice setting out their rights under the regulation, and the contact details o the national body tasked with enorcing the regulation. Flight types are as ollows: Type 1 :
A flight o less than 1500 km in distance
Type 2 :
A flight within the EU o greater than 1500 km in distance, or any other flight o greater than 1500 km but less than 3500 km in distance
Type 3 :
A flight not within EU o greater than 3500 km in distance
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International Agreements and Organizations Summary Relevant International Conventions and Agreements
2
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n o i t a l u g e R e h t o t g n i t n a o l e i R t a g n i o v i t a n N e r i E L v A n T I o T C o
n d e o o f d l o a e c r s o d u t ( a r 2 c o e P 5 9 g e 1 a c o m n a a r n d u o i r s t n I o n s e v r l e e n i s o r r s u a r C c B e m o e o y h t R t i e l i o b t h t a y i d l e b e L d h t . e c a d d l n p ) e z u e i o n r R O g g . A C o c 8 3 I e e 9 y R h t 1 b l e n o a n o g a o s o n i n m i e t o o a t i i r t a t D n a r a a c e c P t fi fi i I i o d r n n n t i h U o U g t n T i e g e t o n h l a t h t i t e t f a r l r R a e r r o o c i s i R r s A l e A e y n u y e n l u b i o R o R c i a t e t b r n i n i n n g d u e e a e a i a s S v t v t r n r r n r u o e a o e a e C C C C C C h t
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. ) , p s s ’ i n d t u h r - o e o T k s h r c e . c p e s a p a c b t t n n a r a a ‘ t d o r n u r l a e s o t a ( g n i a i s t r y d o t r r e r a t p o c s a p e p ! l s e r r c n h d n a r m a i i r t ( t r h e t A o b f i c e n a l a d g P n r b e n c a a r u n ff c i r r o a p o i t a d f n r a t o o o e r l n p . t l c i r e r d i e p r e k i a m i a a r l y c n r l r v w h f a r a e c a c e i u r t v e s r h o c r n o r w g n i n e a o v i , s o d s ) e i d t t e e f f a a fi d a a o i g h o u r r g i c l l c e c c r i r r b w x i p E s S a a o O i y e n o r o e h g o a t a s n n o n e m i i o o a t i i t t t u D r a a a a c c g c P fi n fi o i e d i r r t i n P n t i n h U o U g e t n T m e i e g t o e l h a t h n t i p t l t e p r R f a f r l u o a r e a o c S s R r r i c e s i l r A e n l n u y e R b c o u A o i i a l t R t o o n i n n n d c e i e r t u e s a e a s S o v t v t t n r r n r u o o e r r o e a e C C A P C C C h t
. O A C I o n o i t a e r c e n h t o i t o n t e d v e n L o . C n o o g i t a a i c i v h A C l i v e h i C t o o t s n e x o i t e a n l n u A g e 8 R 1
5 s e m o s h t o n s d o i a e e r t a n i r r w e o h a n t v r K o ( o n r e i i A h T : m r e e i n h a a t t o e h t h N o t s ) e r m 5 o o = o s d 3 m m e + o o e r 2 n d ; y e l t e l a r i n l c r e a l e m e r a c i e e m n r r m e h g a o c c a 8 e t e s d . e o m n 5 r o w h t t d a e s 7 e e e e e h h r , h T T 6 t t n e m l i e t i v e i s r C n g l a A a r t T n r s o i o e t p c a i s v n n r r a e e r t S T n r r I i i A A n l l o a a t n n n n o o o i i i e t n t t n o a m a i e n n r e r v t e a e r e n i t t o v n g n C A I A I
e m o R
s l e s s u r B
o g a c i h C
o g a c i h C
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3 3 9 1 y a M
8 3 9 1 r e b m e t p e S
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4 4 9 1 r e b m e c e D
4 4 9 1 r e b m e c e D
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International Agreements and Organizations , P H n o t h g u o b e r a f a r c r i a e r e h w r e l l e s e h t o s t . h e g s i r a l e e h r t o t c e e t g a o g r t p r o o T m l a n o i t a f n r a r e t c r i n I A n e i s h t t h g i n R o o n n o o i i t t i n n e g v o n c o e C R
, n a e i d s u a a h c s n e r a a c C b l , y A K i l U t E , a r l . A u S o U t r . d e n e w s o o i u p t a c e r e r fi s i r o t e a r y m r a w . o l a g o p L r n P o l i . j a t n a n c o m i o a r i t r t t n e a n e N o c v h t n o ; s w e o o t C y l a t 3 n s 3 a o o r 9 m t e 1 n h t e d n o i i h e t a t a s n d y n n , e c a e d n a m p l a l l r m p e o e o R G c H n e g c i a e r r u o F S y e t b h n e o g s a e m i t a r a D P n d r o i h n T o o i t t n f e v a r c n i o r C A
s k c e h c e f s g a r c a g c g r n i a a r b a y d r d a l n o t a i l g i s t m 0 e t 0 k c ’ p 0 r i 0 t e o c 5 r r r x 2 o e e o l l t t s t o a t i i n l r e p o m i l m ‘ r s n e r o n o i i u e o i t t q l b p a s e a i n r l m e e r e x p h i e m t e r d r d o a c e e c fi v d i e o e l s p d m i m a e a i R R S M . . . . a b c d s y n e b l o i t u e n R g e a v i i r n n r a o t a r C C e e C l a h n t o i o d n t n a e o i n r e m t a t c n A fi i I o n o t U t l g o n c e i h o t t t a r r l o e i r o P R A
a v e n e G
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s a o s a l e c y p i b o r x g u a i n E t r ; i n y i c h h n ; t i e ) d w g r l s e o s t m e h e g r i fl d e l n b a a o s . n n t t o i a t h t i g o i a r n a fl n i d e r t e t n n l n a a g i n m 6 i s u s r H ; ) e v o y t o : d n C e r e a u t p . t m n a i m o o i i n l c t r n d g o e e n ( l v u i n d t n a o o c e e s s r ( C h e c A s - s p C n e c e l E o i v r g n n e n A a s i s l s a e i c c r i e v r m e S m r o i C A n o d l t e n u e d m e e h c e r S g n A l o N a r e e t o p a s o l r i t u l t h u i g E n M R i
r o A o C g n i t s i x e n a d i l a v r e d n e r o t s e t a t s s w o l l A . . t n e e n m o e w e r e g n a a C e A u C s s E i o t r g o n i t s s a l e e r n t i t n h r e o m w e i r e r A f r g a c r A o l s i A a r e t d e t a c e t a fi l r i i t o l t r p u e m M C I
e e s h t a e l o t h e w w r s e o r n e fi t e r a D h c . ) . a ’ s n ( g i r s e n i i s r i r a i e r a e l - r r c t e a c e l t w a h ‘ u o t d c y n a t l a e i i h s t b a i e l c d i e v h r n a t e r s e s i e r r n r fi e a t r c e a g D h n . c i t n c i o s r a r t e a v t n t u o o i C c s l n e o a h n o t o s r r e i n t e i o a P r o t i t n a r a r a c e y C y t r fi g n b a i n n I d i t e t n U o t c e m a r g r m e n o t e h i l r n p t t a e o p r l P C u o e r e i S R s A h e y t n n l u b n o o a i i R t t e h t n n i n g r e a e a i v e v t n n r r r h o o e a t C C C C O
s i r a P
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n i e t a s r t e e d h n t a m o m s i o e i C t r f o h a r t c r i u a a e l e e b h h a t t c i l o o p s s f p n n a a o o r i c s i t r i t a i a a g w i i g l a l l o l b b a o o s e n d d r u e d z n n i p n a l a e a s e s l s s t f o t u h a h h g r g i c i r w w r r i a s e e a l n e h h u n t t e i h s s s t m e h e r e n n c n e t fi fi i fi e e e h e D D D w D n d i a r a t r o e B C n d o n a s d e t c e i n t e m ff m O o n C o s n t c o i t A n r f e v e a r c n h t i o r C O A
h . ’ s i t h w g t i o fl n n s i ‘ e s o e d n e fi t e a t D s . t s a t : h h d t g e i d i t r t fl i d a l a m o e n m b d n o n e i t o c o h a e l l e n i r r c p s n t e t e p r n a i ff e s d o i d r n r n e e e a f ff d n o n c a o i t i s n t i r e ff e o a o r g o t t t m i n a s i c i r o i c e d e h i g d d n p s h e i i R l a O w t o t r d u a i e n r l j o o o s t b e e e e e x a t e t t c t a o a t a a t i a l t t c t S t S S p o S p l l . . . . A A a b c d o n o i s s e r p f p a u r c S r i A e h t o r e r o u z i n e S o i t l u n e w v l n a o n C U
- e ’ i k h g s i r r a ‘ o g g h t a i e g b w t a y o d t n i r l a i b e a b s s g a y r i n l e e b ’ g s t s l d n t n a u e e a p a s s s ‘ u a i m s a a o c p l e c h c y r t a r o l u e l a h p j e t e i 0 y h R n l l . r 0 0 b i e o : l 0 s e m b h 0 n g a t a o r i 1 o l a $ i m t e y d p a g l e n d t e i t o c l t l o u x u u l t y E l o e i s i l . s s i e e r b a w b a c i r y a c n o r e l e r e u h i s g d j t i r t l n i e r n g t i a i r m c c . i e i o L n fl e e . n h h g i t . i t i n a y g l e s t i d n e e l i u s d k i l k a b c . . c a j a i n a b M i l s y n e b l o i t u e n R g e a v i i r n n r a o t a r C C e e C l a h n t o o i d n t n a e o i n r e m t a t c n A fi i I o n o t U t l g o n c e i h o t t t a r r l o e i r o P R A
n o i t a r e f p a f o r a c r r i h c t r i i a a w n n s a a e r g e n d e c i i r r v r a e e r o g e s b t n n i a n n r d f i o o n a f e d e r c c i s r a i r i c v a u a i r e n a d v t a h a n r n n a a i : l o i r a o d s t s a h o e i m e a w b g s g m a a r r n n o o m m o o s a b a i r y d d n e l m t r e r p n o o o s l b a e a s l s y a y s h o i t v o s o i r e r e s t w t c t s s s s a e s c e l a l a a d p d p e . . . . . D a b c d e o o y n t o e i s a s S e r p e p h u t S t s n e i h t a g r A o s t c n n A o i t o i a t l u n i v e w A v l l i n a v n o i C U C
l a n o i t a n r e t n i g n i v r e s t r o p r i a n a t a d e t t i m m o c s e c n e ff o h t i n w o i s l t a a e i v D a s n t o c i t A n n l o e u i t v a n w i o a v C l A n i l v e U i h C t o n o o y t o i t s s e y r e a r S a t p e n p u h e S t m e t s e l h i p t n p r a g u o S A
o y k o T
e u g a H e h T
a l a m e t a t y u i G C
l a e r t n o M
l a e r t n o M
r e b m e t 3 p 6 e S 9 1
r e b m e c 0 e 7 D 9 1
1 7 9 1 h c r a M
r e b m e t 1 p 7 e S 9 1
r e b m e t 1 p 7 e S 9 1
2
International Agreements and Organizations
) R D S ( s t h g i R g n i s s w R a r D R D D s S S l R s a D h t e i i c S i l e w p l p p h t S i o c a F w o l t s M I o r d c o o n P i o o t a g e o l r d P g a a n m i m e e d t r e u a a b g a u g o r t H G e n i n y t i t n s s i e t i i t i l b m m i m i a y i l l a s s l s p e e e s c c g a l a n w l o p p a l l e e h A R R C l d n o a n e n o i o m i t a A t a r c n o t fi e i t ) n n 4 U I - o e t 1 ( h g s t n l i r t o a c o l o e t n R i r o i r o s A P t l y n e l e u b a v R n n e o n g i o i t a a i i C t d e r r d h e r a A t C C
f a r c r i a n a . y e t b a d t s e s g n u i a t c c a r e t g n a o m c a r d e t e h d o u n l a c n o i r o t o t 2 a r 5 e 9 p 1 O e n m a o o R t d d e e r d e n t s e t i x g E e r n d r o i h n T o i t o n t e v f n a o r c C i r e A e h t n c a g d i r n e u e r S o m F A y e h t o b t n l e o o s c g a e o t m i t r o r a a P D P
s e t d e u . . p c w i s t o l l d e , a g s e n r i n y e d r o g e d fl r n c a z r e g s l o v o u e r o o o n t i u o t n e g r r u i n m o t m o n o i o C o s g c d i d , e s e r u s e e r m r b r r e M - e m t s a a N d p t w e t 1 2 r H 1 t u e e l a c o i h o e r d t t p h o n t s i o i t d e r e r w u s r y d e s t t e i i t n n i t a r r o d e n t o a t i e e r x z t s h c t s t t c s t n i e i i u t s h e m s a g m t i n e r r o ff e i a r t n s o p e r h n t a t g n t w o a r o d i n a i l c t t e y u e y a s c r i m h r M o s fl t o r a i u l r o e i p t t N b d v i P t r 0 h e a o r r t g i o e 0 i e s r E A H T 2 R o
l a e r t n o M 5 7 9 1 r e b m e t p e S
A A J e h t d e h s i l b a t s E
. e d n n o h t a i t y n o t i l e v e i l b n i c i a o i l C m o o w d s a n s o r o a i w t a a W l t i e m e h i h l t t o e v y t i a b e c w d n e e r o t h e s i e s r l r e b a y b t m s b e e d s e m e d g r A T a a w A a I m a y d e b b o t e . t r n l b s e e a e m r g g n e e v a e e s r o c m g e a s a A r D p
s a e S h g i H e h t o n o i t n e v n o C N U
s u r p y C o n o i t n e v n o C e h T
n o t n e m e e r g y A t r i l i e i r r b a i a L c r r e t e n g n I e s A T s a A I P
l a e r t n o M
o g e t n o y a M B
s u r p y C
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8 7 9 1 r e b m e t p e S
2 8 9 1 r e b m e c e D
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5 9 9 1 r e b o t c O
2
s n o i t a z i n a g r O d n a s t n e m e e r g A l a n o i t a n r e t n I
49
2
Questions Questions
2
1.
Q u e s t i o n s
What does cabotage reer to?
a. b. c. d. 2.
The Convention signed by the states relating to damage caused by oreign aircraf to persons and property on the ground is:
a. b. c. d. 3.
b. c. d.
Annex 1 Annex 2 Annex 11 Annex 12
The aircraf commander may, when he/she has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit an offence against penal law on board the aircraf:
a. b. c. d.
50
Annex 6 Annex 11 Annex 10 Annex 14
The ICAO annex containing the standards and recommended practices or Personnel Licensing is:
a. b. c. d. 7.
ICAO must be inormed about all new flight crew licences and any suspended validity o such licences ICAO must be inormed about differences rom the standards detailed in any o the annexes to the Chicago Convention ICAO must approve the pricing o tickets on international airline connections ICAO must be inormed about changes to national regulations
Which o the ollowing annexes to the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specifications or the construction o aerodromes?
a. b. c. d. 6.
the Tokyo convention the Paris convention the Rome convention the Chicago convention
Which o the ollowing is an obligation o being an ICAO contracting state?
a.
5.
the Tokyo convention the Rome convention the Warsaw convention the Paris convention.
The Convention on offences and other acts committed on board an aeroplane is:
a. b. c. d. 4.
Domestic air services within a state An international air carrier A flight above territorial waters Crop spraying
ask the person to disembark ask the crew to assist in restraining the person order the passengers to assist the crew in restraining the person deliver the person to the competent authority
2
Questions 8.
The international convention concerning the responsibilities o international air carriers (operators), or the carriage o passengers, baggage and reight is the:
a. b. c. d. 9.
Annex 15 Annex 16 Annex 9 Annex 8
Which reedom o the air is applicable to a flight which wishes to land in a oreign state or technical reasons?
a. b. c. d. 14.
the Geneva Convention o 1936 the Chicago Convention o 1944 the Warsaw Convention o 1929 the Geneva Convention o 1948
The annex to the Chicago convention which deals with the entry and departure o cargo and other articles on international flights is:
a. b. c. d. 13.
regulation o the transportation o dangerous goods operator’s licence or international scheduled operations security systems at airports limitation o the Operator’s liability concerning passengers and goods transported
The objectives o ICAO were defined by:
a. b. c. d. 12.
offences and other acts committed on board an aeroplane damage caused by oreign aircraf to third parties on the ground regulation o the transportation o dangerous goods damage caused by any aircraf to third parties on the ground
The Warsaw convention and its later amendments deals with:
a. b. c. d. 11.
s n o i t s e u Q
The Rome convention and its later amendments deals with:
a. b. c. d. 10.
2
Tokyo convention Hague convention Montreal convention Warsaw convention
1st reedom 3rd reedom 4th reedom 2nd reedom
ICAO establishes:
a. b. c. d.
aeronautical standards adopted by all states proposals or aeronautical regulations in the orm o 18 annexes standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states which are signatory to the Chicago Convention o 1944 standards and recommended practices or contracting states
51
2
Questions 15.
The first reedom o the air is:
2
a.
Q u e s t i o n s
b. c. d. 16.
The Convention which deals with offences against penal law is:
a. b. c. d. 17.
c. d.
The Council The Regional Air Navigation Committee The Air Navigation Commission The Assembly
The second reedom o the air is the:
a. b. c. d.
52
binding upon all airlines operating international routes binding or contracting states that have not notified ICAO about national differences advice and guidance or the aviation legislation within contracting states binding or all contracting states
Which body o ICAO finalizes the SARPs to be submitted or adoption?
a. b. c. d. 21.
Chicago The Hague Warsaw Montreal
The standards contained in the annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
a. b.
20.
develop principles and techniques or international aviation approve the ticket prices set by international airlines approve new airlines operating turbine engine powered aircraf approve new international airlines
Which international convention established ICAO?
a. b. c. d. 19.
the convention o Rome the convention o Madrid the convention o Tokyo the convention o Warsaw
One o the main objectives o ICAO is to:
a. b. c. d. 18.
The right to board passengers rom the state where the aircraf is registered and fly to any other state The right to over fly without landing The right to land or a technical stop The right to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states
right to cabotage traffic right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states right to land in a oreign state or a technical stop right to over fly a oreign state without landing
2
Questions 22.
Which annex contains inormation concerning Air Traffic Services?
a. b. c. d. 23.
b. c. d.
b. c. d.
To all passengers travelling on an EU registered aircraf wherever it may be operating Those departing rom an EU member state or travelling to an EU member state on an airline based in an EU member state Only to those departing rom an EU member state or travelling on an airline based in an EU member state To all passengers who are citizens o an EU member state
arrived in time or check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication rom the airline, or, i no time is so indicated, no less than 30 minutes prior to the scheduled departure time o the flight arrived in time or check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication rom the airline, or, i no time is so indicated, no less than 45 minutes prior to the scheduled departure time o the flight arrived in time or check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication rom the airline, or, i no time is so indicated, no less than 1 hour prior to the scheduled departure time o the flight arrived in time or check-in as indicated on the ticket or communication rom the airline, or, i no time is so indicated, no less than 2 hours prior to the scheduled departure time o the flight
How much is the cash compensation given to a passenger under the EU Regulation 261/2004 travelling on a flight not within the EU o greater than 3500 km i the flight is cancelled?
a. b. c. d. 26.
s n o i t s e u Q
To which passengers does EU Regulation 261/2004 apply? Those who
a.
25.
2
To which passengers does EU Regulation 261/2004 apply?
a.
24.
Annex 11 Annex 10 Annex 14 Annex 15
€250 €400 €600 €800
How or where are airlines obliged to inorm passengers stating that : “I you are denied boarding or i your flight is cancelled or delayed or at least two hours, ask at the check-in counter or boarding gate or the text stating your rights, particularly with regard to compensation and assistance.”
a. b. c. d.
This is given verbally to individual passengers by airline staff at check-in Printed on the airline ticket or the on-line receipt Printed on a leaflet attached to the boarding pass On a notice and on display at the passenger check-in counter
53
2
Answers
Answers 2
A n s w e r s
54
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
a
b
a
b
d
a
d
d
b
d
b
c
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
d
d
b
c
a
a
b
c
c
a
b
b
25
26
c
d
Chapter
3 Airworthiness of Aircraft
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .57 Airworthiness . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 57 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
59
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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3
Airworthiness of Aircraft
3
A i r w o r t h i n e s s o f A i r c r a f t
56
3
Airworthiness of Aircraft Introduction 3.1 Background. The Chicago Convention placed great emphasis on saety, and one particular ‘area o interest’ was in the airworthiness o aeroplanes. In order to ensure that an aeroplane was sae to use it was agreed that all aeroplanes would have a certificate that stated that the aircraf was airworthy when manuactured, and that through the continued validation o that certificate, the continuing airworthiness o the aircraf would be ensured. During the design and building stage o the lie o a type o aeroplane, rigorous rules and regulations are applied to the manuacturing processes and the flight testing process, to ensure that the aircraf does what it is intended to do. Once the testing procedures have been successully completed, the State o Manuacture (the USA in the case o Boeing aircraf and France in the case o Airbus) issues a Type Certificate and this is then applicable to all subsequent production models (issued to the individual aircraf by the State o Registry afer a short ‘compliance’ air test). The initial certificate would also be applicable to all subsequent marks or upgrades o the type, within reason. The FAA and UK CAA decided that the 747-400 was not the same aeroplane as the original 747, and required re-certification. An expensive process or Boeing! For the initial flight testing, the prototype is permitted to fly under a Permit to Fly issued by the State o Manuacture.
3
t f a r c r i A f o s s e n i h t r o w r i A
3.2 Standards. The Airworthiness standards o Annex 8 o the Chicago Convention are related to the standards o Annex 6, par t 1, which deals with aeroplane perormance operating limitations. An element o the saety o an operation is the intrinsic saety o the aircraf. That is, its airworthiness. The airworthiness o an aircraf is not ully defined by the application o the airworthiness Standards o Annex 8, but also requires the application o the Standards o Annex 6 that are complementary. In other words, Annex 8 deals with airworthiness rom the engineering point o view, whereas Annex 6 deals with the saety standards necessary or any operation. The standards apply to both perormance and flying qualities. 3.3 Applicability. The Standards o Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 Part 3 are applicable to aeroplanes with certificated maximum take-off mass greater than 5700 kg, intended or the carriage o passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation. Unless specifically exempted, the standards apply to the complete aeroplane including power-units, systems and equipment. For the standards to be applicable; the aircraf must have at least two engines. The EASA equivalent is EASA Certification Specifications (CS).
Airworthiness 3.4 Certificate o Airworthiness. A Certificate o Airworthiness (C o A) is issued by the State o Registration when satisactory evidence is provided that the aeroplane complies with the appropriate airworthiness requirements. ICAO has specified a standard orm o C o A which is to include the nationality and registration marks, manuacturer and designation o the aircraf (e.g. Boeing 747-400), aircraf serial number (i.e. the airrame number like a car chassis number) and categories/operation.
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3
Airworthiness of Aircraft
3
A i r w o r t h i n e s s o f A i r c r a f t
Figure 3.1 Certificate o Airworthiness
3.5 Continuing Airworthiness. The State o Registry is responsible or determining i an aircraf continues to be airworthy. The state is required to maintain a system or recording aults, malunctions, deects or other occurrences which might affect the airworthiness o aircraf with maximum take-off mass greater than 5700 kg. 3.6 Structural Integrity/Corrosion Control. The State o Design is required to ensure that a structural integrity programme exists to ensure the airworthiness o aircraf with a maximum take-off mass greater than 5700 kg. The programme is to include inormation concerning corrosion control. 3.7 Validity o C o A. The C o A will be renewed or will remain valid provided that the continued airworthiness o the aircraf has been determined by a periodic inspection. The period between the inspections is to be established by the state. Where an aircraf is damaged, it is the responsibility o the State o Registry to judge whether the damage is o such a nature that the aircraf is no longer airworthy. Where a damaged aircraf is repaired, the State o Registry is to speciy the necessary repairs and to determine that such repairs have been properly carried out beore re-issuing a C o A . 3.8 Aircraf Limitations and Inormation. Each aircraf is required to have a flight manual (or other means) in which the approved limitations are defined and additional inormation is contained necessary or the sae operation o the aeroplane. Where the determined limiting speeds are specified as a Mach number, the aircraf is to be fitted with a Mach meter. 3.9 Inormation. When a Contracting State first enters on its register an aircraf and issues or validates a Certificate o Airworthiness, it shall inorm the State o Design that it has done so.
58
3
Questions Questions 1.
The State o Design is to ensure that a continuing structural integrity programme, including inormation concerning corrosion control, is maintained in respect o aeroplanes:
a. b. c. d. 2.
the State o Registration the State o Registration or the State o the Operator the State o the Operator the State o Registration and the State o Design
When a Contracting State first enters on its register an aircraf and issues or validates a Certificate o Airworthiness, it shall inorm:
a. b. c. d. 4.
s n o i t s e u Q
with maximum certificated take-off mass less than 5700 kg with maximum certificated take-off mass greater than 5700 kg with maximum certificated take-off mass equal to 5700 kg with maximum certificated take-off mass not more than 5700 kg
The continuing validity o a Certificate o Airworthiness o an aircraf is subject to the laws o:
a. b. c. d. 3.
3
The State o Registry The State o Manuacture The State o Design The State o the Operator
Which document contains inormation concerning the flight limitations o the aircraf ?
a. b. c. d.
The C o A The C o R The C o L The aircraf Flight Manual
59
3
Answers
Answers 3
A n s w e r s
60
1
2
3
4
b
a
c
d
Chapter
4 Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63 Nationality and Registration Marks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63 Certification o Registration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .64 Aircraf Markings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .64 Classification o Aircraf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .65 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
66
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
68
61
4
Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
4
A i r c r a f t N a t i o n a l i t y a n d R e g i s t r a t i o n M a r k s
62
4
Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks Introduction 4.1 Annex 7. The Paris Convention o 1919 requires all aircraf to be registered and to carry a nationality mark and a registration mark. Annex 7 o the Chicago Convention covers Aircraf Nationality and Registration Marks. The annex contains only Standards without any recommendations. An Authority may temporarily exempt an aircraf rom registration (test flying o a prototype) or the carriage o markings (an historic aircraf or ex-military aeroplane).
4
s k r a M n o i t a r t s i g e R d n a y t i l a n o i t a N t f a r c r i A
Figure 4.1
Nationality and Registration Marks 4.2.
Differences
Annex 7 also contains lists o those Contracting States which have :
4.3
a.
Notified ICAO o differences which exist between their national regulations and the International ICAO standards set down in Annex 7
b.
Notified ICAO that no differences exist
c.
Given no inormation to ICAO on this subject
Markings. The nationality and registration mark is to consist o a group o characters.
G-ABCD In this case G is the nationality mark and is always to precede the registration mark, in this case ABCD. When the first character o the registration mark is the same type o character as the last character o the nationality mark, it is be preceded by a hyphen (-). The nationality mark is selected rom the series o nationality symbols included in the radio call signs allocated to the State o Registry by the International Telecommunications Union (an agency o the United Nations). The nationality mark is to be notified by the State o Registry, to ICAO and may consist o single letters, multiple letters or a combination o letters and numbers. It may also include a symbol o the State (e.g. the Red Cross in the case o Switzerland). The registration
63
4
Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks mark may consist o letters, numbers or a combination o both and is assigned by the State o Registry, or the common mark registering authority, rom a list o available (not previously issued) marks applicable to the State o Registry. 4.4 Common Mark. A common mark replaces a nationality mark where the aircraf is owned (operated) by an operator registered in more than one country. I n this case, a ‘common mark’ is allocated by the ITU, and ICAO specifies a state to exercise the responsibilities o the State o Registry (known as the common mark registering authority). The common mark registering authority also perorms the unction o the State o Registry with regard to the continuing airworthiness o the aircraf. Presently, the common mark 4YB is issued by ICAO to Arab Air Cargo Incorporated (based in Jordan and Iraq) or registering aircraf operated by that organization. ICAO has specified that Jordan perorms the other unctions o the common mark registering authority.
4
A i r c r a f t N a t i o n a l i t y a n d R e g i s t r a t i o n M a r k s
4.5 Exclusions. Certain combinations o letters are not permitted to be used as registration letters or parts o a registration mark. These are those combinations o letters used or specific distress traffic indicators or internationally accepted communication abbreviations. Specifically:
• • • • • •
SOS (Distress - morse) PAN (Urgency) XXX (Urgency - morse) TTT (Saety /Securité - morse) ‘Q’ codes (i.e. QNH; QRT; QUG etc….) 5 letter combinations o the international Code o Signals
Certification of Registration 4.6 Status and Content. The certificate o registration is an official document certiying that the State o Registry has registered an aircraf. The certificate is to be carried in the aircraf at all times. The certificate contains:
• • • • • • •
Nationality or Common mark, Registration mark, Manuacturer’s designation o the aircraf, Serial number o the aircraf, Name and address o the owner, A certificate that it has been entered on the register o the State, Dated signature o the registering officer.
Aircraft Markings 4.7 Location o Nationality and Registration Marks. The nationality or common mark and registration mark are to be painted on the aircraf or shall be affixed by any other means ensuring a similar degree o permanence. The marks shall be kept clean and visible at all times. 4.8 Heavier than Air Aircraf. The required markings are to appear on the lower surace (underside) o the wing, the uselage between the wings and the tail, or on the upper hal o the vertical tail surace. 4.9 Size o Markings. The markings on the wings are to be at least 50 cm high, and on the uselage and vertical suraces, 30 cm high.
64
4
Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
4
s k r a M n o i t a r t s i g e R d n a y t i l a n o i t a N t f a r c r i A
Figure 4.2
Classification of Aircraft Non-powered
Balloon
Powered
Airship
Non-powered
Glider
Lighter than air
Aircraft
Heavier than air
Aeroplane
Powered
Powered Lift
Rotorcraft
Ornithopter
Figure 4.3
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Questions Questions 1.
What cannot be included in a registration mark?
a. b. c. d.
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Q u e s t i o n s
2.
What letters are prohibited or registration marks?
a. b. c. d. 3.
RCC DDD LLL PAN
Which o the ollowing registration marks would not be permitted?
a. b. c. d.
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Four letter Q codes. Five letter international code signals. Three letter international code signals. Any number identiying an ICAO document.
Concerning aircraf registration, no combination o letters can be used which can be conused with distress codes, or example:
a. b. c. d. 7.
RCC NNN XXX ZZZ
Which o the ollowing is not permitted in the registration mark o an aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 6.
NNN XXX RCC DDD
What registration is disallowed because o possible conusion with distress/ urgency signals?
a. b. c. d. 5.
4 letter international codes. 5 letter international codes. 4 letter codes preceded by Q. Any number reerring to an ICAO document.
Which o the ollowing is not allowed in a registration mark?
a. b. c. d. 4.
LLL RCC TTT FFF
G-PRAT SY-PAN 3T-SSS YT-LLL
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Questions 8.
Concerning aircraf registration markings, no combinations can be used i they can be mistaken or:
a. b. c. d. 9.
the State o Registry or Common Mark Registering Authority. the State o Registry only. the International Civil Aviation Organisation. the International Telecommunication Union.
to ICAO by the ITU. to the State o Registry by ICAO. to the State o Registry by the ITU. to the State o the Operator.
The height o the markings under the wings o a heavier than air aircraf shall be:
a. b. c. d. 12.
s n o i t s e u Q
The common mark shall be selected rom the series o symbols included in the radio call signs allocated:
a. b. c. d. 11.
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According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination o letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
a. b. c. d. 10.
codes which are used or identification o ICAO documents. letter combinations including the letter Q. 3 letter combinations which are used by international code o signals. 5 letter combinations which are used by international code o signals.
at least 30 cm. at least 40 cm. at least 50 cm. more than 40 cm but not more than 50 cm.
The height o the markings on the uselage (or equivalent surace) and on the vertical tail surace o a heavier than air aircraf shall be:
a. b. c. d.
at least 20 cm. more than 20 cm but not more than 30 cm. at least 30 cm. at least 40 cm.
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Chapter
5 Flight Crew Licensing
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .71 Definitions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .71 General Rules Concerning Licensing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .72 Licences and Ratings or Pilots . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .74 Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) - PPL(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .76 Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) - CPL(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .77 Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) - ATPL(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78 Multi-crew Pilot Licence (MPL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .78 Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) (IR(A)) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .79 Instructor and Examiner Rating . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .79 JAR-FCL 3 Medical Requirements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .80 Pilot Proficiency . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .82 EASA Theoretical Knowledge Examinations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .82 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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F l i g h t C r e w L i c e n s i n g
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Flight Crew Licensing Introduction This chapter is applicable to the JAA Learning Objectives covering Air Crew Licensing. It is envisaged that these JAA Learning Objectives will be modified to be in accordance with EASA Part-FCL and EASA Part-MED. When this happens, the Addendum at Chapter 28 will replace the current Chapter 5. 5.1 Requirement. The Learning Objectives and the Syllabus or 010 Air Law require the student to have knowledge o the SARPs detailed in Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing). However, the EASA requirement or Flight Crew Licensing is contained in JAR-FCL and there are questions in the Central Question Bank (CQB) relating to JAR-FCL. Where there are JAR differences rom Annex 1, these will be highlighted.
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5.2 International Standard. Each annex to the Chicago Convention includes a supplement, which is a summary o the changes notified by each state (in alphabetical order) under article 38 o the convention. The supplement or Annex 1 is the biggest o all the annex supplements and signifies the disparity in flight crew licensing around the world. It must be stated that the FAA, the JAA, EASA and certainly the UK CAA have not, and never have, adopted the requirements o Annex 1 (crew licensing and medical requirements) as a standard. Each authority has specific rules, to which, JAR-FCL is the JAA standard applied in Europe. It must be emphasized that the inclusion o inormation rom Annex 1 in this manual is or inormation only (to enable you to pass the exam) and must not be relied upon or any matters relating to the issue o, or maintenance o your flight crew licence. 5.3 European Standard. The licensing o pilots (also Flight Engineers) to JAR requirements is in accordance with the requirements o JAR-FCL parts 1, 2 3 and 4.
• • • •
JAR-FCL 1 covers the licensing o pilots o aeroplanes JAR-FCL 2 covers the licensing o helicopter pilots JAR-FCL 3 covers the medical requirements or licensing o aircrew JAR-FCL 4 covers the licensing o Flight Engineers (Systems Panel Operators)
Note: The above is in the process o being replaced by EASA Part FCL
Definitions 5.4 Definitions. When the ollowing terms are used in the standards and recommended practices o Annex 1, they have the ollowing meanings: 5.5 Pilot-in-command (PIC). The PIC is the pilot who is responsible or the saety o the aircraf and compliance with the rules o the air, during flight time. 5.6 Category o aircraf. Classification o aircraf according to specified basic characteristics, e.g. aeroplane, helicopter, glider, ree balloon. 5.7 Commander. A pilot designated by the operator who is qualified as PIC, who may delegate the responsibility or the conduct o the flight to another qualified pilot. 5.8 Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any capacity other than PIC but excluding a pilot who is on board or the sole purpose o receiving instruction. 5.9 Cross-country. A flight between the point o departure and a point o arrival ollowing a pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures.
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.10 Dual Instruction Time. Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction rom a properly authorized pilot on board the aircraf. 5.11 Instrument Flight Time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraf solely by reerence to instruments and without external reerence points. 5.12 Flight Time. The total time rom the moment an aircraf first moves under its own power or the purpose o taking off until it comes to rest at the end o the flight (synonymous with ‘block to block’ or ‘chock to chock’).
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5.13 Instrument Ground Time. Time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground, simulated instrument flight in a flight simulation training device approved by the Licensing Authority. 5.14
Instrument Time. Instrument flight time or instrument ground time
5.15 Rating. An authorization entered on or associated with a licence and orming part thereo, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such a licence. 5.16 Synthetic Flight Trainer. Any one o the ollowing three types o apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
• Flight Simulator, which provides an accurate representation o the flight deck o a par ticular aircraf type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraf systems control unctions, the normal environment o flight crew members, and the perormance and flight characteristics o that type o aircraf are realistically simulated; • Flight Procedures Trainer , which provides realistic flight deck environment and which simulates instrument responses, simple control unctions o mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraf systems and the perormance and flight characteristics o aircraf o a particular class; • Basic Instrument Flight Trainer, which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment o an aircraf in flight in instrument flight conditions.
General Rules Concerning Licensing 5.17 Authority to Act as Flight Crew. A person shall not act as a flight crew member o an aircraf unless a valid licence is held showing compliance with the specifications o Annex 1 and appropriate to the duties to be perormed by that person. The licence shall have been issued by the State o Registry o that aircraf or by any other Contracting State and rendered valid by the State o Registry o that aircraf. 5.18 Re-issue o a JAA Licence. The period o validity o a JAA licence is 5 years. Within this period, the licence will be re-issued by the appropriate JAA authority under the ollowing conditions:
• • • •
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Afer initial issue or renewal o a rating When paragraph xii. o the licence document is ull For any administrative reason At the discretion o the JAA member State Authority when a rating is revalidated
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.19 Rendering a Licence Valid. A Contracting State may validate a licence issued by another authority, with the proviso that the period o validity is not to extend beyond the original period o validity o the licence. A JAA licence (and associated ratings etc…) issued in accordance with JAR-FCL is to be accepted without ur ther ormality in any other JAA member state. 5.20 Validation o a Non-JAA licence or use in a JAA State. A non-JAA licence that includes an instrument rating (IR) may be validated or use in a JAA state or a period not exceeding one year providing the basic licence remains valid in the state o licence issue.
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5.21 Credit o Experience. The holder o a non-JAA licence may be credited with theoretical knowledge and/or flying experience at the discretion o the JAA member state authority towards the issue o a comparable JAA licence by that member state. 5.22 Privileges o a Licence. A pilot licence issued by a State grants the holder the privilege to act as a pilot in aircraf registered in that State. A licence (or rating) holder is not permitted to exercise privileges other than those granted by the licence or rating. 5.23 Medical Fitness. The holder o a licence is to hold a medical assessment certificate issued in accordance with the requirements o Annex 1 Chapter 6 (Medical Provisions or Licensing) or in the case o a JAA licence, JAR-FCL part 3. Holders o licences are not to exercise the privileges o their licences i they are aware o any decrease in medical fitness standard (either physical or mental). Licence holders are not to act in any capacity under their licence whilst under the influence o any psychoactive substance. Licence holders are not to engage in any problematic use (or abuse) o substances. Licence holders should seek the advice o an approved aeromedical examiner (AME) beore taking any medication over a prolonged period. 5.24 Validity o Licences. A licence (or rating) is only valid i the necessary ratings or certificates (including a medical certificate) are also valid. A licence or rating holder is to maintain competence and meet the requirements or recent experience required by the licence or rating, including the maintenance o a current medical assessment. 5.25 Recent Experience. A pilot is not to operate an aircraf in commercial air transport or carry passengers:
a. As PIC or Co-pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in an aircraf o the same type or a Full Flight Simulator (FFS) representing that type or class b. As PIC at night unless he/she has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in an aircraf o the same type or a Full Flight Simulator (FFS) representing that type or class or holds an Instrument Rating 5.26 Validity o Ratings. A licence that includes a rating is only valid as long as the rating remains valid. The periods o and methods o maintaining a rating are as ollows: 5.27 Instrument Rating (IR). An IR is valid or a period o 12 months. It may be renewed during the last three months o the period o validity o the rating. I an instrument rating test or renewal o a rating is ailed, the current IR is cancelled.
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.28 Normal Residency. The JAA consider 185 days per year to be required in a JAA country in order to claim residency. 5.29 Class and Type Ratings. Multi-engines class ratings and Type ratings are valid or 12 months. Single-pilot single-engine class ratings (including touring motor glider rating) are valid or 2 years. Ratings are valid rom the date o issue, or the date o expiry i revalidated within the validity period. The method o renewal o ratings is by passing a pilot proficiency (skills) test.
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5.30 Medical Report Periods. Reports o medical fitness are to be submitted at intervals not greater than:
• CPL(A)/ATPL(A) - Class 1: ICAO and JAA: 12 months to age 60 (age 40 i engaged in single-pilot operations), then 6 months thereafer. • MPL - Class 1: ICAO: 12 months to age 60, then 6 months thereafer. • PPL(A)- Class 2: ICAO: 60 months to age 40, then 24 months thereafer (recommended 12 months afer age 50) JAA: 60 months to age 40, then 24 months to age 50, then 12 months thereafer. 5.31 Medical Examination Deerment. Annex 1 permits deerment o a medical examination, at the discretion o the Authority, in the case o a licence holder who is operating in a remote area where medical acilities do not exist. It must be stressed that this is not a JAA acceptable procedure and a pilot exercising the privileges o a JAA licence must have a valid medical certificate in accordance with JAR-FCL-3. The ICAO requirement or a medical examination may be deerred as ollow:
• For a period o 6 months or aircrew not engaged in commercial aviation. • Two consecutive periods o three months or aircrew engaged in commercial air transport providing a avourable report is obtained afer examination or where no approved medical examiner is available a avourable report rom a medical practising physician. Such a report is to be sent to the authority o the State o Licence Issue. • A single period o 24 months or a PPL holder. 5.32 Age. The holder o a pilot licence will not be permitted to act as the pilot o a commercial air transport aircraf once the age o 60 has been reached except when he/she is a member o a multi-pilot crew, and he/she is the only pilot o that crew who has reached the age o 60. 5.33 Age 65. Once the age o 65 is reached, a pilot shall not act as a pilot o an aircraf engaged in commercial air transport. Some JAA states limit this age to 60.
Licences and Ratings for Pilots 5.34 General Requirements. A person is not permitted to act as PIC or co-pilot in the ollowing categories o aircraf unless he/she holds the appropriate licence. Licence categories are:
• • • •
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Aeroplane Helicopter Glider Free balloon
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.35
• • • •
Licence types. Three levels o licence are issued:
Private Pilot Licence (PPL) Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL) Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) Multi-crew Pilot Licence (MPL)
Note: Licences are reerred to by type and category e.g. a commercial pilot licence or an aeroplane is a CPL(A).
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5.36 Aeroplane Class Ratings. Class ratings are to be established or aeroplanes certificated or single-pilot operation and are to comprise:
• • • •
Single-engine, land Single-engine, sea Multi-engine, land Multi-engine, sea
5.37
JAR-FCL Class Rating. Additional ratings are as ollows:
• All touring motor gliders • Each manuacturer o single-engine turboprop land plane • Each manuacturer o single-engine turboprop sea plane 5.38 Type Ratings. Where required, a type rating will be issued afer satisactory completion o a type rating course or the appropriate type o aeroplane and demonstration o the necessary pilot skill in that type. When a type rating is issued limiting the holder to act as copilot only, the rating is to be so endorsed. There is no limit to the number o type (or class) ratings that may be held at any one time, however, the authority suggests that no more than can be maintained saely, should be held simultaneously. 5.39
• • • •
Criteria. The JAR-FCL criteria upon which type ratings are established is as ollows:
Airworthiness type certificate Handling characteristics Certified minimum flight crew complement Level o technology
5.40
Divisions. Type ratings are required or:
• Each type o multi-pilot aeroplane; or • Each type o single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane fitted with turbojet or turboprop engines; or • Each type o single-pilot single-engine aeroplane fitted with a turbojet engine; or • Any other type o aeroplane i considered necessary by the authority. 5.41
ICAO Variations. Annex 1 specifies type ratings or:
• Each type o multi-pilot aircraf; and • Each type o single-pilot operation helicopter; and • Helicopters certified or single-pilot operation (i not covered by a class rating).
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.42 Variants. Within a type rating, difference training may be required or variants o the basic type. I the specific variant has not been flown during a period o 2 years, ur ther difference training is required. 5.43 Multi-pilot Conditions. According to JAR-FCL, an applicant or a multi-pilot typ e rating must have:
• • • •
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Not less than 100 hours as PIC o aeroplanes A valid multi-engine IR(A) A certificate o MCC Completed the theoretical knowledge course and passed the examinations or ATPL(A)
Note:
This requirement is regardless o the type o licence held
5.44 Use o Synthetic Trainers. The licensing authority may approve the use o a synthetic flight trainer or perorming any manoeuvre required or the demonstration o skill or the issue o a licence or rating, afer it has ensured that the trainer is appropriate or the task. 5.45 When an Instrument Rating (IR) is Required. The State o Licence Issue is not to permit a licence holder to act as pilot or co-pilot under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) unless the holder also holds an Instrument Rating (IR) appropriate to the aircraf category. JAR-FCL permits member states to speciy national rules or flight under IFR without an IR(A) e.g. the UK IMC rating, however, such authority is limited to the airspace o that state only. 5.46 Instructor Rating. A Contracting State, having issued a pilot licence, is not to permit the holder to carry out flight instruction or the issue o any licence or rating, unless the holder has received the proper authorization. 5.47 Credit o Flight Time. A student pilot (or the holder o a licence) is entitled to be credited in ull with all solo, dual instruction and PIC flight time towards the total flight time required or the initial issue o a pilot licence or a higher-grade pilot licence. When acting as co-pilot o an aeroplane in which a co-pilot is required the pilot is entitled to count not more than 100% o the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required or a higher-grade licence. A pilot acting as co-pilot perorming as PIC under supervision, can count the ull ho urs towards the total flight time required or a higher-grade licence. 5.48 Student Pilot. Licence Issuing States are to ensure that student pilots do not pose a hazard to navigation. Student pilots are only permitted to fly solo under the super vision o, or with the authorization o, an authorized flight instructor. Student pilots are not permitted to fly solo on international flights unless in accordance with an agreement between the contracting states concerned. A student pilot is not permitted to fly solo unless he/she holds at least a class 2 medical assessment and has attained the age o 16 years.
Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) - PPL(A) 5.49 Age. An applicant or a PPL is to be not less than 17 years o age. Training can be started at any age, but a solo flight is not permitted until the student is 16. 5.50 Knowledge. An applicant or a PPL is required to demonstrate by examination a required level o theoretical knowledge. 5.51 Experience. An applicant or a PPL is to complete not less than 45 hours flight time. Where time in a synthetic trainer is permitted, it is limited to a maximum o 5 hours as part o
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Flight Crew Licensing the required 45 hours. Flight time as pilot in other categories o aircraf may (with authority authorization) be credited. The applicant is required to have completed not less than 10 hours solo which is to include 5 hours o solo cross-country flight time with at least one flight o not less than 270 km (150 NM) which must include a ull stop landing at two different aerodromes. 5.52
Medical Fitness. A PPL(A) holder must hold a current class 2 medical assessment.
5.53 Privileges. The holder o a PPL(A) may act as PIC or co-pilot o any aeroplane engaged in non-revenue (non-commercial) flights. I the privilege is to be exercised at night, the holder is to have received dual instruction in aeroplanes flying at night, including take-offs, landings and navigation.
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Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) - CPL(A) 5.54
Age. An applicant or a CPL(A) is to be not less than 18 years o age.
5.55 Theoretical Knowledge. An applicant or a CPL(A) must have a required level o knowledge, demonstrated by successul passing o examinations, o the ollowing subjects:
• • • • • • • • •
Air Law Aircraf general knowledge Flight perormance and planning Human perormance and limitations Meteorology Navigation Operational Procedures Principles o flight Radiotelephony
5.56 Experience. An applicant or a CPL(A) is to complete not less than 200 hours flight time. Where time in a synthetic trainer is permitted, it is limited to a maximum o 10 hours as part o the required hours. For a student completing an integrated CPL(A) course, at least 150 hours including all progress tests is to be completed within which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Flight time as pilot in other categories o aircraf may (with authority authorization) be credited. The applicant is required to have completed not less than:
• 100 hours as PIC (70 in the case o approved course) • 20 hours cross-country flight time with at least one flight o not less than 540 km (300 NM) which must include a ull stop landing at two different aerodromes. • 10 hours o instrument instruction time o which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. • I the privilege is to be exercised at night, 5 hours night flight time including 5 take-offs and landings as PIC. 5.57
Medical Fitness. A CPL(A) holder must hold a current class 1 medical assessment.
5.58 Privileges. The holder o a CPL(A) is permitted to exercise all the privileges o a PPL(A); to act as PIC o any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transport; to act as PIC in commercial air transport in aeroplanes certificated or single-pilot operation; to act as co-pilot in commercial air transport in aeroplanes that require a co-pilot (JAR-FCL requires
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Flight Crew Licensing a CPL(A) holder to have passed the theoretical knowledge or ATPL(A) prior to starting type rating training or multi-pilot aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transportation). I the privilege is to be exercised at night, the holder is to have received dual instruction in aeroplanes flying at night, including take-offs, landings and navigation.
Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplane) - ATPL(A) 5.59
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Age. An applicant or an ATPL(A) is to be not less than 21 years o age.
5.60 Theoretical Knowledge. An applicant or an ATPL(A) must have knowledge o the same subjects detailed in paragraph 5.55 but to a more demanding level determined by examination. 5.61 Experience. An applicant or an ATPL(A) is to complete not less than 1500 hours flight time and to demonstrate the ability to pilot multi-crew aeroplanes under IFR. Where synthetic trainer time is permitted, it is limited to a maximum o 100 hours as part o the required hours provided that not more than 25 hours have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or a basic instrument trainer. Flight time as pilot in other categories o aircraf may (with authority authorization) be credited. The applicant is required to have completed not less than:
• 500 hours as PIC under supervision or 250 hours, either as PIC or made up by not less than 70 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision. • 200 hours cross-country flight time with not less than 100 hours PIC or co-pilot acting as PIC under supervision provided that the method is approved by the authority. • 75 hours instrument time o which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time. • 100 hours night flight time as PIC or co-pilot. • JAR-FCL additionally requires 500 hours multi-pilot operations in transport, commuter category aeroplanes (or equivalent code). 5.62
Medical Fitness. An ATPL(A) holder must hold a current class 1 medical assessment.
5.63 Privileges. The holder o an ATPL(A) is permitted to exercise all the privileges granted to the holder o a PPL(A) and CPL(A) and o an IR(A); and to act as PIC and co-pilot o any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transport.
Multi-crew Pilot Licence (MPL) 5.64 Concept. ICAO PANS Training defines the MPL as a licence that permits the holder to exercise the privileges o a co-pilot in commercial air transport on multi-crew aeroplanes (aeroplanes which require a flight crew o at least two pilots). It permits pilots to be trained directly as co-pilots rather than under the CPL or ATPL system that trains PICs. 5.65 Limitations. As the licence is designed or co-pilots o multi-crew aeroplanes, the holder o an MPL will not be able to exercise the privilege o the licence on single-pilot operation aeroplanes. 5.66 Licence Specification. The specification or the MPL broadly ollows the example o the JAA ‘rozen’ ATPL(A)
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Flight Crew Licensing Instrument Rating (Aeroplane) (IR(A)) 5.67 Requirements or Issue. The knowledge requirements or an IR(A) are related to the privilege o the rating, specifically, to operations under IFR. T he skill requirement also specifically requires the applicant to demonstrate the ability to operate multi-engine aeroplanes solely with reerence to instruments with one engine inoperative, i a pilot is to fly IFR in such aeroplanes. The regulations permit the use o synthetic trainers to demonstrate skills.
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5.68 Experience. The applicant is to hold a PPL(A) with a night qualification, or a CPL(A), and have completed 50 hours o cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes or helicopters, o which not less than 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
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5.69 Medical. Holders o PPL(A) are required to comply with the hearing requirements or class 1 certification and contracting states should consider requiring the PPL holder to pass the physical, mental and visual requirements o class 1. 5.70 Privileges o an IR(A). Providing the holder o an IR(A) is also the holder o the appropriate licence and is medically fit (certificated), the hol der is permitted to fly aeroplanes under IFR. I a pilot holds both an aeroplane and a helicopter licence, the privilege to fly both types under IFR may be conerred by a single instrument rating. 5.71 Conditions. In states where flight in VMC at night is not permitted, holders o a PPL(A) or a CPL(A) without an IR(A) may (under national rules) be granted a night rating permitting flight at night in VMC under IFR. Additionally, states may (under national rules) grant an IMC rating permitting flight outside controlled airspace (which may include exemptions or flight in some CTRs) in meteorological conditions less than VMC during daytime, to pilots wi thout an IR(A).
Instructor and Examiner Rating 5.72
• • • • • •
Instructor Categories. There are six categories o aeroplane instructor ratings:
Flight Instructor – Aeroplane (FI(A)) Type Rating Instructor – Aeroplane (TRI(A)) Class Rating Instructor – Aeroplane (CRI(A)) Instrument Rating Instructor – Aeroplane (IRI(A)) Synthetic Flight Instructor – Aeroplane (SFI(A)) Multi-crew Co-operation Course Instructor - Aeroplane (MCCI(A))
5.73 Prerequisites. All instructors are required to hold at least the licence, rating or qualification or which instruction is given and shall be entitled to act as PIC o the aeroplane during such instruction. 5.74
Period o Validity. Instructor ratings are valid or 3 years.
5.75 Flight Instructor Rating - Aeroplane (FI(A)). The ollowing are the conditions which apply to the granting o an FI(A) rating:
• Minimum age 18 • Must be supervised until: • Completed 100 hours o instruction • Supervised 25 student solo flights
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.76 Prerequisites. Beore beginning the course o training or an FI(A) rating the applicant is to have:
• A CPL(A) or 200 hours flight time o which 150 as PIC i holding a PPL(A) • The theoretical knowledge o a CPL(A) holder • Completed 30 hours in single-engine piston powered aeroplanes with at least 5 hours in the last six months • Received at least 10 hours o instruction (o which not more than 5 is instrument ground time) • Completed at least 20 hours o cross-country as PIC (distance and landings as per CPL(A)) • Passed a pre-entry flight test
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5.77 Unrestricted Privileges. The ollowing are the unrestricted privileges o an FI(A) (with specific experience conditions as per JAR-FCL 1.330). To conduct flight instruction or:
• • • • • • • •
The issue o a PPL(A) The issue o class and type ratings or single-engine aeroplanes The issue o a CPL(A) - 500 hours flight time, 200 hours instructional are necessary Instruction at night providing a night qualification is held The issue o an IR(A) or single-engine aeroplanes The issue o an IR(A) or multi-engine aeroplanes The issue o single-pilot multi-engine type or class ratings The issue o an FI(A) rating
5.78
• • • • •
Examiners. Five roles o an examiner are recognized:
Flight examiner (FE(A)). Type rating examiner (TRE(A))/Synthetic flight examiner (SFE(A)). Class rating examiner (CRE(A)). Instrument rating examiner (IRE(A)). Flight instructor examiner (FIE(A)).
5.79 Requirement. Examiners shall hold a licence and rating at least equal to the licence or rating or which they are authorized to conduct skills tests or proficiency checks and, unless specified otherwise, the privilege to instruct or this licence or rating. 5.80 Period o Validity. An examiner’s authorization is valid or not more than three years. Examiners are re-authorized at the discretion o the Authority.
JAR-FCL 3 Medical Requirements 5.81 Requirement. In order to apply or, or to exercise the privileges o, a licence, the applicant or the holder shall hold a medical certificate issued in accordance with the provisions o JAR-FCL 3 (Medical) and appropriate to the privileges o the licence. The holder o a medical certificate shall be mentally and physically fit to saely exercise the privileges o the applicable licence. 5.82 JAR-FCL Medical Certificates. JAR-FCL defines two classes o medical assessment certificates or pilots:
• Class 1 or commercial pilots (CPL and ATPL) • Class 2 or private pilots (PPL)
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.83
ICAO Medical Certificates. ICAO defines three medical assessment classes:
• Class 1 or commercial pilot licence and flight engineer and navigator licences • Class 2 or private pilot licences (including glider and ree balloon) • Class 3 or Air Traffic Controllers 5.84 Aeromedical Disposition. Afer completion o the examination the applicant shall be advised whether fit, unfit or reerred to the Authority. The authorized medical examiner (AME) shall inorm the applicant o any condition(s) (medical, operational or otherwise) that may restrict flying training and/or the privileges o any licence issued. In the event that a restricted medical certificate is issued which limits the holder to exercise pilot-in-command privileges only when a saety pilot is carried, the authority will give advisory inormation or use by the saety pilot in determining the unction and responsibilities.
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g n i s n e c i L w e r C t h g i l F
5.85 Periodic Medical Examination. The annual medical examination is effectively a health check and takes into account the aging process since the issue o the original certificate. Providing the pilot has medical examinations at the required intervals, the aging process will be taken into account. Under the JAA regulations, extensions (deerment o medical examination) o medical certificate validity are not permitted. 5.86 Decrease in Medical Fitness. Licence holders are not to exercise the privileges o their licences i they are aware that they are unwell. In such circumstances they are to seek the advice o the Authority or AME. Such circumstances are:
• • • •
Hospital or clinic admission or more than 12 hours Surgical operation or invasive procedure The regular use o medication The need or regular use o correcting lenses
5.87 Operational Multi-crew Limitation (OML). In the circumstance where a commercial pilot does not ully meet the requirements or the issue o a class 1 certificate, the certificate may be annotated with the limitation ‘valid only as or with qualified co-pilot’. In such a case, the other pilot must be qualified on type, not be over 60 and not be subject to an OML. 5.88
Medical Conditions. Every licence holder who is aware o:
• Any significant personal injury involving incapacity to unction as flight crew • Any illness involving incapacity to act as flight crew throughout a period o 21 days or more • Being pregnant Shall inorm the authority in writing o such injury or pregnancy, and as soon as the period o 21 days has elapsed in the case o illness. The medical certificate shall be deemed to be suspended upon the occurrence o one o the above. In the case o injury or illness, the suspension shall be lifed on being pronounced fit afer a medical examination. The authority may exempt the holder rom such an examination. In the case o pregnancy, the suspension may be lifed or such period by the Authority and subject to such conditions as it thinks fit and shall cease upon the holder being medically examined afer the pregnancy has ended and being pronounced fit. I this procedure is complied with, the medical certificate shall be suspended (cannot expire) during the period o illness or injury and will be reinstated once the crew member becomes fit.
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.89 Suspension o Medical Certificate. Provided the authority is notified immediately in the event o injury or when pregnancy is diagnosed, or on the 21st day o prolonged illness, the medical certificate o the holder will be suspended until the holder is passed as fit to resume aircrew duty. At this point the certificate will be reinstated with a remaining validity period equal to that extant at the time that it was suspended. Afer a emale pilot has been diagnosed as pregnant, she may be permitted to continue flying duty until such a date as the medical authority deems that it is no longer prudent or the health o the embryonic baby or the mother to continue to be engaged in flying duty. Afer delivery and afer a medical examination, she will then be declared fit to resume duty at which point the certificate will be reinstated.
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F l i g h t C r e w L i c e n s i n g
5.90 Validity o Medical Certificates. A medical certificate is valid rom the date o the initial general medical examination. It may be renewed during the period o validity or as below. I a licence holder allows the certificate to expire by more than 5 years, renewal will require initial or extended aeromedical examination (at AME’s discretion). Such an examination shall be carried out at an AMC which has obtained the certificate holder’s medical records. I the certificate has expired by more than 2 years but less than 5 years, a standard or extended examination will be required at an AMC or by an AME (i approved by the AMS) subject to the records o medical examinations being made available. I the certificate expires by more than 90 days but less than 2 years, a standard or extended examination perormed at an AMC or by an AME (i approved by the AMS) will be required. I a certificate has expired by less than 90 days, renewal shall be possible by standard or extended examination as prescribed. 5.91 45-Day rule. I the medical revalidation is taken up to 45 days prior to the expiry date, the validity o the new certificate extends rom the previous certificate expiry date. In other words, i your certificate expires on 31st December and you have your annual medical no earlier than 15th November, the new certificate will be valid rom 1st January until the next 31st December. However, i you have a medical on 1 November, the certificate will be valid rom 1st November until the ollowing 31st October.
Pilot Proficiency 5.92 Pilot Proficiency Checks. Pilots are required to demonstrate piloting technique and the ability to execute emergency procedures and these skills shall be checked. Where flight under IFR is required, the checks required are to be carried out twice a year with any two similar checks not conducted within our months. 5.93 Base and Line Checks. According to both ICAO and JARs, operators are required to carry out checks o pilot proficiency at regular intervals. They are known as base and line checks and are usually coincident with other proficiency checks carried out or validation o type ratings and instrument ratings.
EASA Theoretical Knowledge Examinations 5.94 Requirement. Applicants or a JAA proessional pilot licence or an instrument rating are required to demonstrate a level o knowledge app ropriate to the privileges o the licence or rating by means o success in passing examinations. The examination is to be set in a language considered appropriate by the authority. The ormat o the examination is to be by multiple choice answer ormat set by computer rom a central question bank (CQB).
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Flight Crew Licensing 5.95 Pass Standards. The pass mark is 75%. All the examinations must be passed within a period o 18 months rom the end o the calendar month in which the first examination was attempted. All previous examination passes will be rendered invalid i a candidate ails one particular subject at the ourth attempt. All previous examination passes will be rendered invalid i a candidate ails to record a pass in all subjects within either 6 sittings or the above mentioned 18 month period. 5.96 Acceptance Period. A pass in the theoretical knowledge examinations will be accepted or the granting o a CPL(A) or IR(A) during the 36 months rom the date o gaining a pass in all the required subjects. Providing that an IR(A) is obtained within the 36 months stated above, a pass in the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations will remain valid or a period o 7 years rom the last validity date o the IR(A) entered in the CPL(A) or the issue o an ATPL(A).
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g n i s n e c i L w e r C t h g i l F
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5
Questions Questions 1.
According to JAR-FCL class ratings shall be established or single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating including:
a. b. c.
5
Q u e s t i o n s
d. 2.
Which o the ollowing is the privilege o the holder o a CPL(A)?
a. b. c. d. 3.
Maximum o 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer. Maximum o 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer. Maximum o 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer. Maximum o 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer.
What is the night flying hours requirement or an ATPL(A) licence?
a. b. c. d.
84
The 12 month period reduces to 6 months. The 24 month period reduces to 12 months. The 6 month period reduces to 3 months. The 9 month period reduces to 3 months.
You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required or an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited?
a. b. c. d. 6.
18 21 16 23
When you are over 60 and the holder o an ATPL(A), how ofen are you required to have a medical examination?
a. b. c. d. 5.
To act as PIC o any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation. To act as PIC o any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation. To act as PIC o any aircraf certificated or single-pilot operation other than commercial air transportation. To act as co-pilot o any aircraf engaged in commercial air transport operations.
What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges o a CPL licence?
a. b. c. d 4.
all touring motor gliders. all types o single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine. microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control suraces acting in all three dimensions. any other type o aeroplane i considered necessary.
75 hours PIC. 100 hours PIC or co-pilot. 100 hours PIC. 75 hours PIC or co-pilot.
5
Questions 7.
One o the privileges o the holder o a CPL(A) is to:
a. b. c. d. 8.
Included in the requirements or 1500 hours, an ATPL(A) holder must have:
a. b. c. d. 9.
15 hrs. 20 hrs. 25 hrs. 35 hrs.
Class 2. As required by particular state. Class 1. JAR Class A (as rom 1 Jan 2001).
The holder o a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision o the PIC and perorming the unctions and duties o the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a. b. c. d. 13.
Afer the period o 21 days o illness has elapsed. On the 21st day o the illness. Afer a month. Afer medical has expired.
What medical is required or the issue o a CPL(A)?
a. b. c. d. 12.
s n o i t s e u Q
500 hours multi-pilot operations in transport, commuter or equivalent category aircraf. 500 hours multi-pilot operations and 250 hours as PIC. 500 hours multi-pilot operations including up to 150 hours flight engineering time. 500 hours multi-pilot operations including 200 hours night time.
To obtain a CPL(A), how many hours o cross-country flying are required?
a. b. c. d. 11.
5
When are you required to tell the authorities o an illness?
a. b. c. d. 10.
act as co-pilot o aircraf in commercial air transport operations. act as PIC o single engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport operations. act as a flying instructor. act as PIC o aeroplanes involved in operations other than commercial air transportation.
with 50% o the flight time towards the total time required or a higher grade o licence. in ull, but not more than 300 hrs towards the total time required or a higher grade o licence. the flight time in ull towards the total time required or a higher grade o licence. the flight time in ull towards the total time required or a higher grade o pilot licence according to the requirements o the licensing authority.
For an ATPL(A), how many night hours are required?
a. b. c. d.
30 75 100 150
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5
Questions 14.
For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required, and how many o these must be as pilot-in-command?
a. b. c. d. 5
15.
Q u e s t i o n s
How long would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital beore you would have to inorm the authorities?
a. b. c. d. 16.
c. d.
100 hours PIC or SPIC. 20 hours cross-country as PIC including a cross-country flight not less than 540 km (300 NM) in the course o which ull stop landings are made at two different aerodromes. 25 hours including at least one flight o 2 hours duration covering at least 300 NM and to include 2 ull stop landings. 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 NM with at least two ull stop landings.
What is the minimum age or a holder o a PPL?
a. b. c. d.
86
Not less than 6 months. 12 months rom the date o validation. 12 months providing the licence is still valid in the State o Issue. Not more than 3 months.
Which o the ollowing correctly identifies the cross-country hours requirement or a CPL(A)?
a. b.
20.
21 - 60 21 - 59 18 - 59 18 - 60
How long would a non-JAA licence be valid or i validated or use in a JAA state?
a. b. c. d. 19.
Once you have passed a competency check. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo. When you have completed 25 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo. When you have completed 100 hours solo.
Between what ages can you exercise the privileges o an ATPL(A) on an unrestricted basis?
a. b. c. d. 18.
24 hrs or more. Not less than 20 days. More than 12 hours. 12 days or more.
When you are a newly qualified flying instructor you have to be supervised by a qualified flying instructor. When will the period o supervision cease?
a. b. c. d. 17.
200/100 200/75 150/75 250/75
16 17 18 21
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Questions 21.
What is the period o validity o a JAR-FCL class 2 medical?
a. b. c. d. 22.
A PPL(A) or Commercial licence holder, beore taking his/her Instrument Rating, must have completed ................. hours o cross-country o which .............hours must be in an aeroplane ?
a. b. c. d. 23.
d.
Amphibian Seaplane Multi-engine Multi-engine
all engines running only one engine inoperative one engine inoperative all engines running
100 100 100 75
15 20 25 25
Each type o multi-engine aircraf. Each type o single-pilot multi-engine turbine. Each type o micro-light with fixed wings and able to move its suraces in three dimensions. Each type o touring motor glider.
To have an unrestricted FI(A) rating and to instruct or the issue o a CPL(A) or a PPL(A), you must have a CPL(A) or:
a. b. c. d. 27.
15 10 15 10
Which o the ollowing types o aircraf requires a type rating?
a. b. c.
26.
s n o i t s e u Q
O the 1500 hours required experience or an ATPL(A). ……… hours may be in a simulator but not more than ……. hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.
a. b. c. d. 25.
50 50 40 40
5
A PPL(A) holder shall demonstrate competence or an IR(A) in a………… aircraf type with ………………. .?
a. b. c. d. 24.
24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months thereafer. 24 months until age 30, then 12 months until 50, then 6 months thereafer. 60 months until age 40, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months thereafer. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months thereafer.
at least 250 hours as a pilot. not less than 15 hours in the last 12 months on the relevant type. at least 200 hours o flight instruction. 200 hours flight time o which not less than 150 hours is PIC.
According to JAR-FCL, what classes o medical exist?
a. b. c. d.
Class 1 only. Classes 1 and 2. Classes 1, 2 and 3. Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4.
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5
Questions 28.
According to JAR-FCL, a single-engine class rating is valid or:
a. b. c. d. 29.
5
The validity o a multi-engine class rating or a type rating shall be 1 year rom:
a. b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
30.
The date o the initial general medical examination. The date the certificate is delivered to the pilot. The date o licence issue. The date o the revalidation o the licence.
Which o the ollowing annexes o the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification or a crew member’s licence to be recognized by Contracting States?
a. b. c. d.
88
PIC o any aircraf in non-commercial aviation. PIC in any single-engine aeroplane engaged in commercial aviation. PIC o any single-pilot aeroplane engaged in commercial aviation. PIC in any aircraf or which he/she is class/type rated engaged in noncommercial aviation.
From what date is a medical certificate valid?
a. b. c. d. 34.
500 PIC, or 300 PIC and 200 as co-pilot acting as PIC under supervision. 200 PIC, or 100 PIC and 100 as co-pilot acting as PIC under supervision. 250 PIC, or 150 PIC and 100 as co-pilot acting as PIC under supervision. 500 hrs as PIC under supervision or 250 hrs, either as PIC, or made up by not less than 70 hrs as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision.
A pilot holding a CPL(A) can act as:
a. b. c. d. 33.
hold a PPL(A) with instrument rating. have passed the CPL theoretical knowledge exams and hold an FI(A) rating. hold a CPL(A)/IR(A). hold an ATPL(A).
For a pilot to hold an ATPL(A), the hours required are:
a. b. c. d. 32.
date o issue or the date o expiry i revalidated within the validity period. date o application received by the authority. date o skills test. date o medical examination.
In order to carry out PPL(A) instruction you must:
a. b. c. d. 31.
2 years. 2 years up to the age o 40 then 1 year thereafer. 5 years afer licence issue. 1 year.
Annex 2. Annex 3. Annex 1. Annex 4.
5
Questions 35.
For the holder o a commercial pilot’s licence or single-pilot fixed-wing and helicopters who has attained the age o 40, the period between medical reports decreases rom:
a. b. c. d.
12 months to 6 months. 60 months to 24 months. 24 months to 6 months. 24 months to 12 months. 5
36.
An applicant or an ATPL(A) or aircraf shall have at least:
a. b. c. d. 37.
5 hours o night flight including 3 take-offs and 5 landings as PIC. 5 hours o night flight including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as PIC. 5 hours o night flight including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as PIC or co-pilot. 5 hours o night flight including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as PIC or co-pilot.
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid or:
a. b. c. d. 40.
150 hours flight time o which 5 hours may be instrument ground time. 150 hours flight time. 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time. 200 hours flight time.
I an applicant or a CPL(A) wishes to exercise the privileges o the licence at night, flight experience will include:
a. b. c. d. 39.
100 hours night flying purely as PIC. 75 hours night flying as PIC or as co-pilot. 100 hours night flying as PIC or as co-pilot. 75 hours night flying as PIC.
A CPL(A) applicant undergoing an integrated course o flight training shall have completed:
a. b. c. d. 38.
s n o i t s e u Q
one year. two years. the period o validity o the licence. indefinitely.
When acting as co-pilot o an aeroplane that requires a co-pilot, the pilot shall be entitled to credit not more than:
a. b. c. d.
40% o the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required or a higher grade o licence. 60% o the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required or a higher grade o licence. 100 hours o the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required or a higher grade o licence. 100% o the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required or a higher grade o licence.
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5
Questions 41.
An applicant or a CPL(A) shall have completed in aeroplanes, not less than:
a. b. c. d. 5
42.
Q u e s t i o n s
The holders o pilot licences are required to inorm the authority i, through illness, they are unable to undertake those unctions to which the licence relates throughout a certain number o days. The number o days is:
a. b. c. d. 43.
b. c. d.
b. c. d.
100 hours o which not more than 15 hours have been completed in a flight procedures trainer or basic instrument trainer. 75 hours o which not more than 20 hours have been completed in a flight procedures trainer or basic instrument trainer. 100 hours o which not more than 25 hours have been completed in a flight procedures trainer or basic instrument trainer. 100 hours o which not more than 20 hours have been completed in a flight procedures trainer or basic instrument trainer.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant or an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) with a night qualification, or a CPL(A), and have completed at least 50 hours:
a. b. c. d. 90
a current class 3 medical assessment. a current class 2 medical assessment. a current class 1 medical assessment. a current medical assessment to a level prescribed by the authority o the state o licence issue.
How many synthetic flight trainer hours may be included by an applicant or an ATPL(A) as part o the 1500 hours necessary experience?
a.
46.
20 hours cross country with one flight including 2 ull stop landings over a total distance o 270 km (150 NM). 20 hours cross country with one flight including 2 ull stop landings over a total distance o 540 km (300 NM). 10 hours cross country with one flight including 2 ull stop landings over a total distance o 270 km (150 NM). 15 hours cross country with one flight including 2 ull stop landings over a total distance o 540 km (300 NM).
An applicant or a CPL(A) shall hold:
a. b c. d. 45.
14 21 28 30
The cross-country requirement or the issue o a CPL(A) is to include:
a.
44.
200 hours o flight time including 70 hours as PIC. 150 hours o flight time including 100 hours as PIC. 200 hours o flight time or 150 hours i completed during an integrated course o approved training as a pilot o aeroplanes. 200 hours o flight time including 80 hours as PIC.
instructional time as student PIC o aeroplanes or helicopters o which at least 10 hours is to be in aeroplanes. cross-country time as PIC o aeroplanes or helicopters o which at least 10 hours is to be in aeroplanes. cross-country time as a pilot o aeroplanes or helicopters o which at least 10 hours is to be in aeroplanes. instructional time as student PIC o aeroplanes.
5
Questions 47.
For which o the ollowing are type ratings established?
a. b. c. d. 48.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment o separate type rating or aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis o three criteria. One o these criteria is that the aeroplane has:
a. b. c. d. 49.
c. d.
Annex 3. Annex 4. Annex 1. Annex 2.
an aeroplane requiring a certificate o airworthiness. an aeroplane with a certificate o airworthiness issued by the state o licence issue. an aeroplane that requires multi-pilot operation. an aeroplane that requires additional skills training.
FI(A); TRI(A); CRI(A); IRI(A) only. FI(A); CRI(A) only. FI(A); TRI(A) only. FI(A); TRI(A); CRI(A); IRI(A); MCCI(A) and SFI(A) only.
When a state renders valid a licence issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance o its own licence, the period o validity shall:
a. b. c. d. 53.
handling characteristics that require the use o more than one crew member. a certificate o airworthiness issued by a non-JAA state. a certificate o airworthiness issued by the manuacturer. handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training.
According to JAR-FCL, recognized instructor categories are:
a. b. c. d. 52.
s n o i t s e u Q
A type rating is applicable to:
a. b.
51.
5
Which annex to the Chicago Convention contains minimum specifications or a crew licence to have international validity?
a. b. c. d. 50.
Each type o multi-pilot aeroplane. Each type o single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane fitted with turbine engines. Any type o aircraf whenever considered necessary by the authority. All the above answers are correct.
not extend beyond 15 days afer the validity o the licence. not extend beyond the period o validity o the licence. be at the discretion o the validating state. be at the discretion o ICAO.
An applicant or a JAR-FCL ATPL(A) has to demonstrate the ability to pilot:
a. b. c. d.
training aircraf. multi-crew aircraf requiring a Flight Engineer. multi-crew aeroplanes under IFR. night flights with passengers on board.
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Questions 54.
A pilot is not to operate an aircraf as PIC or co-pilot in CAT or carry passengers unless he/she has carried out at least:
a. b. c. d. 5
55.
Q u e s t i o n s
A pilot is not to operate an aircraf as PIC at night in CAT or carry passengers at night unless he/she has carried out at least:
a. b. c. d.
92
5 take-offs and landings in the preceding 90 days 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in the preceding 90 days 5 take-offs, approaches and landings in the preceding 90 days 5 take-offs, approaches and landings in the preceding 60 days
1 take-off, approach and landing at night in the preceding 90 days or holds an Instrument Rating 5 take-offs, approaches and landings at night in the preceding 90 days or holds an Instrument Rating 3 take-offs, approaches and landings at night in the preceding 90 days or holds an Instrument Rating 3 take-offs, approaches and landings at night in the preceding 60 days or holds an Instrument Rating
5
Questions
5
s n o i t s e u Q
93
5
Answers
Answers
5
A n s w e r s
94
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
a
a
a
a
c
b
d
a
a
b
c
c
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
c
a
c
b
b
c
b
b
c
b
c
c
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
b
d
b
a
a
b
d
c
a
c
a
c
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
a
b
a
d
c
b
b
c
c
b
d
a
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
c
c
d
b
c
b
a
Chapter
6 Rules of the Air
History . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .97 Applicability o the Rules o the Air . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .97 General Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .99 Visual Flight Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 117 Instrument Flight Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 118 Semi-circular Flight Level Rules and RVSM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 120 Special VFR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121 Restricted, Prohibited or Danger Areas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 123 Signals or Aerodrome Traffic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124 Marshalling Signals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 132 Flight Deck Signals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 139 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
140
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
148
95
6
Rules of the Air
6 R u l e s o f t h e A i r
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Rules of the Air History 6.1 Education. The rules o the air, like the rules o the road, have evolved as aviation has advanced. Initially, aircraf flew without radios (radio hadn’t been invented or when it had, there wasn’t an aeroplane big enough to carry the equipment!). Simple rules evolved to attempt to reduce the risk o collisions. Remember, in 1920 an aeroplane flying at 80 or 90 kt was travelling at a previously unimagined speed. Visual signals were required at aerodromes to convey inormation to pilots and procedures evolved to allow orderly flight in the vicinity o aerodromes and to permit visual navigation en route. Between the 1920s and WWII, individual states passed legislation to enorce the rules that had become established in those states. With the expansion o commercial aviation during and afer the war, the need or standardization in the rules was evident and this was one topic that was seriously addressed at Chicago in 1944.
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Applicability of the Rules of the Air 6.2 Annex 2. Annex 2 o the Chicago Convention details the ICAO Rules o the Air. As mentioned above, the rules were primarily written in the early days or non-radio traffic and some o the requirements may now seem out o date. However, there is still a considerable amount o non-radio traffic in general aviation and those airmen are equally entitled to the protection afforded to commercial air transport, and o cour se, there is always the possibility o communication ailure. The ICAO Rules o the Air apply to aircraf bearing the nationality and registration marks o an ICAO Contracting State, wherever they may be, providing they do not conflict with the rules published by the State having jurisdiction o the territory overflown. The ICAO Council resolved in adopting Annex 2 in April 1948 and Amendment 1 in November 1951, that the ICAO Rules apply without exception over the high seas. (High Seas are defined as the areas o sea outside the territorial limits o any State.) When an aircraf is flying within the airspace o the state o registration, the rules o the air o that state (in the UK as published in CAP 393 - The ANO) are applicable. Indeed, or a UK registered aeroplane, the UK rules apply wherever the aeroplane is flown providing there is no confliction with local rules. Where a UK registered aircraf is flying over a oreign state, the rules o the air o that state apply. Do not conuse Rules with Law! The application o the rules can be summarized thus:
• UK registered aircraf over the UK - UK rules apply • UK registered aircraf over France - French and UK rules apply (French have priority) • UK registered aircraf over the high seas - ICAO rules apply without exception
6.3 Applicable Rules. The operation o an aeroplane either in flight or on the movement area o an aerodrome is to be in accordance with the general rules and, when in flight, either:
• The visual flight rules (VFR) , i the aircraf is flown in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) or • The instrument flight rules (IFR)
6.4 IFR or VFR? A pilot may elect to fly in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules in VMC (he/she may be required to do so by the ATS Authority in certain circumstances). A pilot must fly in accordance with the IFR in IMC. I a pilot elects to fly VFR he/she must do so only where VMC exist.
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Rules of the Air 6.5 Visual Meteorological Conditions. To fly under VFR, the visual meteorological conditions (VMC) must exist. This is defined by altitude (or Flight Level), flight visibility (the orward visibility rom the flight deck o an aeroplane in flight), and distance (horizontally and vertically) rom cloud, or the relevant classes o airspace. Classes o airspace are discussed ully in Chapter 14 - Airspace but basically, speciy what rules are permitted and what t ype o control (i any) is applied by the Air Traffic Service. It is imperative that you know the VMC.
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Figure 6.1 8 km At and above FL100 or 10 000 ft Below
CLASSES F and G airspace
Flight Visibility
5 km Flight Visibility
1000 ft (300 m)
1500 m 1000 ft (300 m)
3000 ft 5 km* * Visibility may be reduced commensurate with aircraft speed
Clear of cloud and in sight of the ground (CCISG)
Figure 6.2
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Rules of the Air 6.6 VMC Criteria Classes A, B, C, D and E Airspace. At and above 10 000 f (FL100) the flight visibility requirement is 8 km with 300 m (1000 f) vertically, and 1500 m horizontally rom cloud. Below 10 000 f (FL100) the flight visibility requirement is reduced to 5 km. 6.7 VMC Criteria Classes F and G Airspace. At and above 10 000 f (FL100) the flight visibility requirement is 8 km with 300 m (1000 f) vertically, and 1500 m horizontally rom cloud. Below 10 000 f (FL100) but above 3000 f, the flight visibility requirement is reduced to 5 km. Below 3000 f AMSL and within 1000 f o the surace (where surace elevation is above 3000 f) the flight visibility remains 5 km but VMC would exist i the aircraf was clear o cloud and within sight o the surace. 6.8
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Pilot-in-command Responsibilities. Definitions:
• Commander: A designated pilot amongst the flight crew who is qualified as pilot-incommand who may delegate the conduct o the flight to another qualified pilot. • Pilot-in-command (PIC): A pilot who is responsible or the operation and saety o the aeroplane during flight time. • Pilot Flying (PF): The pilot, who or the time being, is in charge o the controls o the aeroplane. • Pilot not Flying (PNF): The pilot who is assisting the pilot flying in accordance with the multi-crew co-operation concept, when the required flight crew is more than one. 6.9 Responsibilities. Beore beginning a flight, the pilot-in-command shall become amiliar with all inormation appropriate to the intended operation. Pre-flight action or flights away rom an aerodrome and or all IFR flights, shall include a careul study o available current weather reports and orecasts, taking into consideration uel requirements and an alternative course o action i the flight cannot be completed as planned. The commander o an aeroplane has the final authority as to the disposition o the aircraf whilst in command. Note: The Rules o the Air may only be broken i absolutely necessary in the interests o flight saety. 6.10 Intoxicating Liquor, Narcotics or Drugs. No person is to pilot an aircraf, or act as a flight crew member o an aircraf, whilst under the influence o intoxicating liquor, any narcotic or drug, by reason o which that person’s capacity to act is impaired. ICAO does not lay down any restrictions or maximum blood/alcohol levels or aircrew. However, JAR OPS1 does. Aircrew are not permitted to exercise the privileges o their licences with a blood/ alcohol level exceeding 0.2 promille (20 mg/100 ml) about one quarter o the UK driving limit. ICAO clearly states that no person may act as aircrew i he/she is under the effect o any psychotropic substance. As proessional pilots, you are expected to behave in an adult manner commensurate with the responsibility placed on your shoulders concerning the saety o the passengers in your care. This is an onerous duty which, i it is abused, will result in the ull orce o the law being applied i you are ound negligent in that duty.
General Rules 6.11 Minimum Heights. Except when necessary or take-off or landing, or except by permission o the appropriate authority, aircraf shall not be flown over the congested areas o cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air gathering o persons, unless at such a height as will permit, in the event o an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surace. No specific heights are mentioned and this rule should not be conused with the minimum height rules or IFR or VFR. Note: The term “aircraf level” is used generally to mean flight level, altitude, or height. 99
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© K Boxall Figure 6.3 An aircraf must be flown at a height rom which, in the event o an emergency, a landing can be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surace.
6.12 Cruising Levels. For flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, above the transition altitude, flights shall be conducted in terms o flight levels. For flights below the lowest usable flight level or where applicable, at or below the transition altitude, flights shall be conducted in terms o altitude.
Figure 6.4
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6.13 Proximity and Right o Way. An aircraf shall not be operated in such proximity to other aircraf as to create a collision hazard. The aircraf that has the right o way shall maintain its heading and speed, but the PIC is still responsible or avoiding collisions (including ACAS alerts). Aircraf which are obliged to give way are to do so and avoid passing over, under or in ront o the other unless it is well clear, and to take into account the effect o wake turbulence. 6.14 Approaching Head On. When two aircraf are approaching head on, and there is a danger o collision, each shall alter course to the right. Neither has right o way. 6 r i A e h t f o s e l u R
Figure 6.5
Figure 6.6
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Rules of the Air 6.15 Converging. When two aircraf o the same type (see definition o aircraf) are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraf that has the other on its right shall give way. In order not to fly over, under or pass in ront o the other aircraf, the aircraf that is obliged to give way should pass behind the other aircraf. In order to achieve this, the aircraf giving way should turn right. Where the two aircraf are not o the same type, the ollowing order o priority will apply, and again, the method o giving way is to turn to the right:
• Power driven heavier than air aircraf (aeroplanes) shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons • Power driven lighter than air aircraf (airships) shall give way to gliders and balloons • Gliders shall give way to balloons • Power driven aircraf shall give way to aircraf which are seen to be towing other aircraf or objects.
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( Note: A towing combination is considered to be a single flying machine (not ICAO definition) under the control o the pilot-in-command o the towing aircraf).
Figure 6.7
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Figure 6.8
6.16 Overtaking. An overtaking aircraf is an aircraf that approaches another rom the rear on a line orming an angle o less than 70° with the plane o symmetry o the latter (at night, the approaching aircraf would see the white tail light o the aircraf in ront). An aeroplane that is being overtaken has the right o way and the overtaking aircraf whether climbing or descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out o the way o the other aircraf by altering its heading to the right and to maintain this position with regard to the other aircraf until well clear. SEE THE WHITE LIGHT – OVERTAKE ON THE RIGHT
70°
COLLISION AVOIDANCE AND LIGHTS
Figure 6.9
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Rules of the Air 6.17 Landing. An aircraf in flight, or operating on the ground (or water), shall give way to aircraf landing or in the final stages o an approach to land (see definition). When two or more heavier than air aircraf are approaching an aerodrome to land, the aircraf at the higher level shall give way to the aircraf at the lower level, but the lower aircraf must not take advantage o this rule to ‘cut in’ in ront o another aircraf. In any event, power driven heavier than air aircraf shall give way to gliders. 6.18 Emergency Landing. An aircraf that is aware that another aircraf is in an emergency and is compelled to land, shall give way to that aircraf.
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6.19 Taking Off. An aircraf taxiing on the manoeuvring area shall give way to aircraf taking off or about to take off.
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6.20 Stop Bars. An aircraf taxiing on the manoeuvring area shall s top and hold at all lighted stop bars (used in poor visibility) and may only proceed when the lights are switched off. 6.21 Surace Movement o Aircraf. In the case o danger o collision between two aircraf taxiing on the movement area (see definition) o an aerodrome, the ollowing shall apply:
• Approaching head on. Both stop or where practicable alter course to the right to keep well clear. • Converging. The one that has the other on its right shall give way. (Stop or turn to pass behind). • Overtaking. The aircraf being overtaken has the right o way. The overtaking aircraf is to keep well clear o the other aircraf. Note: ICAO (Annex 2) states that any vehicle operating regularly on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome must be in two-way radio contact with ATC. The UK ANO (Rules o the Air - Rule 37) requires all vehicles and aircraf moving on the manoeuvring area to give way to vehicles towing aircraf. 6.22 Aircraf Lights The systems o displaying navigation lights, anti-collision lights and other lights designed to draw attention to the presence o an aircraf, are covered in Operational Procedures. However, you may be asked questions in the Air Law exam on this subject. The law in this matter is restricted to when you must have the lights fitted and when they must be on.
Figure 6.10
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6.23 Lights Displayed by Aircraf. The ollowing lights, required to be shown by aircraf, are to be illuminated rom sunset to sunrise (see definition) or during any other period specified by the appropriate authority:
• Anti-collision lights intended to attract attention to the aircraf • Navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path o the aircraf to an observer. No other lights shall be displayed i they are likely to be mistaken or these lights. 6.24
Sunset to Sunrise (or during any other period required by the appropriate authority): 6
• All aircraf moving on the movement area o an aerodrome shall display navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path o the aircraf to an observer. No other lights shall be displayed i they are likely to be mistaken or these lights. • All aircraf on the movement area o an aerodrome are to display lights that indicate the extremities o their structure, unless stationary and otherwise adequately illuminated. (Aircraf parked on the Apron (see definition) will be adequately illuminated because an Apron is required to be lit i it is to be used at night. It is usual to use ‘glim’ lamps to mark the extremities o aeroplanes parked off the Apron).
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6.25 Engines Running. All aircraf on the movement area o an aerodrome are to display lights intended to attract attention to the aircraf. Aeroplanes with engines running are to display lights to indicate that act. Red anti-collision lights will suffice or this purpose. Note: It is usual to indicate that an aeroplane is manned by operating the anti-collision light. This serves to warn all personnel that the engines may be star ted. 6.26 Anti-collision Lights. All aircraf in flight which are fitted with anti-collision lights shall display the lights by day as well as by night. (This is in addition to 6.23, bullet point 1 above and is intended to ensure that i anti-collision lights are fitted but are not specifically required by law, then these lights are also to be illum inated by day as well as night.) 6.27 Saety. A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity o any flashing lights i they are likely to adversely affect the satisactory perormance o duties, or subject an outside observer to harmul dazzle. 6.28 Simulated IMC. (Definition: Reducing the orward visibility o the Pilot Flying (PF) so that he/she has to rely on instruments or attitude and other flight data). This can be achieved by the use o ull or partial flight deck window screens to prevent orward visibility or the use o a visor to ‘blinker’ the pilot. The most important actor is that simulated IMC can only be carried out in VMC. The requirements thereore represent the steps necessary to comply with VFR whilst the visibility o the PF is impaired and he cannot maintain the lookout required by the law.
• An aircraf shall not be flown under simulated IMC unless: • Fully unctioning dual controls are fitted, and • A qualified pilot (need not be type rated) occupies a control seat to act as saety pilot (PNF). • The saety pilot must have adequate orward vision and to each side o the aircraf. I not, a competent observer ( requirement: must know what an aeroplane in flight looks like, be able to report any airborne contact clearly and concisely and be able to use the internal communications system o the aeroplane) in communication with the saety pilot, is to occupy a position in the aircraf rom which he/she has a field o vision which adequately supplements that o the saety pilot.
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Rules of the Air 6.29 Flight in the Vicinity o an Aerodrome. (Note: The pilot o an aeroplane is to plan the route to be flown. At all times he/she is to be aware when the aircraf is being flown in the vicinity o an aerodrome). An aeroplane operated on or in the vicinity o an aerodrome, whether or not within an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (see definition) shall:
• Observe other aerodrome traffic or the purpose o avoiding collisions; • Conorm with, or avoid, the pattern o traffic ormed by other aircraf in operation; • Make all turns to the lef when approaching or landing and afer taking off, unless otherwise instructed (a right hand circuit!); • Land and take off into wind unless saety, the runway configuration, or air traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preerable.
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Figure 6.11
6.30
• or •
Flight Plans. A flight plan is to be submitted prior to operating:
Any flight or portion thereo to be provided with an air traffic service (a controlled flight - see definition) Any IFR flight within advisory airspace
or • Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS authority to acilitate the provision o flight inormation, the alerting and search and rescue services or • Any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATS authority to acilitate co-ordination with appropriate military units (ADIZ) or with air traffic service units in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need or interception or the purpose o identification or • Any flight across international borders (not just FIR boundaries).
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• A flight plan shall be submitted beore departure to an ATS reporting office (flight planning section, ops room, ATC or FIS office) or, during flight, transmitted to the appropriate ATS unit or air-ground control radio station, unless arrangements have been made or the submission o repetitive flight plans. • Unless otherwise required by the ATS authority, a flight plan or a controlled flight is to be submitted at least 60 minutes beore departure (additional rules apply to flights entering an Oceanic Control Area - OCA), or i submitted in flight, at a time that will ensure its receipt by the appropriate ATSU at least 10 minutes beore the aircraf is estimated to reach: 6
• The intended point o entry into a control area or advisory area; or • The point o crossing an airway or advisory route.
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• A flight plan is to contain such o the ollowing as are considered relevant by the appropriate ATS (note: the ollowing are not FP field numbers): • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •
Aircraf identification; Flight rules and type o flight; Number and type o aircraf and wake category; Equipment; Departure aerodrome; Estimated off blocks time (EOBT); Cruising speed(s) (TAS or Mach No.); Cruising level(s); Route to be ollowed; Destination aerodrome and estimated elapsed time (EET); Alternate aerodrome; Fuel endurance; Total number o persons on board (POB) including dead bodies; Emergency and survival equipment; Other inormation.
• With the exception o inadvertent deviation, all changes to a flight plan submitted or IFR flight or a VFR flight operated as a controlled flight, are to be repor ted as soon as practicable to the appropriate air traffic services unit. For other VFR flights, significant changes to a flight plan shall be reported as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATSU. Note: Inormation regarding uel endurance or total number o people on board, i incorrect at time o departure constitutes a significant change and must be reported.
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Rules of the Air 6.31 Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series o requently recurring, regularly operated flights with identical basic eature which are submitted by the Operator or retention and repetitive use by ATCU. These flights must be operated on the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 10 occasions, or every day over a period o at least 10 consecutive days. There must be a high degree o stability in the elements o the flights. 6.32 Closing a Flight Plan/Arrival Report. Unless operator or local procedures apply, a report o arrival is to be made in person, by radio or via data link, as soon as possible afer landing to the appropriate ATSU at the arrival aerodrome or any flight, or portion o flight, or which a flight plan has been submitted. On receipt o the arrival report at the ATSU, the flight plan shall be closed. When communications acilities are known to be inadequate and alternative message handling acilities do not exist, a message comparable to an arrival report is to be transmitted by the aircraf. Whenever an arrival report is required, ailure to comply with these provisions may cause serious disruption in the air traffic services and incur great expense in carrying out unnecessary SAR operations. An arrival report made by an aircraf is to contain the ollowing:
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• • • • •
Aircraf identification; Departure aerodrome; Destination aerodrome; Arrival aerodrome; Time o arrival.
6.33 Delays o Flight Plans. In the event o a delay o 30 minutes in excess o estimated off-block time (EOBT) or a controlled flight or a delay o 1 hour or an uncontrolled flight or which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be :
•
amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted
•
6.34 Time. Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) is to be used and is to be expressed in hours and minutes o the 24 hour day beginning at midnight. It is used throughout the world in aviation but you may still find reerences to either Zulu time or GMT. Where a time check is passed by ATC it is to be to the nearest minute (e.g. 0941 and 20 secs would be 0941; 0941 and 40 secs would be 0942). 6.35
• • • • •
Clearances. In general clearances consist o 5 parts:
Aircraf identification Clearance limit Route Levels Other instructions (time or expiry, departure manoeuvres, communications etc)
Clearances are issued solely or expediting and separating air traffic and are based on known traffic conditions which affect saety in aircraf operations not only to aircraf in the air and on the manoeuvring area but also to vehicular traffic. 6.36 ATC Clearance. An ATC clearance is to be obtained beore operating a controlled flight, or a portion o a flight as a controlled flight. The clearance should be requested by the submission o a flight plan to an ATCU. The PIC may request an amended clearance i the issued
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Rules of the Air clearance is unsatisactory in which case, an amended clearance will be issued i practicable. It is normal practice or an ATC clearance to be passed to the aircraf prior to departure. At busy aerodromes a discrete clearance delivery requency (RT call sign ‘DELIVERY’) is usually established leaving the other tower requencies ree or the purpose intended,. The person reading the clearance to the pilot will, in all probability, not be the ATCO issuing the clearance. Beore commencing the reading o the clearance you will be asked i you are “Ready to copy?” Your response when ready, should be “Go ahead”. The clearance will be read to you slowly so that you have the opportunity to write it down, and will be terminated with “read back”. You are required to read back the clearance exactly as you received it. I your read back is incorrect, the ATCO will read the entire clearance to you again. This will continue until you get it right. There is nothing unproessional in asking or a repeat or asking or a place name to be spelled. I you do not read it back correctly, at the subsequent board o enquiry into an accident, it will be stated that you did not understand the clearance as read to you, and you will be held responsible. Do not assume that the air traffic controllers are inallible. I you think something is wrong - query it!
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6.37 Clearances and route o flight. The route o flight shall be detailed in each clearance when deemed necessary. The ollowing phrases can be used :
“Cleared by flight planned route” meaning any route or portion o a route which is identical to that flight planned. “Cleared via (designation) departure “ meaning a Standard Instrument Departure route (SID) published in the AIP. “Cleared via (designation) arrival“ meaning a Standard Instrument Arrival route (STAR) published in the AIP. 6.38 Adherence to Flight Plan. Flight plans are to be adhered to unless an emergency situation arises which necessitates immediate action by the aircraf. In such a case the ATCU is to be inormed as soon as possible. I the average TAS at cruising level between reporting points varies or is expected to vary by +/- 5% o the TAS given in field 7 o the flight plan, the ATCU is to be inormed. I an estimate or the next applicable reporting point, FIR boundary or destination aerodrome changes by more than 3 minutes rom that already notified, the revised time is to be communicated to the appropriate ATCU. Note: In Operational Procedures or operations in the MNPSA, the requirement is 3 minutes or more. 6.39 Inadvertent Changes. Controlled flights are required to operate along the centre line o an airway or route directly between beacons i that is how the route is delineated. I specified, changeover rom one VOR beacon to another is to be at the specified changeover point unless otherwise directed. These are normally every 60 NM. Any deviation rom these requirements is to be reported to ATC. I a controlled flight inadvertently deviates rom its current flight plan, action is to be taken immediately to regain the track as soon as p racticable.
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Rules of the Air 6.40 Weather Deterioration below VMC. I a VFR flight is unable to maintain VMC in accordance with the current flight plan clearance:
• An amended clearance may be requested enabling the aircraf to continue in VMC (on another route) to destination or to an alternate aerodrome, or to leave the airspace in which ATC clearance is required. I such an amended clearance cannot be obtained to continue to operate in VMC, the pilot must notiy the ATCU o the action being taken to either leave the airspace concerned, or to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. • I the flight is being operated in a control zone, request special VFR clearance.
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• I the above measures are inappropriate, request an IFR clearance to continue. 6.41 Position Reports. Unless advised to cease position reporting (this usually happens when under radar control), a controlled flight is to make reports at specified positions as soon as possible afer reaching the position. The report is to contain:
• The aircraf RTF identification call sign • The position or the report • The time the aircraf was over the position (usually the minutes will suffice unless there is a possibility o conusion) • The level o the aircraf when passing the point • The next en route reporting position • ETA or the next specified point • (According to ICAO) the name o the next ensuing point. Note: I SSR mode “C” has been verified as accurate, altitude/FL may be omitted rom the position report. I a speed has been assigned by ATC, this is to be included in the position report.
This is an example o a ull ICAO position report: “London Airways this is GABCD, Pole Hill at 35, FL170, Dean Cross at 46, Glasgow next” 6.42 Termination o Control. A controlled flight is to advise the appropriate ATCU as soon as it ceases to be subject to air traffic control services. This will be done automatically i the aircraf lands at a controlled aerodrome (one with a control tower). A pilot may be requested to advise ATC when the aircraf leaves controlled airspace. 6.43 Communications Failure. Aircraf operating in accordance with an ATC clearance, where two way radio communications are required, are to comply with the requirements o ICAO Annex 10 (Telecommunications) Volume 2. This specifies the requirement or air-toground communications equipment and the radio requencies allocated to the aeronautical mobile telecommunications network (SELCAL satisfies the requirement to maintain air-ground voice communications). Where Controller-Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC) exists, the requirement or voice communications is required to be maintained. 6.44 Confirmation o Communication Failure. ATC will confirm that an aircraf is subject to a communications ailure by requesting it to execute a specific manoeuvre which can be observed by radar or transmit a signal in order to indicate acknowledgement. In any case ATC will transmit blind instructions to the aircraf on requencies on which the aircraf is believed to be listening.
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6.45 At a Controlled Aerodrome. I the communications system o the aeroplane (receiver or transmitter) ails when the aeroplane is flying in the traffic pattern at a controlled aerodrome, a watch shall be kept or instructions issued by vi sual (light and ground) signals rom the control tower, and such signals complied with. 6.46 Separation o aircraf. Once ATC confirms that an aircraf has a communication ailure, separation shall be maintained between the aircraf and other traffic based on the presumption that the aircraf will be carrying out the procedures specified below depending on whether the conditions are either VMC or IMC. 6
6.47 In VMC. I a ailure occurs whilst the aircraf is flying in VMC (regardless o flight rules - VFR or IFR), the aircraf is to continue to be flown in VMC, landed at the nearest suitable aerodrome and arrival reported by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATCU. 6.48
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In IMC. I a ailure occurs in IMC:
• When being radar vectored proceed in the most direct manner to rejoin the current flight plan route and no later than the next significant point squawking A7600 and taking into consideration the applicable minimum flight altitude. • I the aircraf is en route and in an area where radar control is provided, the pilot is to squawk A7600 and maintain the current flight plan or a period o 7 minutes and thereafer adjust speed and level in accordance with the filed flight plan. • I the aircraf is en route outside o an area where radar control is provided, the pilot is to maintain the current flight plan or a period o 20 minutes ollowing the aircraf’s ailure to report over a compulsory reporting point (at that point the ATCO will know that there is a communication problem), and thereafer adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan. The 20 minutes is to allow the ATCO time to resolve any potential conflictions that may arise during the transition to the filed flight plan profile. 6.49
Subsequent Actions. Afer compliance with the above the pilot is to proceed as ollows:
• Continue according to the filed flight plan route to the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome and, when required to ensure compliance with procedure below, hold over this aid until commencement o descent. Then: • Commence descent rom the radio navigation aid as above at, or as close as possible to, the expected approach time (EAT) last received and acknowledged. I no EAT has been received and acknowledged, descend at, or as close as possible to, the ETA resulting rom the current flight plan. • Complete a normal instrument approach procedure as specified or the designated aid; and land, i possible, within 30 minutes afer the ETA as above or the last acknowledged EAT, whichever is the later. • Report to ATC as soon as possible afer landing.
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Rules of the Air 6.50 Unlawul Intererence. Where an aircraf is the subject o unlawul intererence (hi jacking etc.), communication with the appropriate ATC authority is to be attempted to notiy the authority o this act together with any significant circumstances and o any intended deviation rom the current flight plan, to enable the ATSU to give priority to the aircraf and to minimize conflict with other aircraf. Attachment B to Annex 2 contains guidance notes or use in this situation. Specifically:
• Unless conditions on the aircraf dictate otherwise, the PIC is to attempt to continue flying on the assigned track and at the assigned level at least until able to notiy an ATCU or until within coverage o a radar unit.
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• I orced to depart rom assigned track/level, without being able to notiy ATC, the PIC should, i possible: • Attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF emergency requency (121.500MHz), and use other on-board systems (i.e. SSR - squawk A/7500, data links etc...) i circumstances permit, and then: • Proceed in accordance with applicable special procedures or in-flight contingencies established and published in Doc 7030 - Regional SUPPS; • I no regional procedures have been established, proceed at a level different rom IFR levels by 1000 f above FL290, or 500 f below FL290. 6.51 Interception o Civil Aircraf. Each Contracting State has the right to establish procedures or the interception and identification o aircraf flying in the territorial airspace o that State. There could be a number o reasons or interception among which would be an aircraf flying in the State’s airspace without authorization or penetration by an aircraf o a notified sensitive/prohibited area. In ormulating the policy or interception, recognizing that it is essential or the saety o flight, any visual signals employed during interception by aircraf o a Contracting State, are to be in accordance with Appendix 1 to Annex 2 o the Chicago Convention. The Council has also ormulated special recommendations to ensure that the procedures or interception are applied in a uniorm manner. The PIC o a civil aircraf, when intercepted is to comply with the standards set out in appendix 2 (sections 2 and 3) to Annex 2, interpreting and responding to visual signals and procedures. 6.52 Carriage o Interception Tables. It is a requirement o national law that aircraf engaged on international flights must carry the interception tables. Clearly, the intent is that in the event o an interception you reer to the tables. You are not expected to learn the content o the tables but you should know what the tables contain. It is suggested that you read the tables to amiliarize yoursel. These are reproduced at 6.57/6.58 below. 6.53
Procedure. An aircraf which is intercepted by another aircraf shall immediately:
• Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraf, interpreting and responding to visual signals in accordance with the tables 6.57 and 6.58. • Notiy, i possible, the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit. • Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraf or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the emergency requency 121.500 MHz, giving the identity o the intercepted aircraf and the nature o the flight; and
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i no contact has been established and i practicable, repeating this call on the emergency requency 243.000 MHz. • I equipped with an SSR transponder, select Mode A, Code 7700 and Mode C, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit.
6.54 Contact with Interceptor. I radio contact with the intercepting aircraf is established but communication in a common language is not possible, attempts shall be made to convey essential inormation and acknowledgement o instructions by using the phrases and pronunciations as described in table 6.55. I any instructions received rom any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraf, the intercepted aircraf shall request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the instructions given by the intercepting aircraf. 6.55
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Interception Phraseology Phrases used by Intercepting Aircraf
Phrases used by Intercepted Aircraf
Phrase
Phrase
Meaning
Meaning
Call sign
KOL SA-IN
What is your call sign?
Call sign2
KOL SA-IN
My call sign is (call sign2)
Follow
FOL-LO
Follow me
Wilco
VILL-KO
Understood will comply
Descend
DEE-SEND
Descend or landing
Can not
KANN NOTT
Unable to comply
You land
YOU-LAAND
Landing at this aerodrome
Repeat
REE-PEET
Repeat your instruction
Proceed
PRO-SEED
You may proceed
Am lost
AM LOSST
Position unknown
Mayday
MAYDAY
I am in distress
Hijack3
HI-JACK
I have been hijacked
Land
LAAND
I request to land at (place name)
Descend
DEE-SEND
I require descent
Table 6.55 - Interception Phraseology Notes:
1. 2. 3.
In the second column, the syllables to be emphasized are underlined. The call sign to be given is that used in the RT communications with ATC corresponding to the aircraf identification on the flight plan Circumstances may not always permit, or make it desirable, to use ‘HIJACK’
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Rules of the Air 6.56 Action by ATS in the Event o Interception. As soon as air traffic services learns that an aircraf is being intercepted in its area o responsibility it shall take the ollowing steps:
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a.
Attempt to establish communications with the intercepted aircraf via any means available including 121.5 MHz
b.
Inorm the pilot o the intercepted aircraf o the interception (i it does not already know!)
c.
Establish communications with the ATSU maintaining communication with the intercepting aircraf and provide it with details o the intercepted aircraf
d.
Relay messages as required between the ATSU o the intercepting aircraf and the intercepted aircraf
e.
In co-ordination with the above ATSU take all necessary steps to ensure the saety o the incepted aircraf
.
Inorm ATS units serving adjacent FIRs i it appears that either aircraf has strayed into any one o them.
I interception has taken place outside its area o responsibility, ATS must :
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a.
Inorm the ATS unit serving the airspace in which the interception has taken place o the circumstances and any inormation that will assist in identiying the intercepted aircraf and request it to take the actions itemised in the previous paragraph.
b.
Relay messages as required between the intercepted aircraf and the appropriate ATS unit or the intercepting aircraf.
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Signals by Intercepting Aircraf and Responses by Intercepted Aircraf INTERCEPTING Aircraf Signals
DAY - Rocking wings rom a position slightly above and ahead o, and normally to the lef o the intercepted aircraf and, afer acknowledgement, a slow level turn, normally to the lef, on the desired heading. NIGHT - Same and, in addition, flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals.
Meaning
You have been intercepted ollow me
INTERCEPTED Aircraf Responds AEROPLANES: DAY - Rocking wings and ollowing.
Meaning
Understood will comply
NIGHT - Same and, in addition, flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals.
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HELICOPTERS: DAY or NIGHT - Rocking aircraf, flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals and ollowing.
Note 1: Meteorological conditions or terrain may require the intercepting aircraf to take up a position slightly above and ahead o, and to the right o the intercepted aircraf and to make the subsequent turn to the right.
Note: Additional action required to be taken by intercepted aircraf is prescribed in RAC section.
Note 2: I the intercepted aircraf is not able to keep pace with the intercepting aircraf, the latter is expected to fly a series o racetrack patterns and to rock its wings each time it passes the intercepted aircraf DAY or NIGHT - An abrupt breakaway manoeuvre rom the intercepted aircraf consisting o a climbing turn o 90 degrees or more without crossing the line o flight o the intercepted aircraf.
You may proceed
DAY - Circling aerodrome, lowering landing gear and over flying runway in the direction o landing or, i the intercepted aircraf is a helicopter, over flying the helicopter landing area.
Land at this AEROPLANES: Understood aerodrome DAY - Lowering landing gear, will comply ollowing the intercepting aircraf and, i afer overflying the runway landing is considered sae, proceeding to land.
NIGHT - Same and, in addition, showing steady landing lights.
AEROPLANES: DAY or NIGHT-Rocking wings.
Understood will comply
HELICOPTERS: DAY or NIGHT- Rocking aircraf
NIGHT - Same and, in addition, showing steady landing lights (i carried). HELICOPTERS: DAY or NIGHT-Following the intercepting aircraf and proceeding to land, showing a steady landing light (i carried)
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Rules of the Air 6.58
Signals Initiated by Intercepted Aircraf and Responses by Intercepting Aircraf
INTERCEPTED Aircraf Signals AEROPLANES: DAY-Raising landing gear while passing over landing runway at a height exceeding 300 m (1000 f) but not exceeding 600 m (2000 f) above the aerodrome level, and continuing to circle the aerodrome.
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Meaning
Aerodrome you have designated is inadequate
NIGHT-Flashing landing lights while passing over landing runway at a height exceeding 300 m (1000 f) but not exceeding 600 m (2000 f) above the aerodrome level, and continuing to circle the aerodrome. I unable to flash landing lights, flash any other lights available.
AEROPLANES:
DAY or NIGHT-Irregular flashing o all available lights HELICOPTERS: DAY or NIGHT - Irregular flashing o all available lights.
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Meaning
DAY or NIGHT-i it is desired Understood that the intercepted aircraf ollow me ollow the intercepting aircraf to an alternate aerodrome, the intercepting aircraf raises its landing gear and uses the Series 1 signals prescribed or intercepting aircraf.
I it is decided to release Understood the intercepted aircraf, the you may intercepting aircraf uses the proceed Series 2 signals prescribed or intercepting aircraf.
Cannot comply
DAY or NIGHT - Use Series 2 signals prescribed or intercepting aircraf
Understood
In distress
DAY or NIGHT - Use Series 2 signals prescribed or intercepting aircraf
Understood
DAY or NIGHT-Regular switching on and off o all available lights but in such a manner as to be distinct rom flashing lights.
AEROPLANES:
INTERCEPTING Aircraf Responds
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Visual Flight Rules 6.59 Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC). With the exception o special VFR (SVFR - see paragraph 6.77), VFR is only permitted in VMC (see 6.5). I a flight is operated under VFR and the meteorological conditions deteriorate such that it becomes impossible to continue in VMC the pilot must either:
• • • •
Land whilst able to maintain flight in VMC; or Change the route o the flight to maintain flight in VMC; or File an IFR flight plan and continue under IFR; or I within a CTR, request a SVFR clearance.
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6.60 Take-off/Landing Conditions. Unless authorized by ATC, VFR flights are not to take off or land at an aerodrome in a CTR, or enter the ATZ or traffic pattern:
• When the cloud ceiling (see definition) is less than 450 m (1500 f) or • When ground visibility (see definition) is less than 5 km 6.61 Prohibition o VFR flight. Between sunset and sunrise, or during any other period as may be specified by the ATS authority, VFR flights are to be operated in accordance with the conditions required by such authority.
• VFR flights require an ATC clearance to operate: • Above FL200. • At transonic or supersonic speeds. • VFR flight is not permitted above FL285 where RVSM is applied. • Except when taking off and landing (or when specially approved by the authority e.g. air displays etc…), VFR flight is not allowed: • Over the congested areas o cities, towns or settlements, or over an open air assembly o persons, at a height less than 300 m (1000 f) above the highest obstacle within a radius o 600 m rom the aircraf. • At a height not less than 150 m (500 f) above the surace (ground or water). 6.62 VFR Flight Levels. In level cruising flight above the transition altitude (normally 3000 f AGL), VFR flight is to be conducted at a VFR flight level appropriate to the magnetic track o the aircraf in accordance with the semi-circular rule defined in paragraph 6.74. When operating as a controlled VFR flight within controlled airspace (CAS), the FL or altitude will be specified by ATC in the ATC clearance or that flight. VFR flights are to comply with ATC instructions:
• When operating in class B, C or D airspace (in class A, VFR flight is not permitted) • When orming part o aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes, or • When operating as special VFR flights
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Rules of the Air 6.63 VFR Flight Plan. A VFR flight plan is to be filed beore operating a VFR flight as a controlled flight. To indicate that the flight will be operated under VFR, the letter “V” is placed in item 8 o the flight plan orm. I a flight is to commence under VFR and at some point en route change to IFR, the letter “Z” is placed in field 8 ( V → I = Z). Where the PIC o a VFR flight wishes to change to IFR:
• I a VFR flight plan was submitted, the PIC is to communicate the necessary changes to be effected to the current flight plan, or • He/she is to submit an IFR flight plan and obtain a clearance prior to proceeding under IFR when in controlled airspace.
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6.64 EET. The time put in field 16 o a VFR flight plan is the time rom take-off until overhead the destination aerodrome. 6.65 Communications. Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights into airspace where the ATS authority considers it advisable are to maintain 2-way RTF communication with a controlling or monitoring ATSU and make position reports as necessary. In airspace classified as class E, F or G, VFR flights may operate without two-way communications (non-radio).
Instrument Flight Rules 6.66 IFR. For aircraf to be operated in IMC, (IMC exists when VMC does not!), the ollowing rules are applicable. The rules are collectively known as the Instrument Flight rules (IFR). Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing - 2.1.7) states that where a licence is issued by a contracting state, it shall not permit the holder to act as PIC or co-pilot o an aeroplane under IFR unless the holder also holds a valid instrument rating (IR) appropriate to the aircraf category. 6.67 Aircraf Equipment. Aircraf are to be equipped with suitable instruments and with navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown. The necessary equipment is detailed in JAR OPS-1 and is covered in Operational Procedures lectures. 6.68 Minimum Levels. Except when necessary or take-off and landing, or where specially authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the state whose territory is being overflown, or where no such minimum altitude is specified:
• Over high terrain or mountainous areas (not defined urther), the minimum level must be at least 600 m (2000 f) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km (5 NM) o the estimated position o the aircraf • In areas other than in the above, minimum level is to be 300 m (1000 f) above the highest obstacle within 8 km (5 NM) o the estimated position o the aircraf. 6.69 IFR Flight Plans. An IFR flight plan is to include the letter I in item 8 o the flight plan orm. I the intention is to change rom IFR to VFR at some point during the flight the letter Y is to be inserted in item 8 ( I → V = Y). 6.70 Changing rom IFR to VFR. Where a pilot elects to change rom IFR to VFR and the flight plan was not annotated Y in field 8, the pilot is to notiy the ATS authority that flight under IFR is cancelled using the phrase “cancelling my IFR flight” and then the necessary changes to the current flight plan are to be passed. ATC will respond, “IFR cancelled at …. (time)”. When an IFR flight encounters VMC it shall not cancel IFR unless it is anticipated and intended that the
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flight will be continued or ‘a reasonable period’ o time in uninterrupted VMC. In any event, a change o flight rules must only be at the request o the pilot. 6.71 EET. The time put in field 16 o an IFR flight plan is the time rom take-off until over the initial approach fix (IAF) or the instrument procedure at the destination aerodrome. 6.72 IFR within Controlled Airspace (CAS). IFR flights within CAS are to comply with instructions issued by the appropriate ATC unit. IFR flights in cruising flight shall be flown at a cruising level, or when authorized to employ cruise climb techniques, between two levels or above a level, selected rom:
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• The table o cruising levels (see below) • A modified table o cruising levels, i applicable, or flight above FL410 (see below). 6.73 CAS:
IFR outside Controlled Airspace (CAS). The ollowing rules apply to IFR flights outside
• Cruising Levels. IFR flights outside CAS are to be flown at cruising level appropriate to the magnetic track o the aircraf (see below). • Communications. IFR flights operating outside CAS but within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority as those where the filing o a flight plan is required, are to establish communication and maintain a continuous listening watch with the ATS unit providing a flight inormation service (FIS). • Position Reports. An IFR flight outside CAS and required to either submit a flight plan or maintain a listening watch with the unit providing an FIS, is to make position reports. For flights operating off ATS routes (airways) or in a defined operating area, position reports are to be made at intervals o 1 hour afer an initial report has been made 30 minutes afer leaving CAS or afer commencing the controlled flight. Where a position report is meaningless (prolonged controlled flight operations in a confined area) an ‘operations normal’ call is to be made at hourly intervals to prevent unnecessary activation o the alerting service. An example o an ‘operations normal’ call is: “London Control this is GADRF operations normal at 1020, 2000 f and below. Will call again at 1120”
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Rules of the Air Semi-circular Flight Level Rules and RVSM 6.74 Introduction. In order to apply vertical separation inside CAS, ATC will allocate specific FLs to individual aircraf which may, or may not, comply with the semi-circular rule. However, or planning purposes and outside o CAS, pilots should select the required cruising level (IFR or VFR) rom the ICAO table o FLs. From the tables, the semi-circular rules can be derived, which permit the selection o FLs in accordance with aircraf magnetic track. Tracks are specified as being either ‘eastbound’ or ‘westbound’. Eastbound tracks are 000°M - 179°M inclusive, and westbound, 180°M - 359°M inclusive. Specific FLs are allocated to VFR and IFR traffic. IFR FLs are whole thousands o eet whereas VFR levels are whole thousands plu s 500 f up to FL285. Eastbound levels are defined as ‘odd’ and westbound as ‘even’ rom the first two digits o the FL number. Above 30 000 f, generally, the vertical separation is doubled and IFR levels are all odd, and VFR levels are even. A special system o FL allocation is applied where reduced vertical separation (RVSM) minima is applied
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Figure 6.12 IFR and VFR flight levels up to and including FL290
Figure 6.13 IFR and VFR flight levels above FL290
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6.75 RVSM. In order to make more FLs available to turbojet traffic in the cruise, a system has been adopted which prohibits VFR flight (thus making VFR levels available to IFR traffic). In order to achieve this, the separation between IFR levels between FL290 and FL410 inclusive is reduced rom 2000 f to 1000 f. It is a requirement o aircraf using the RVSM system that they be fitted with A/TCAS and be approved by the airspace authority. Above FL410 the altimeter errors are considered too great to continue the 1000 f separation.
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Figure 6.14 Reduced vertical separation minima
Special VFR 6.76 History. With the introduction o airspace restrictions in the late 1960s, military aerodromes close to large international aerodromes, specifically Northolt in proximity to the rapidly expanding Heathrow, ound that IFR procedures were mandatory in the new control zones when previously VFR procedures were generally accepted. In order to allow aeroplanes to fly into and out o Northolt (in the then Heathrow Special Rules Zone) a procedure based on a corridor in which visual navigation was required was set up. Providing the pilot could see the ground, he could navigate and provided he remained clear o cloud he could avoid collisions. A system o ‘not quite’ IMC or special VFR was invented. Until the late 1970s this was applied in what was known as the Northolt special VFR corridor. It was expanded to include the general aviation aerodrome at Denham and its advantages or aeroplanes and pilots unable to comply with IFR were obvious. When the classes o airspace (A - G) were introduced, ICAO also adopted the special VFR as a procedure with appropriate international amendments. 6.77 SVFR. SVFR is defined by ICAO as a VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC. It is only applicable to flights into, out o, or within a CTR. ICAO requires that the ground visibility within the CTR is not less than 1500 m beore a SVFR flight is permitted to enter the CTR to land, take off and depart, cross or operate locally within the CTR. More restrictively, JAR OPS-1 requires 3000 m visibility or a SVFR flight to be commenced.
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Rules of the Air Distress and Urgency Signals 6.78 Distress: Definition - An aircraf (or vessel) is in grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance.
• A distress message is preceded by the word MAYDAY repeated 3 times. • Visual signals rom an aircraf in distress may include • A succession o RED pyrotechnics • A RED parachute flare
6
6.79 Urgency. Definition - An aircraf has an urgent message to transmit concerning the saety o a ship, aircraf, vehicle or other property o a person on board or within sight. An urgency message is preceded by the words PAN PAN repeated 3 times.
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6.80 Non-emergency Situation. I an aircraf has a communications ailure or a malunction that makes it imperative that the aircraf is landed but the pilot does not require any other assistance, the pilot shall indicate the act by repeatedly switching the landing lights (or any other light) on and off. 6.81 SSR. Secondary Surveillance Radar is covered in Chapter 13 o this book and in depth in Radio Navigation. There are, however, certain reserved codes (squawks) that have specific meaning, which you are required to know. At all times you should transmit the altimeter unction (mode charlie) in addition to the reserved codes. The reserved transponder codes are:
• Mode A code 7700. This is the civil emergency code and is used unless a specific identification code has been allocated by a radar controller and the aircraf has been identified. • Mode A code 7600. This is the squawk to indicate radio ailure and should be used at all times when a ailure occurs regardless o the ATC service being provided. • Mode A code 7500. This code indicates unlawul intererence. Its use does not imply that the act is being generally advertised. Discretion and confidentiality will be preserved by the ATC authority until the pilot mentions the act by RTF. A pilot may preer to use the 7700 squawk to indicate the severity o the situation. • Mode A code 7000. This code indicates that the aircraf is operating in an area where a radar service is available rom an ATCU but the aircraf is not in receipt o the service. It implies that the aircraf is operating under VFR. • Mode A code 2000. This code is used to indicate that an aircraf is entering an area where a radar service is available and will be requesting that service. Usually used by aircraf entering a domestic FIR rom an Oceanic control area. • Mode A code 0000. This code is reserved to indicate that the aircraf transponder is in some manner unserviceable or inaccurate.
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Restricted, Prohibited or Danger Areas 6.82 Specification. Each state has the right to restrict or prohibit flight in territorial airspace or reasons o security or saety. Such areas are known as danger areas (indicated by the letter D), restricted areas (indicated by the letter R) or prohibited areas (indicated by the letter P) and are detailed in the AIP. These are designated by a code identiying the area and showing the altitude (usually in 1000s o f) to which the area extends. Areas may be either permanently active (PERM) or activated by NOTAM. The area designator (or instance - D001) cannot be re-used or a period o not less than 12 months afer the closure o the previously designated area. This allows or a ull reprint o the 1/2 million topographical charts so that no conusion can exist.
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Figure 6.15
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Rules of the Air 6.83 Visual Warning o Incursion. By day and night; a series o projectiles discharged rom the ground at intervals o 10 secs, each showing on bursting red and green lights or stars, are used to warn aircraf that they are flying in or about to enter restricted, prohibited or danger areas.
INCURSION INTO RESTRICTED OR DANGER AREAS
6 R u l e s o f t h e A i r
If you see RED and GREEN ‘star shell’ pyrotechnics it means you are about to enter a restricted area or an active danger area
Figure 6.16
Signals for Aerodrome Traffic 6.84 Non-radio Traffic. Non-radio traffic on or in the vicinity o an aerodrome is to keep a good look out or visual signals rom ATC. Aeroplanes with radios are also to comply with instructions given visually. The lamp used by ATC to communicate (Aldis lamp) is directional with a narrow beam. I you see a signal light rom the tower, you must assume that it is meant or you. 6.85 Visual Signals. The ollowing table gives the light and pyrotechnic signals used rom ground to air: Light
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From Aerodrome Control to: Aircraf in Flight
Aircraf on the Ground
Steady Green
Cleared to land
Cleared or take-off
Steady Red
Give way to other aircraf and continue circling
Stop
Green flashes
Return or landing and await landing clearance
Cleared to taxi
Red flashes
Aerodrome unsae, do not land
Taxi clear o the landing area
White flashes
Land at this aerodrome afer receiving clearance to land and then proceed to the apron
Return to the starting point on the aerodrome
Red pyrotechnic (flare)
Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land or the time being
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Figure 6.17
6.86 Acknowledgement by Aircraf. To acknowledge receipt o a signal as per Figure 6.17 , an aircraf may make the ollowing:
• When in flight: • During the hours o daylight, by rocking the aircraf’s wings • During the hours o darkness, by flashing on and off twice the aircraf’s landing lights or, i not so equipped, by switching on and off the navigation lights twice. • When on the ground: • During the hours o daylight by moving the aircraf’s rudder or ailerons; • During the hours o darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraf’s landing lights or, i not so equipped, by switching on and off the navigation lights twice. 6.87 Visual Ground Signals. The ollowing signals may be shown on an aerodrome, either in the signal square or at other locations on the apron or movement area. A signal square is usually located in ront (aerodrome side) o a control tower (visual control room) and is to be visible rom the air anywhere in the vicinity o the aerodrome. The purpose is to convey essential inormation to pilots unable to communicate by radio. Other signals, applicable to non-radio traffic on the ground are displayed rom a signals mast (also in ront o the control tower) or by means o indicator boards (inormation signs) located on or adjacent to the control tower. The absence o a signal square indicates that the aerodrome is not to be used by non-radio traffic. This is the case at Oxord, where due to high traffic density and trainee pilots in the circuit, non-radio traffic is considered hazardous. Note: The use o any signal by any person shall only have the meaning assigned to it under the rule.
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6.88 Signals in the Signals Area. The ollowing signals are displayed on aerodromes to pass inormation to non-radio aircraf. In the examination, you will be expected to interpret the meaning o a signal rom a written description o the sign:
A white “T” signifies that take-offs and landings shall be in the direction o the shaf o the “T” (as indicated by the arrow).
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A white disc added to the “T”, means that take-off and landing direction do not necessarily coincide.
A white dumb-bell indicates that aircraf movement on the ground is confined to paved, metalled or similar hardened suraces.
A white dumb-bell with black stripes signifies that take-offs and landings are to be on a runway, but movement on the ground is not confined to pavements.
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A red and yellow striped arrow signifies that a right hand circuit is in orce.
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A red panel with a yellow diagonal stripe signifies that the manoeuvring area is poor and pilots must exercise special care.
A red panel with a yellow cross signifies that the aerodrome is unfit or aircraf movements, and landings are prohibited.
A white “H” signifies that helicopters shall take off and land only within the area designated by the marking.
A red ‘L’ over a dumb-bell means that light aircraf are permitted to take off and land either on a runway or on the area designated.
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A white double cross means that glider flying is in progress.
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Two or more white crosses indicate that the section o the runway or taxiway (where they would be yellow crosses) is unfit or aircraf movement. Orange and white boundary markers will delineate the limit o the unusable ground or runway.
Two yellow broken lines and two continuous lines signiy the holding point closest to the runway. Outside o the notified hours or ATC, this is the closest point an aircraf or vehicle can approach to the runway or the purpose o giving way to aircraf landing or taking off. This is a ‘pattern A’ marking.
A yellow ‘ladder’ marking across the taxiway indicates a holding point other than the closest to the runway. Outside ATC hours it can be ignored. This is a ‘pattern B’ marking.
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A black letter “C” on a yellow background indicates where a visiting pilot should report on arrival.
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A yellow St George’s cross indicates the position on the manoeuvring area where tow ropes and banner can be dropped.
6.89
Signals Mast. The ollowing signals are flown rom the signals mast:
6.90 QDM Boards. A yellow board with two black numbers on is situated on the tower, and indicates the runway direction in use (QDM).
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6.91 Boundary Markers. Orange and white striped markers indicate the boundary o the manoeuvring area where it is not clearly defined.
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6.92 Wind Sleeve. A wind sleeve (windsock) indicates the wind direction and speed. (Large = 40 kt; medium = 30 kt; small = 20 kt) Max wind speed (i.e. 40 kt) Hal wind speed (i.e. 20 kt) Calm
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Marshalling Signals Wingwalker/guide
Raise right hand above head level with wand pointing up; move lef-hand wand pointing down toward body. Note. This signal provides an indication by a person positioned at the aircraf wing tip, to the pilot/ marshaller/ push-back operator, that the aircraf movement on/off a parking position would be unobstructed.
6 R u l e s o f t h e A i r
Identiy gate
Raise ully extended arms straight above head with wands pointing up.
Proceed to next signalman or as directed by tower/ ground control
Point both arms upward; move and extend arms outward to sides o body and point with wands to direction o next signalman or taxi area.
Straight ahead
Bend extended arms at elbows and move wands up and down rom chest height to head.
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Turn lef (rom pilot’s point o view)
With right arm and wand extended at a 90-degree angle to body, make “come ahead” signal with lef hand. The rate o signal motion indicates to pilot the rate o aircraf turn.
6 r i A e h t f o s e l u R
Turn right (rom pilot’s point o view)
With lef arm and wand extended at a 90-degree angle to body, make “come ahead” signal with right hand. The rate o signal motion indicates to pilot the rate o aircraf turn.
Normal stop
Fully extend arms and wands at a 90-degree angle to sides and slowly move to above head until wands cross.
Emergency stop
Abruptly extend arms and wands to top o head, crossing wands.
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6
Rules of the Air
Set brakes
Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm. Ensuring eye contact with flight crew, close hand into a fist. Do not move until receipt o “thumbs up” acknowledgement rom flight crew. 6 R u l e s o f t h e A i r
Release brakes
Raise hand just above shoulder height with hand closed in a fist. Ensuring eye contact with flight crew, open palm. Do not move until receipt o “thumbs up” acknowledgement rom flight crew.
Chocks inserted
With arms and wands ully extended above head, move wands inward in a “jabbing” motion until wands touch. Ensure acknowledgement is received rom flight crew.
Chocks removed
With arms and wands ully extended above head, move wands outward in a “jabbing” motion. Do not remove chocks until authorized by flight crew.
134
Rules of the Air
6
Start engine(s)
Raise right arm to head level with wand pointing up and start a circular motion with hand; at the same time, with lef arm raised above head level, point to engine to be started. 6 r i A e h t f o s e l u R
Cut engines
Extend arm with wand orward o body at shoulder level; move hand and wand to top o lef shoulder and draw wand to top o right shoulder in a slicing motion across throat.
Slow down
Move extended arms downwards in a “patting” gesture, moving wands up and down rom waist to knees.
Slow down engine(s) on indicated side
With arms down and wands toward ground, wave either right or lef wand up and down indicating engine(s) on lef or right side respectively should be slowed down.
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6
Rules of the Air
Turns while backing (or tail to starboard)
Point lef arm with wand down and bring right arm rom overhead vertical position to horizontal orward position, repeating right-arm movement. 6 R u l e s o f t h e A i r
Turns while backing (or tail to port)
Point right arm with wand down and bring lef arm rom overhead vertical position to horizontal orward position, repeating lef-arm movement.
Affirmative/all clear
Raise right arm to head level with wand pointing up or display hand with “thumbs up”; lef arm remains at side by knee. Note. This signal is also used as a technical/servicing communication signal.
ENGINE
Fire
BRAKE
136
Move right-hand wand in a “anning” motion rom shoulder to knee, while at the same time pointing with lef-hand wand to area o fire.
Rules of the Air
6
Hold position/stand by
Fully extend arms and wands downwards at a 45-degree angle to sides. Hold position until aircraf is clear or next manoeuvre.
6 r i A e h t f o s e l u R
Dispatch aircraf
Perorm a standard salute with right hand and/or wand to dispatch the aircraf. Maintain eye contact with flight crew until aircraf has begun to taxi.
Do not touch controls (technical/servicing communication signal)
Extend right arm ully above head and close fist or hold wand in horizontal position; lef arm remains at side by knee.
Connect ground communication signal)
power
(technical/servicing
Hold arms ully extended above head; open lef hand horizontally and move finger tips o right hand into and touch open palm o lef hand (orming a “T”). At night, illuminated wands can also be used to orm the “T” above head.
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Rules of the Air
Disconnect power (technical/servicing communication signal)
Hold arms ully extended above head with finger tips o right hand touching open horizontal palm o lef hand (orming a “T”); then move right hand away rom the lef. Do not disconnect power until authorized by flight crew. At night, illuminated wands can also be used to orm the “T” above head.
6 R u l e s o f t h e A i r
Negative (technical/servicing communication signal)
Hold right arm straight out at 90 degrees rom shoulder and point wand down to ground or display hand with “thumbs down”; lef hand remains at side by knee.
Establish communication via interphone (technical/ servicing communication signal)
Extend both arms at 90 degrees rom body and move hands to cup both ears.
Open/close stairs (technical/servicing communication signal)
With right arm at side and lef arm raised above head at a 45-degree angle, move right arm in a sweeping motion towards top o lef shoulder. Note. This signal is intended mainly or aircraf with the set o integral stairs at the ront.
138
Rules of the Air
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Flight Deck Signals Brakes engaged.
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in ront o ace, then clench fist.
6 r i A e h t f o s e l u R
Brakes released.
Raise arm with fist clenched horizontally in ront o ace, then extend fingers.
Insert chocks.
Arms extended palms acing outwards, move hands inwards to cross in ront o ace.
Ready to start engine indicated.
Raise the number o fingers on one hand indicating the number o the engine to be started. For this purpose the aircraf engines shall be numbered as ollows, No. 1 engine shall be the port outer engine, No. 2, the port inner engine, No. 3, the starboard inner engine and No. 4, the starboard outer engine.
Remove chocks.
Hands crossed in ront o ace, palms acing outwards, move arms outwards.
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Questions Questions 1.
When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC o an IFR flight wishes to continue the flight in accordance with VFR until destination:
1. 2. 3. 4.
6
Q u e s t i o n s
the pilot must inorm the control unit o his intention using the expression “cancelling my IFR flight”. the pilot must request and obtain clearance to continue under VFR. the pilot must communicate the necessary changes to the current flight plan. the flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight.
Which o the ollowing combinations is correct? a. b. c. d. 2.
An aircraf flying in the visual circuit at an aerodrome sees a series o red flashes rom the control tower. What does this mean?
a. b. c. d. 3.
Z Y I V
What are the VMC limits or class B airspace?
a. b. c. d.
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Red. Green. Blue. White.
What letter goes in item 8 o a flight plan or a flight starting under IFR then changing to VFR?
a. b. c. d. 6.
FL60. FL65. FL70. FL75.
An aircraf is converging rom the lef. Which light will you see first?
a. b. c. d. 5.
Do not land. Do not land because the aerodrome is unusable. Give way to other aircraf. Return or landing and await clearance to land.
An aircraf has flight visibility o 3 km, and is heading 355° T in an area where the variation is 6° west. There is no appreciable wind. Which o the ollowing is the appropriate flight level?
a. b. c. d. 4.
2 and 3. 2 and 4. 1 and 3. 1 and 4.
8 km flight visibility, clear o cloud and in sight o the surace. 8 km flight visibility, 1000 f vertically and 1500 m horizontally rom cloud. 5 km flight visibility, 1000 f vertically and 1500 m horizontally rom cloud. The same as class D.
6
Questions 7.
When is a flight plan required?
a. b. c. d. 8.
Whilst airborne in the vicinity o the aerodrome, you see a flashing green light rom the Tower. What does this mean?
a. b. c. d. 9.
Glider flying in progress. Tow ropes and banners may be dropped. Runway unfit or aircraf movement. Aerodrome unfit or aircraf movement.
Return to start point. Clear to taxi. Clear to take off. Stop.
Rocking wings. Flashing lights. Cut across track. Breaking turn up and lef.
Which has priority to land?
a. b. c. d. 13.
s n o i t s e u Q
You have been intercepted in the airspace o a oreign contracting state. What is the signal or ‘clear to proceed’ rom the intercepting aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 12.
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You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome and see a flashing green light rom the tower. What does it mean?
a. b. c. d. 11.
Cleared to land. Return or landing and await clearance to land. Give way to other landing aircraf. Land at this aerodrome afer receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron.
You see a double white cross in a signal square, what does this mean?
a. b. c. d. 10.
For IFR flight in advisory airspace. For all IFR flights. For all flights in controlled airspace. For all VFR and SVFR flights in controlled airspace.
A hospital flight. An emergency. A military flight. A VIP flight.
What does a double horizontal white cross on an aerodrome indicate?
a. b. c. d.
Glider flying in progress. Runway unfit or use. Light aircraf may taxi on the grass. Runway to be used or take-off but aircraf may taxi on the grass.
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Questions 14.
6
Q u e s t i o n s
15.
Which o these is not a distress requency?
1. 2. 3. 4.
121.5 MHz 2182 kHz 243.0 kHz 2430 kHz
a. b. c. d.
4 only. 1 and 2. 2, 3 and 4. 3 and 4.
I you are intercepted by another aircraf, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a. b. c. d. 16.
You are taxiing an aircraf on the ground at an aerodrome and you see a flashing red light rom the tower. What does it mean?
a. b. c. d. 17.
1000 m 1500 m 2000 m 3000 m
I a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed under VFR in VMC, he/she must inorm ATC and include the phrase:
a. b. c. d.
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B has right o way regardless o aircraf type and position. A has right o way regardless o aircraf type and position. A has right o way i B is on the right. B has right o way i A is on the lef.
What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off rom an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. b. c. d. 19.
Stop. Taxi clear o the landing area. Give way to approaching aircraf. You are not clear to take off.
Aircraf A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraf B is entering the CTR without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right o way?
a. b. c. d. 18.
A/2000 + C. A/7500 + C. A/7600 + C. A/7700 + C.
“cancelling my flight plan”. “cancelling my flight”. “cancelling my IFR flight”. “cancelling my IMC flight plan”.
6
Questions 20.
What signal rom a marshaller to a pilot indicates “apply brakes”?
a. b. c. d. 21.
ATC has given you the transponder code o A/5320. In case o a radio ailure in flight you must squawk:
a. b. c. d. 22.
60 minutes beore off-block time. 60 minutes beore departure. 30 minutes beore departure. 30 minutes beore off-block time.
Code 7500 Code 7700 Code 7000 Code 7600
121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz. 121.5 MHz and/or 282.8 MHz. 121.5 MHz and/or 125.5 MHz. 243.0 MHz and/or 125.5 MHz.
Your aircraf is intercepted by a military aircraf. Instructions given by this aircraf do not comply with ATC instructions. You should:
a. b. c. d. 26.
s n o i t s e u Q
An aircraf which is intercepted by another aircraf must immediately try to contact the intercepting aircraf on the ollowing requencies:
a. b. c. d. 25.
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Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraf is recognized as an aircraf in distress?
a. b. c. d. 24.
A/7600 + Mode C. A/0020 + Mode C. A/5300 + Mode C. A/7620 + Mode C.
For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed beore departure at least:
a. b. c. d. 23.
Waving the arms across the ace. Drawing the palm across the throat. Clenching a raised fist. Holding both arms up with palms acing orward.
select code 7500 A on your transponder. ask ATC or different instructions. comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraf. comply with ATC instructions.
A pilot crosses his/her hands in ront o the ace, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards. What does this signal indicate?
a. b. c. d.
Clear to move orward. Brakes off. Remove chocks. Clear to close all engines.
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Questions 27.
A red flare fired at a flying aircraf means:
a. b. c. d. 28. 6
In order to avoid conusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall not be re-used or a period o:
a. b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
29.
d.
b. c. d.
From which the aircraf first moves under its own power until it finally comes to rest afer landing. From brakes release at take-off until landing. At cruising level taking into account temperature and pressure or that day. From take-off until overhead the destination aerodrome.
What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR flights flying in the same direction below FL 290?
a. b. c. d.
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Only at night in flight, but not on the ground i being towed. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed. Only at night with engines running. At all times on the ground when the engines are running.
The ‘estimated elapsed time’ in field 16 o a flight plan or a VFR flight is the estimated time:
a.
33.
Return to the aerodrome o departure. Continue the flight whilst maintaining VMC and land as soon as possible. Continue the flight at the assigned level and route and start the approach at the stated ETA. Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that is reporting VMC.
I so equipped, when should an aircraf display the anti-collision light?
a. b. c. d. 32.
7500 7700 7600 7000
Which o the ollowing procedures would a pilot ollow in the event o communications ailure whilst under IFR in VMC?
a. b. c.
31.
at least 12 months afer the cancellation o the area reerred to. at least 6 months afer the cancellation o the area reerred to. at least 3 months afer the cancellation o the area reerred to. at least 2 months afer the cancellation o the area reerred to.
When an aircraf has been subjected to unlawul intererence, the pilot may wish to indicate the act by squawking which SSR code?
a. b. c. d. 30.
do not land, the aerodrome is unfit. notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land or the time being. return to the aerodrome or landing. give way to another aircraf and continue to circle.
500 f 1000 f 2000 f 4000 f
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Questions 34.
The cruising speed entered in item 15 o a flight plan is:
a. b. c. d. 35.
TAS. TAS or Mach No. IAS or TAS. TAS at 65% engine power.
What action is required by the pilot o an aircraf flying in the vicinity o an aerodrome to indicate that the aircraf is experiencing radio ailure or another difficulty that requires immediate landing but no other assistance? 6
a. b. c. d. 36.
b. c. d.
there is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance. the aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly. the aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome. the situation concerns the saety o passengers on board or within sight.
I radio contact with an intercepting aircraf is established but not in a common language, what would the pilot o an intercepted aircraf say, i he/she is unable to comply with the instruction rom the interceptor?
a. b. c. d. 40.
rom time o take-off until overhead the IAF. rom time o take-off until overhead the destination aerodrome. rom push back until overhead the IAF. rom push back until overhead the destination aerodrome.
A DISTRESS message differs rom an URGENCY message because:
a. b. c. d. 39.
Aircraf identification, position, time, true airspeed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over. Aircraf identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over. Aircraf identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over, ensuing position. Aircraf identification, position, flight level or altitude, next position and time over, ensuing position and time over.
What defines EET or an IFR flight?
a. b. c. d. 38.
s n o i t s e u Q
A position report shall contain the ollowing inormation in the order listed?
a.
37.
The repeated switching on and off o the landing lights. Switching the landing lights on and off three times. Switching the landing lights on and off our times. Switching the navigation lights on and off three times.
“KAN NOTT KOMPLY” “UNN-ABOL TOO KOMPLY” “NOTT POSS ABOL” “KANN NOTT”
Which o the ollowing flight has the highest priority to land?
a. b. c. d.
VIP flight. Hospital flight. Emergency aircraf. Military aircraf.
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Questions 41.
What letter is put in item 8 o a flight plan to indicate that a flight is to begin under IFR and finish under VFR?
a. b. c. d. 42. 6
A white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bars indicates that:
a. b.
Q u e s t i o n s
c. d. 43.
The owner. The Operator. The Commander. The ATC controller.
The vertical separation minima or IFR flights in CAS applied by ATC above FL290 is:
a. b. c. d.
146
Y I V Z
Who has final authority as to the disposition o an aircraf during flight time?
a. b. c. d. 46.
offer ATC an acceptable alternative. request and i practicable accept an amended clearance. demand an alternative clearance and ATC must comply. decline the clearance on the grounds that it is not in accordance with the filed flight plan.
What letter is put in item 8 o a flight plan to indicate that a flight is to begin under VFR and finish under IFR?
a. b. c. d. 45.
glider flying is being conducted outside the landing area. landing and take-off is restricted to the runways but taxiing is not confined to the pavement areas. this aerodrome is using parallel runways. taxiing is confined to the taxiways.
I an ATC clearance is not suitable, the PIC may:
a. b. c. d. 44.
Y I V Z
500 f. 1000 f. 2000 f. 1000 f i RVSM is applied otherwise 2000 f.
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Questions 47.
Unless authorized by ATC, a VFR flight is not permitted to take off rom an aerodrome within a CTR when:
a. b. c. d. 48.
cloud ceiling is less than 1000 f and ground visibility is less than 5 km. cloud ceiling is less than 1500 f and ground visibility is less than 5 km. cloud ceiling is less than 1000 f and ground visibility is less than 8 km. cloud ceiling is less than 1500 f and ground visibility is less than 8 km.
An aircraf is flying over the sea between 4500 f and 9000 f AMSL and outside CAS. To continue under VFR the meteorological conditions must remain: 6
a. b. c. d. 49.
when initiated by the PIC. when ordered by ATC. at a point specified by the operator. when the aircraf leaves CAS in VMC.
An aircraf is overtaking another aircraf i it is closing to the other aircraf rom behind in a sector:
a. b. c. d. 51.
s n o i t s e u Q
A change in flight rules rom IFR to VFR will only take place:
a. b. c. d. 50.
2000 f horizontally and 1000 f vertically rom cloud with visibility o 8 km. 1500 m horizontally and 1000 f vertically rom cloud with visibility o 5 km. 1500 m horizontally and 1000 m vertically rom cloud with visibility o 5 km. clear o cloud and in sight o the surace, with visibility o 5 km.
50° either side o the longitudinal axis. 60° either side o the longitudinal axis. 70° either side o the longitudinal axis. 80° either side o the longitudinal axis.
When may a Repetitive Flight Plan be submitted?
a. b. c. d.
When flights are operated on the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 10 occasions or every day over a period o at least 10 consecutive days. When flights are operated on the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 7 occasions or every day over a period o at least 10 consecutive days. When flights are operated on the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 10 occasions or every day over a period o at least 7 consecutive days. When flights are operated on the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 7 occasions or every day over a period o at least 7 consecutive days.
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Answers
Answers 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
c
b
c
b
b
d
a
b
a
b
d
b
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
a
d
d
b
d
b
c
c
a
b
b
a
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
c
c
b
a
a
b
d
d
c
b
a
c
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
a
a
d
c
a
b
b
d
c
d
b
b
49
50
51
a
c
a
6
A n s w e r s
148
Chapter
7 Instrument Procedures - Departures
Instrument Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 151 PANS OPS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 153 Instrument Departure Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 153 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
162
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
164
149
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Instrument Procedures - Departures
7
I n s t r u m e n t P r o c e d u r e s D e p a r t u r e s
150
7
Instrument Procedures - Departures Instrument Procedures 7.1 General Introduction. In order to permit all weather operation (low visibility take-off and landing) procedures must be established to provide track guidance and terrain avoidance or aircraf departing, and track guidance, terrain clearance and where special equipment is used, vertical displacement guidance or aircraf arriving at aerodromes. Low visibility operations (ICAO) are defined as take-off and landing operations with RVR less than 800 m. Remember, the minima or take-off rom an aerodrome in a CTR is ground visibility not less than 5 km and cloud ceiling not less than 1500 f. The criteria or the type o procedure to be employed are defined in terms o RVR and the limit to which a pilot is permitted to descend (DA/H or MDA/H). Clearly, obstacle avoidance during the procedure is o paramount importance. The undamental assumption is that an instrument procedure (departure or arrival) will only be flown in conditions less than VMC. In this case, arrivals and depar tures rom controlled aerodromes will be flown under IFR and hence subject to ATC. Thereore, prior to commencing any instrument procedure, an ATC clearance must be obtained. Procedures or departure and arrival are published and you are required to have the necessary plates (printed representations o the procedures) available on the flight deck. I you are required by ATC to divert to an aerodrome with which you are not amiliar and do not have the plates, ATC will read the procedure, including the loss o communications and missed approach procedures, to you. Initially we will look at instrument departure procedures. The ollowing abbreviations are required knowledge: 7.2
7
s e r u t r a p e D s e r u d e c o r P t n e m u r t s n I
Abbreviations
C/L
Centre line
MSA
Minimum Sector Altitude
DA/H
Decision Altitude/Height
NOZ
Normal Operating Zone
DER
Departure End o Runway
NTZ
No Transgression Zone
DME
Distance Measuring Equipment
OIS
Obstacle Identification Surace
DR
Dead Reckoning
PDG
Procedure Design Gradient
FAF
Final Approach Fix
RTR
Radar Termination Range
FAP
Final Approach Point
SDF
Step Down Fix
FAT
Final Approach Track
SID
Standard Instrument Departure
IAF
Initial Approach Fix
STAR
Standard Arrival Route
IF
Intermediate Fix
TAA
Terminal Approach Altitude
LHA
Lowest Holding Altitude
TP
Turning point
MAPt
Missed Approach Point
VM(C)
Visual Manoeuvring Circling
MDA/H
Minimum Descent Altitude/Height
VM(C)A
Visual Manoeuvring Circling Area
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Instrument Procedures - Departures 7.3 Obstacle Clearance. It is implied that any procedure developed will not require the aeroplane to fly dangerously close to obstacles at any point during the procedure. Clearance rom obstacles can be obtained by lateral clearance and vertical clearance. By requiring a pilot to fly the track accurately (within tolerances accepted) the aircraf can be guided over a surveyed flight path within the bounds o which, all obstacles can be determined and assessed. Obviously, the area surveyed must have finite limits. It is, however, not acceptable or, say, an area 5 NM wide to be surveyed and then permit aircraf to fly within guidance tolerance, 2.5 NM either side o the desired track. The extremities o the surveyed area must gradually permit higher obstacles until at the limit o reasonable expectations o accuracy (guidance tolerance - both equipment and flight technical), the guaranteed clearance is reduced to zero. This assessment is known as creation o MOC (minimum obstacle clearance areas). MOC is discussed later in this chapter. Obstacle clearance could be provided by assessing the highest obstacle to be flown over and by applying a saety margin to the obstacle height. An obstacle clearance altitude or height (OCA/H) can thus be obtained. This is the method o obtaining MSA and with refinements, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) or non-precision procedures. As precision procedures provide height guidance, an obstacle 1000 f high at 10 NM rom the threshold is not as significant as an obstacle 150 f high 1 NM rom the threshold (assuming a 300 f per mile glide slope). For precision systems, OCA/H is ‘range rom threshold’ dependent. It should thereore be obvious that OCA/H or precision procedures are less than OCA/H or non-precision. It must be stressed that, rom an operational point o view, the obstacle clearance applied in the development o each instrument approach procedure is considered to be the minimum required or an acceptable level o saety in operations. I you have your own aeroplane and it is not used or commercial air transport, you may operate to the published OCA/H limits. Operators apply higher criteria resulting in aerodrome operating minima or commercial air transport.
7
I n s t r u m e n t P r o c e d u r e s D e p a r t u r e s
Figure 7.1
152
7
Instrument Procedures - Departures
7
s e r u t r a p e D s e r u d e c o r P t n e m u r t s n I
Figure 7.2
PANS OPS 7.4 Document 8168. The ICAO document that specifies the recommendations or instrument procedures is PANS OPS. The term ‘PANS-OPS’ is commonly used to reer to the content o ICAO Doc 8168. The correct title o the document is “Procedures or Air Navigation Services - Aircraf Operations”. The document is printed in two volumes; Vol 1 - Flight Procedures; Vol 2 - Construction o Visual and Instrument Flight Procedures. Volume 1 describes operational procedures recommended or the guidance o flight operations personnel and we shall limit our considerations o instrument procedures to the content o Vol 1. Vol 1 outlines the various parameters on which the criteria o Vol 2 are based. Volume 2 is intended or the guidance o procedures specialists and describes the essential areas and obstacle clearance requirements or the achievement o sae, regular instrument flight operations. Both volumes present coverage o operational practices that are beyond the scope o Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) but with respect to which, a measure o international uniormity is desirable. PANs OPS, in expanding the SARPs o Annex 6, considers both depar ture and arrival procedures and to a lesser extent, en route procedures where obstacle clearance criteria should be taken into consideration.
Instrument Departure Procedures 7.5 General Criteria. These procedures assume that all engines are operating. The design o an instrument departure procedure is, in general, dictated by the terrain surrounding the aerodrome, but may also be required to cater or ATC requirements (adjacent ATS routes, restricted, prohibited or danger areas and the proximity o other aerodromes). These actors in turn influence the type and position o navigation aids required to provide track guidance or the departure route. Airspace restrictions may also affect the position o navigation aids. From the pilot and operator point o view, the use o automatic take-off thrust control systems (ATTCS) and noise abatement procedures will need to be taken into account as well. Where no suitable navigation aid is available to provide specific track guidance, the criteria or omnidirectional (any direction) departures is applied. Wherever possible a straight departure will be specified, which is aligned with the runway. Where a departure route requires a turn o more than 15° to avoid an obstacle, a turning depar ture is constructed. 153
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Instrument Procedures - Departures 7.6 Requirements. Where instrument departures are required, a departure procedure will be established or each runway to be used, and will define the procedure or the various categories o aircraf based on an all engines running PDG o 3.3%, or an increased PDG i required to achieve minimum obstacle clearance. The procedures assume that pilots will compensate or wind effects (known or estimated) when flying departure routes which are expressed as tracks to be made good. I radar vectoring is applied, pilots are required to fly the vector headings and not make allowance or the wind. 7.7 Obstacle Clearance. As already stated, obstacle clearance is a primary saety consideration in instrument departure procedures. Unless otherwise stated a PDG o 3.3% is assumed. The PDG is made up o 2.5% gradient o obstacle identification suraces or the gradient based on the most critical obstacle penetrating these suraces (whichever is higher), and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance. Gradients published will be specified to an altitude/ height afer which the minimum gradient o 3.3% is considered to exist. The final PDG continues until obstacle clearance is ensured or the next phase o flight (en route, holding or approach). At this point the departure procedure ends and is marked by a significant point. The minimum obstacle clearance equals zero at the departure end o the runway (DER) and thereafer increases by 0.8% o the horizontal distance in the direction o flight, assuming maximum divergence o 15°. In the turn initiation area or a turning departure a minimum obstacle clearance o 90 m (295 f) is provided. Increased obstacle clearance will be provided in mountainous terrain. I DME is available, additional height/distance inormation is made available.
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I n s t r u m e n t P r o c e d u r e s D e p a r t u r e s
Figure 7.3
7.8 Mountainous Terrain. What defines mountainous terrain is not specified. In deciding i the criteria or mountainous terrain are applicable, the designer takes notice o the prevailing wind conditions. I the average wind speed o 37 kph or more produces significant down draughts, increased obstacle clearance is applied. 7.9 Aircraf Category. It has already been mentioned that the major consideration in planning a departure route is to ensure adequate obstacle clearance. In determining the track over which the aircraf will fly speed is the determining actor. Aircraf are categorized by the
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Instrument Procedures - Departures maximum speed that the departure procedure can be flown. Wherever limiting speeds other than those specified in the table are published, they must be complied with to remain within the appropriate areas. I an aeroplane operation requires a higher speed, then an alternative departure procedure must be requested.
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s e r u t r a p e D s e r u d e c o r P t n e m u r t s n I
Figure 7.4
7.10 Standard Instrument Departures. There are two basic types o departure route, straight, or turning. Departure routes are based on track guidance acquired within 20 km (10.8 NM) rom the end o the runway (DER) or straight departures, and within 10 km (5.4 NM) afer completion o turns or turning departures. When flying the route, the pilot is expected to correct or known wind and to remain within the protected airspace. 7.11 Straight Departure. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track is within 15° o the alignment o the runway. Track guidance may be provided by VOR, NDB or RNAV.
Figure 7.5
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Instrument Procedures - Departures 7.12 Turning Departure. I the departure track requires a turn o more than 15°, a turning area is constructed and the turn required is commenced upon reaching a specified altitude/ height, or at a fix or at a acility (VOR, NDB etc...). Straight flight is assumed until reaching an altitude not less than 120 m (394 f) above the elevation o the DER.
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I n s t r u m e n t P r o c e d u r e s D e p a r t u r e s
Figure 7.6
Figure 7.7
7.13 Emergencies. It is the responsibility o the operator to establish procedures to cover the case o engine ailure or an emergency in flight which occurs afer V1.
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s e r u t r a p e D s e r u d e c o r P t n e m u r t s n I
Figure 7.8
7.14 Omni-directional Departures. Where no track guidance is provided in the design o a departure procedure, the omni-directional method is used which basically provides or initial departure tracks to be undefined. In other words, once off the end o the runway and at a sae height, the aircraf can be navigated in any direction required to achieve the initial en route point. It may be that some sectors o the departure area may contain obstacles which preclude departures in that direction, in which case the published p rocedures will be annotated to show the restricted sectors. The basic procedure is that the aircraf will climb on the extended runway centre line to 120 m (394 f) above aerodrome elevation beore turns can be specified, and at least 90 m (295 f) o obstacle clearance will be provided beore turns greater than 15° can be specified. Turns will not commence within 600 m o the beginning o the runway. Where obstacles do not permit the development o omni-directional procedures, it is necessary to fly a departure route (straight or turning), or ensure that ceiling and visibility will permit obstacles to be avoided by visual means. 157
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I n s t r u m e n t P r o c e d u r e s D e p a r t u r e s
Figure 7.9
7.15 Published Inormation. Departure routes and SID charts are published in accordance with standards contained in Annex 11 and Annex 4 to the Chicago Convention. Departure routes are labelled as RNAV (area navigation based on VOR/DME or GPS) only when that is the primary means o navigation utilized. For omni-directional departures, the restrictions will be expressed as sectors to be avoided or sectors in which minimum gradients and/or minimum altitudes are specified to enable an aeroplane to saely over fly obstacles. Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is also depicted on the plate and gives the lowest sae altitude or a defined sector (based on a navigational acility) to a range o 25 NM rom the aerodrome (or acility). Figure 7.10 shows a typical SID plate. This plate details the departures rom the runways at Heathrow and specifies that the point o joining the ATS route structure is the Compton VOR (CPT). All SIDs start at DER and end at the point o joining the ATS en route system. Note that each route has a specific designator e.g. CPT3G. In the ATC clearance or IFR flights, departure instructions will include a SID to the first airways point. The ATCO will reer to the SID by its designator. Note the means by which track guidance is applied. In a normal aeroplane ully ‘airways fitted’ or IFR, the SID can always be complied with as there will be a minimum o two VOR/NAV boxes and one ADF. The Compton SID requires radio navigation using the LON and CPT VORs and the WOD NDB. DME is also specified.
The SID specifies DME distances to or rom the acility with radials rom VORs or QDMs or NDBs. The SID will also speciy altitude restrictions in the orm o “Above .....”, or “At .....”, as well as a diagram o the procedure. A narrative is always given in English. At the end o the SID the aircraf should be well placed to continue en route climbing in the airway or under radar control. At any time during the procedure, the pilot may be ordered to comply with radar vectoring requiring abandonment o the SID or abbreviation o the procedure. In such cases the pilot will be told that the aircraf is under radar control.
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s e r u t r a p e D s e r u d e c o r P t n e m u r t s n I
Figure 7.10
7.16 Area Navigation (RNAV) and RNP Based Departure Procedures. The general principles relating to RNAV approach procedures also apply to RNAV departures based on a VOR/DME, DME/DME, basic GNSS and RNP criteria. Most FMS equipped aircraf are capable o ollowing RNAV procedures but procedures may contain constraints on the system used. To use an RNP based procedure, the aircraf RNAV system must be approved or the published RNP and it must be confirmed beore flight that the related VOR/DME stations are in act working! Beore flight, the pilot must also veriy that the aircraf will be able to meet the RNP requirements or the segments to be flown as well as continue to monitor the system accuracy. 7.17
• • • •
Turns. There are our kinds o turn that may be specified or an RNAV procedure:
Turn at a fly-by waypoint; Turn at a fly-over waypoint; Turn at an altitude/height; and Fixed radius turn (generally or RNP based procedures)
7.18 Use o FMS to Follow Conventional Departure Procedures. Where FMS is available, it may be used when flying the conventional departure procedures defined, provided the procedure is monitored using the basic display normally associated with that procedure, and the tolerances or flight using raw data on the basic display are complied with.
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I n s t r u m e n t P r o c e d u r e s D e p a r t u r e s
Figure 7.11
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Questions Questions 1.
During a straight departure, the initial track is to be:
a. b. c. d. 2.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at DER is:
a. b. c. d.
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Q u e s t i o n s
3.
Obstacle identification surace. Obstacles in surace. Obstacle identification slope. Obstruction identification surace.
The MSA which must be established around a navigation acility used in instrument procedures is in general valid within a sector o:
a. b. c. d.
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Distance to end o route. Departure end o route. Distance to end o runway. Departure end o runway.
What does the abbreviation OIS stand or?
a. b. c. d. 7.
20 NM. 30 NM. 25 NM. 15 NM.
What does the abbreviation DER stand or?
a. b. c. d. 6.
15 km. 20 km. 10 km. 5 km.
The MSA provides 300 m obstacle clearance within how many miles radius o the navigation acility at the aerodrome?
a. b. c. d. 5.
0 f. 3.3% gradient. 35 f. 0.8% gradient.
Turning departures provide track guidance within what distance o the completion o turns?
a. b. c. d. 4.
within 5° o runway centre line. within 10° o runway centre line. within 15° o runway centre line. within 25° o runway centre line.
15 NM. 30 NM. 25 NM. 10 NM.
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Questions 8.
In a straight departure, what is the alignment o the initial track reerenced to the runway centre line?
a. b. c. d. 9.
In general, what is the main actor that dictates the design o an instrument procedure?
a. b. c. d. 10.
s n o i t s e u Q
calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to ollow it. fly the heading without wind correction. adjust the track specified to allow or the wind. fly the heading to make good the required track allowing or the wind.
300 m. 120 m. 150 m. 250 m.
I the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to:
a. b. c. d. 13.
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For an omni-directional departure, the procedure dictates that the aircraf climbs on the extended centre line to a specified height beore turning. What is this height?
a. b. c. d. 12.
The availability o navigation aids. Airspace restrictions. The terrain surrounding the aerodrome. ATC requirements.
When ollowing a SID, the pilot must:
a. b. c. d. 11.
Within 45°. Within 12.5°. Within 15°. Within 30°.
correct or the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace. ask ATC or another heading to steer correcting or wind. ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track. ask ATC or permission to correct heading or wind.
What is the value o PDG?
a. b. c. d.
5% 3.3° 3.3% 2.5%
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Answers
Answers 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
c
a
c
c
d
a
c
c
c
d
b
a
13 c
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A n s w e r s
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Chapter
8 Approach Procedures
Procedure Basics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 167 Approach Procedure Design . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 170 Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 177 Operating Minima . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 177 Descent Gradients. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 180 Track Reversal and Racetracks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 181 Missed Approach Segment and Procedure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 185 Published Inormation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 186 RNAV Approach Procedures based on VOR/DME . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 189 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Approach Procedures Procedure Basics 8.1 Introduction. Whilst in many ways the problems associated with arrivals are similar to those associated with departures, the primary concern o the procedure designer will inevitably be terrain clearance until the pilot is in a position to land the aircraf once in visual contact with the underlying ground. The initial design o an instrument approach procedure is, in general, dictated by the terrain surrounding the aerodrome. It is also affected by the type o operations and the types o aeroplane flying the procedures. These actors in turn, influence the types and positioning o navigation aids in relation to the runway or aerodrome. As we have already seen or departure procedures, airspace restriction may also affect the design o the procedure. 8.2 Responsibility o ATC. Should a pilot report, or it is clear to ATC that the pilot is unamiliar with an instrument approach procedure, the ATCU is responsible or describing the procedure to the pilot unless the aircraf is cleared or a straight-in approach.
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8.3 Speed/Categories o Aircraf. As with departure procedures, aircraf speed is an important consideration. Whist the critical speed is the speed at which the aircraf crosses the threshold o the landing runway (Vat) as this will affect the spacing o aircraf on the approach, approach speeds will determine the dimensions o the areas within which manoeuvring may be carried out and hence the OCH calculations. The table below relates speed to the category o the aircraf (A-E).
Aircraf Category
Vat
Initial Approach speed range
Final Approach speed range
Max Speed or Visual Circling
A
<91
90/150 (110*)
70/100
100
B
91/120
120/180 (140*)
85/130
135
C
121/140
160/240
115/160
180
D
141/165
185/250
130/185
205
E
166/210
185/250
155/230
240
Vat = Speed at threshold based on 1.3 × VS0 or 1.23 × stall speed (V S1g) in landing configuration at max certificated landing mass * Maximum speed or track reversal or racetrack procedures Figure 8.1 Aircraf categories or approach procedures
8.4 Minimum Sector Altitudes (MSA)/Terminal Arrival Altitudes (TAA). For each aerodrome, MSA/TAA are established to provide at least 300 m (984 f) obstacle clearance within 25 NM o the navigation aid, IAF or IF associated with the approach procedures or that aerodrome. MSA/TAA is shown on all instrument plates and will be the lowest altitude permitted at the appropriate fix (normally the altitude at which the procedure begins). An arriving aircraf is permitted to descend below MSA only when: the aerodrome and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so, the aircraf is under radar control being radar vectored, or the aircraf is flying a published approach procedure.
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Figure 8.2
A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
8.5 Types o Procedure. Broadly, instrument procedures are defined in terms what guidance is provided. ICAO defines these as:
• Precision Procedures (runway approach) Categories I/II/III • Non-precision Procedures (aerodrome approach) 8.6 Precision. A precision approach procedure gives accurate track guidance (azimuth) during the final approach segment and inormation concerning height above the threshold o the runway (elevation). In all cases external equipment is required to provide the necessary data. By flying the required track and glide path within the required accuracy o hal scale deflection o the course deviation indicator (CDI), the aircraf is kept within a protected area which ensures terrain clearance (above OCA/H) throughout the procedure. ILS, MLS and Precision Approach Radar (PAR) are examples o equipment that can be used as part o a precision approach system. In the USA GLS (GPS landing systems) are now in use and first indications are that accuracy in the order o +/- 30 cm to the centre line are achievable. In the design o the procedure (azimuth and elevation requirements), obstacle clearance is implicit i the descent path (glide path) is adhered to. Because a precision approach terminates at the touchdown point (or at the commencement o a mi ssed approach) it is ofen reerred to as a runway approach. For a precision approach the pilot is required to calculate the height on the final approach at which he/she must make a decision either to land or go around (fly the missed approach procedure). This is called Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H) and reflects the Operator’s declared aerodrome operating minima (covered in Operational Procedures). Guidance on the calculation o DA/H is contained in the Operations Manual. DA/H is defined as the specific altitude (or height) in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated i the required visual reerence to continue the approach has not been established. The Operator is also required to speciy the required visual criteria in the Operations Manual. 8.7 Glideslope out. Should the glideslope become unserviceable and the pilot lose glide path indications, the approach become a non-precision approach 8.8 Precision Categories. It must be emphasized that at DA/H, i the approach has been flown correctly, the aircraf will be at the place it should be and must thereore be sae, and urther descent along track must also be sae (i the visibili ty was perect, the aeroplane would be at the same place and height, and the approach would be continued anyway!). Except where the ‘system’ (ground equipment and aeroplane equipment) permits ‘blind’ landing, the latter stage o the final approach will be flown visually (the pilot will need visual reerence to complete the landing). In order to accomplish this, a minimum RVR is required and also a visual
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Approach Procedures means o maintaining the centre line o the runway once on the ground. As technology has advanced, systems, specifically ILS, have become more accurate in track and height guidance. The use o ‘on board’ computer systems (FMS) to interpret received data and to control the aeroplane means that the visual element can be reduced to the minimum. ILS systems are categorized by accuracy o operation. The categories are as ollows, but beware; there are anomalies between ICAO and JAR OPS requirements. System Minima is discussed in section 8.31 below. For Air Law, only the ICAO requirements are examinable. The ICAO categories are: • Cat I
System Minima 60 m (200 f); DH ≥ 60 m (200 f), and RVR not less than 550 m or ground visibility not less than 800 m
• Cat II
System Minima 30 m (100 f); DH < 60 m (200 f) but ≥ 30 m (100 f), and RVR not less than 350 m
• Cat IIIA
No system minima; DH < 30 m (100 f) or no DH, and RVR not less than 200 m
• Cat IIIB
No system minima; DH < 15 m (50 f) or no DH, and RVR less than 200 m but more than 50 m
• Cat IIIC
No system minima; no DH and no RVR requirements
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8.9 Non-precision. Where there is no ground equipment that can provide height (elevation) data to the aircraf, the procedure is defined as non-precision although the track guidance accuracy may be as good as that required or precision. Non-precision procedures can be established where track guidance is provided by VOR or NDB, or by track guidance elements o precision systems i.e. ILS localizer only or PAR in azimuth only. Another type o non-precision system is surveillance radar on a reduced range scale (SRA). Because there is no reerence to touchdown or non-precision procedures and the procedures always terminate above touchdown, the procedures are sometimes reerred to as aerodrome approach procedures. Indeed, some procedures are specified or approach to the aerodrome, ollowed by a circling manoeuvre complying with defined visual criteria to land in a direction other than that o the straight-in approach. This is known as Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) and is discussed in detail in Chapter 9. 8.10 Visual Approach. In all cases, once established on final approach, the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually providing, o course, that he/she has the necessary visual criteria specified by the operator. This is not VFR! It is completing the IFR procedure visually. Unless Cat IIIC applies, the pilot will need some orm o visual criteria anyway, so i the criterion is obtained at 7 miles rom touchdown, what is the difference! However, separation is the responsibility o ATC because there may be aircraf behind and in ront o you undertaking instrument approaches. 8.11 Completing the Procedure. Once an instrument procedure has been commenced the pilot must complete the procedure as published unless given contrary instructions by ATC. Even i the final approach is flown visually, the requirements o the procedure must be complied with. An instrument approach ends with either a successul landing or completion o the missed approach procedure. In any event, i the procedure is abandoned afer passing the IAF, the missed approach procedure must be flown, starting rom the MAPt, with the aircraf climbing to the altitude specified or the missed approach as soon as possible (this will usually be the highest MSA or the lowest altitude specified or commencing the procedure at the IAF).
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Approach Procedures 8.12 Limitations. An instrument approach shall not be continued beyond the outer marker fix, or i no OM is provided the equivalent position, in case o precision approach, or below 300 m (1000 f) above the aerodrome in case o non-precision approach, unless the reported visibility or controlling RVR is above the specified minimum. I, afer passing the outer marker fix, or equivalent position, in case o precision approach, or afer descending below 300 m (1000 f) above the aerodrome in case o non-precision approach, the reported visibility or controlling RVR alls below the specified minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H. I the required visual criteria are then obtained at DH, the aircraf may be landed.
Approach Procedure Design 8.13 Procedure Requirements. An instrument approach procedure requires the aeroplane to be flown in sae airspace. In order to remain in sae airspace the required track o the aeroplane must be achievable and the altitude limitations which need to be applied must be commensurate with what is trying to be achieved. As the procedure takes the aeroplane closer to the runway/aerodrome and closer to the ground, the saety limitations must be increased not relaxed. Until 3-D satellite navigation technology is widely available and proved reliable, the system o guidance in azimuth and elevation will rely on ground based equipment which has inherent errors. Providing the error tolerances are known and the design o the procedure detailing the flight path to be flown takes the error tolerances into account, the procedure will be usable. It does o course require the pilot (or the auto-pilot) to be able to fly the aeroplane to the required basic accuracy to keep the aeroplane in the airspace specified. The procedure will define tracks to be made good, thereore the pilot must make allowance or the wind. An instrument approach procedure has five separate segments, each o which has a specific purpose. Each o the five segments begins and ends at a designated fix. It is, however, possible or segments to begin at specified points i no fix is available. For instance, the final approach segment o a precision approach may begin at the point o intersection o the intermediate flight altitude and the glide path.
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Figure 8.3 Procedure segments
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Approach Procedures 8.14 Procedure Segments. An approach procedure consists o five parts or segments. These are:
• • • • •
The Arrival Segment or Route (see 8.20 below) The Initial Segment (see 8.21 below) The Intermediate Segment (see 8.22 below) The Final Segment (see 8.23 below) The Missed Approach Segment and Procedure (see 8.47 below)
8.15 Straight-in Approach. Wherever possible a straight-in approach will be specified in which each segment is aligned with the extended runway centre line. However, a non-precision approach may speciy the final approach track converging to the runway heading at an angle o 30° or less. In all cases, the procedures depict still air tracks and pilots are required to make allowance or the wind to make good the specified track. I terrain or other restrictions preclude a straight-in approach, a circling approach will be specified. In addition, an aircraf may be offered an omni-directional or sector arrival by ATC when appropriate and taking into consideration the MSA (Minimum Saety Altitude). The definition o being established on an NDB is to be within 5° either side o the final approach track.
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8.16 Physical Characteristics o Segments. The vertical cross section o each segment is divided into primary and secondary MOC areas. Full obstacle clearance is applied over the primary area, reducing to zero at the outer edges o the secondary areas.
Figure 8.4 Characteristics o segments
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Approach Procedures 8.17 Fixes and Fix Accuracy. The fixes used in instrument procedures are generally based on data rom radio navigation aids e.g. VOR. The fix may be an ‘on top’ to a beacon or a point defined by a DME range on a specified radial (way point). In any event, the accuracy o the fix is o paramount importance because the width o the MOC area will be based upon this. For ‘on top’ fixes the type o aid is a limiting actor. For instance, a VOR is designed to give accurate track guidance but is quite poor in giving an ‘on top’ indication due to the size o the ‘cone o conusion’ over the beacon. An NDB, on the other hand, gives a better ‘on top’ but the track guidance is worse! Where an accurate ‘on top’ is required, e.g. the outer marker o a CAT 1 ILS, a 75 MHz (or ‘Z’ or ‘an’ marker) is used which is designed specifically or that purpose. Where a fix is specified using inormation rom two separate systems e.g. VOR radial and DME range, the inaccuracies o each system must be aggregated to define a fix tolerance area. In determining the accuracy o fixes the ollowing bearing error is assumed:
8
• VOR • ILS Localizer • NDB
A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
± 4.5° ± 1.4° ± 10.3°
Figure 8.5
8.18 Track Guidance Accuracy. The width o the MOC area is also dependent upon the accuracy o the track guidance provided by the navigation aids used. The track accuracy or the various aids is defined as ollows:
• VOR • ILS Localizer • NDB 8.19
± 5.2° ± 2.4° ± 6.9°
Fix Tolerances or other navigation aids.
• Terminal Area Surveillance Radar (TAR) : Within 20 NM = ±1.5 km (0.8 NM) • En route Surveillance Radar (RSR) : Within 40 NM = ±3.1 kms (1.7 NM) • DME : ±0.46 km (0.25 NM) + 1.25 per cent o the distance to the antenna
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Figure 8.6
8.20 Arrival Route/Segment. The arrival segment begins at the point the aircraf departs rom the en route airways system to begin the instrument arrival. T his will normally be a radio navigation acility. I this is 25 NM or more rom the aerodrome, a standard arrival route (STAR) will be specified. The STAR plate below shows the arrival routes or London Heathrow rom the northwest (via the Ockham (OCK) VOR). I the distance is less than 25 NM then the aircraf will route directly rom the point o leaving the airway to the acility serving as the IAF or the procedure. In either case, the en route MOC is applied and the altitude specified or the aircraf to be over the IAF is not below the highest MSA or the aerodrome. It is usual or aircraf to be radar vectored rom a convenient point, to the final approach track.
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Figure 8.7
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Approach Procedures 8.21 Initial Segment. In the initial segment, the aircraf is directed to a point at which the intermediate segment can be intercepted. It starts at the IAF and ends at the IF. Aircraf speed and configuration will depend upon distance rom the aerodrome and any need or descent. MOC in the initial segment is 300 m (984 f). Track guidance is normally provided with a maximum intercept angle to the IF o 90° or a precision approach and 120° or a non-precision approach. I track guidance to the IF is not available, a DR segment may be specified. For the DR segment, the interception angle to the intermediate segment track must be no greater then 45°, and the length o the DR track, no more than 10 NM. Where a straight-in approach is not easible or there is no suitable remote IAF or IF, a track reversal, racetrack or holding pattern is required.
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Figure 8.8 IAF to IF (precision approach)
Figure 8.9 IAF to IF (non-precision approach)
8.22 Intermediate Segment. This is the segment in which the aircraf speed and configuration is adjusted to prepare or the final approach. Descent in this segment is kept to a minimum. It starts at the IF and ends at the FAF. I no FAF exists, it ends when the aircraf is established on the final inbound track. The MOC in the intermediate segment reduces rom 300 m at the IF to 150 m at the end o the segment. 8.23 Final Segment. The beginning o the final segment depends upon the type o approach and the availability o a suitable FAF. In this segment, the aircraf is finally configured, alignment with the runway takes place and descent or landing is commenced.
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8 A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
Figure 8.10 IAF to IF (DR segment)
8.24 Non-precision with FAF. For a non-precision procedure with a FAF, the final segment starts at the FAF and ends at the MAPt. The FAF will be positioned on the final approach track at a distance rom the threshold o the landing runway that permits aircraf configuration or final approach/landing and descent rom the intermediate altitude to the MDA/H. MOC is incorporated in the calculation o MDA/H. The optimum distance o the FAF rom the threshold is 5 NM and the maximum is 10 NM. The required descent gradient should be 300 f/NM (approx 3°). A step-down fix may be incorporated or obstacle clearance purposes in which case, two OCA/H values will be published.
Figure 8.11 Step-down fix
8.25 Non-precision without FAF. This situation will normally occur at an aerodrome where there is only one acility on or near the aerodrome that is used as both the IAF and the MAPt. In this case it is unlikely that the final approach track will be aligned with the runway centre line and thereore descent to MDA/H will be made when the aircraf is established inbound on the final approach track. 8.26 Precision Approach. For ILS/MLS the final segment begins at the Final Approach Point (FAP). This is defined as the point in space on localizer centre line (or the specified MLS azimuth) where the intermediate approach altitude intercepts the nominal glide path. This can occur at heights between 300 m (1000 f) and 900 m (3000 f) which in the case o a 3° (300 f/NM) glide path, will be between 3 NM and 10 NM rom touchdown. MOC is included in the calculation or DA/H but requires the pilot to fly the aircraf with no more than hal scale
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Approach Procedures deflection o the CDI. At some point during the final segment, a fix will be specified where glide path inormation can be verified. 8.27 Constant Approach Slope (Stabilized Approach). Primarily or the avoidance o wake turbulence separation but also or economy and noise abatement, a procedure known as stabilized approach has been developed. The procedure requires the aircraf to depart rom the IAF and descend at a constant rate throughout the procedure. Wake turbulence separation (see Chapter 16) is only applicable between approaching aircraf where the second aircraf is at the same altitude as, or within 1000 f below, the preceding aircraf. So, by ensuring that the subsequent aircraf is always above the preceding aircraf there is no requirement or wake turbulence separation. Control o the rate o descent is achieved by aircraf attitude negating the need or power changes thus reducing noise. Also, by setting a constant power, economy in uel usage is achieved.
8
8.28 Missed Approach. In the event that the necessary visual criteria is not obtained at DA/H or MDA/H the final part o an instrument procedure permits a return to the IAF or another attempt or to establish the aircraf on a departure profile to go to another (alternate) aerodrome.
s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height 8.29 Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height (OCA/H). During the development stage o the design o a procedure, the OCA/H is determined by the authority o the state through survey. This will be the altitude/height at or above which an aircraf must be flown to avoid the dominant obstacle. It will consist o the height o the obstacle plus the minimum o bstacle clearance (MOC) allowance. This inormation will be published on the instrument procedure plate and is aircraf category dependent. OCA/H is the lowest that MDA/H can be. 8.30 DA/H or Precision Approach Procedure. This is defined as the lowest altitude or height at which a missed approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. The reerence datum or a precision approach is always the threshold o the landing runway. 8.31 OCA/H or Non-precision Approach. This is defined as the lowest altitude or height below which the aircraf cannot descend without inringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. For non-precision procedures the reerence datum is the aerodrome elevation or the elevation o the relevant runway threshold (i the threshold is more than 2 m (7 f) below the aerodrome elevation). 8.32 OCA/H or Visual Manoeuvre (Circling) (VM(C)). This is defined as the lowest altitude or height above the aerodrome elevation, below which the aircraf cannot descend without inringing the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria. It is based on the highest obstacle in the VM(C) area with respect to the aerodrome elevation.
Operating Minima 8.33 Operating Minima. In accordance with Annex 6 and JAR-OPS 1, the operator is required to ensure that the aerodrome minima are specified or all aerodromes used in the operation. Part o this ensures that in all cases, DA/H or MDA/H is calculated taking into account the OCA/H published and the upper margin. The upper margin is specified by the operator and may be zero in which case DA/H or MDA/H would be the same as OC A/H. It takes into account data that is variable in nature i.e. the crew qualification, the OAT, anomalies in the configuration o the instrument system, the type, perormance and handling characteristics o the aeroplane, the dimensions and characteristics o the runway, the visual and non-visual aids,
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Approach Procedures the obstacles on the approach,missed approach areas and climb-out areas, aircraf equipment and the means used to measure and report the meteorological conditions. 8.34 System Minima. To ensure that the minima are realistic and give sufficient ‘buffer’ to allow or anomalies, or each method o conducting an instrument approach, a minimum height above the datum is specified below which an approach is not permitted to continue without the necessary visual reerence. This height is known as system minima and overrides a lower DH or MDH. For instance, the system minimum or a CAT 1 ILS is 200 f. I OCH plus the upper margin or a CAT 1 ILS approach is calculated at 170 f, then system minimum would prevail and DH would be 200 f. I on the other hand, DH is calculated at 230 f then, as this is higher than system minimum, DH remains 230 f. For Air Law, the student is only required to know the system minima or ILS CATs I/II/III. Note that or CAT III, DH can be zero; thereore system minimum or CAT III must also be zero.
8 A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
Category
System minimum
CAT I
60 m (200 f)
CAT II
30 m (100 f)
CAT III
Not applicable
Figure 8.12 ICAO system minima or ILS
8.35 Calculation o DA/H. The diagrammatic representation o the method o calculation o DA/H is shown below.
Figure 8.13 Method o determining DA/H or precision approaches
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Approach Procedures 8.36 Specific Data or ILS/MLS. In determining the criteria or DA/H or ILS/MLS other data needs to be taken into account and requirements specified. Wing span and the vertical distance between the wheels and the glide path (GP) aerial limitations are specified as ollows:
Aircraf category
Wing Span (m)
Vertical distance between the wheels and the GP aerial
H
30
3 metres
A, B
60
6 metres
C, D
65
7 metres
DL
80
8 metres
Figure 8.14
8 s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Note: Category DL has been included to cater or the A380. Category H reers to Helicopters.
Other criteria or ILS include: • • • •
CAT I is flown with pressure altimeter CAT II is flown with radio altimeter and flight director Missed approach climb gradient is 2.5% Glide path angle is 2.5° minimum and 3.5° maximum. CAT II/III requires 3°
8.37 Calculation o MDA/H. The diagrammatic representation o the method o calculation o MDA/H is shown below.
Figure 8.15 Method o determining MDA/MDH or non-precision approaches
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Approach Procedures 8.38 Calculation o MDA/H or VM(C). The diagrammatic representation o the method o calculation o DA/H is shown below
8 A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
Figure 8.16 Method o determining MDA/MDH or circling approaches
Descent Gradients 8.39 Descent Gradient. The design o procedures must allow adequate space or descent rom the published height crossing the acility, to the runway threshold. This is achieved by establishing a maximum allowable descent gradient or each segment o the procedure with the most critical being the final segment where threshold speed (or the ability to decelerate to it) will be a unction o gradient. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed 5.2% (50 m/km; approx 300 f/NM) which is equivalent to a 3° glide path. Where a steeper gradient is necessary the maximum permissible is 6.5% (65 m/km (400 f/NM) which is equivalent to a 3.8° glide path). In the case o a precision approach the operationally preerred glide path angle is 3° and this is mandatory or CAT II/III. An ILS GP in excess o 3° is used only where an alternative means o satisying obstacle clearance requirements is impractical. 8.40 High Rate Descents. Gradients over 6.5% may result in descent rates exceeding the recommended maximum rate o descent or some aircraf. Pilots flying such approaches should be aware o this beore starting the approach. High rate descents are not permitted as a means o avoiding noise abatement procedures. Where GPs greater than 6.5% are established (e.g. 9.5% /5.5° at London City), the authority o the state in which the aerodrome is situated must give specific approval; the operator must be approved to carry out high rate descents; specially approved aircraf must be used and pilots specially trained.
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Approach Procedures Track Reversal and Racetracks 8.41 Requirement. I a straight-in approach is not possible (or easible), a procedure may be established using a acility on the aerodrome that serves both as the IAF and the MAPt. In this case, some orm o track reversal procedure will be required in which the aircraf is flown outbound rom the acility on a defined track, and then turned to fly inbound back towards the acility. This may be a procedure turn or a base turn. 8.42 Procedure Turn. A procedure turn is defined as a turn rom outbound to inbound in which the tracks flown are reciprocal. There are two types:
8 s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Figure 8.17 Track reversal - procedure turn
8.43 45°/180° Procedure Turn. This requires track guidance to a point (timed or DME) where a 45° turn is made ollowed by a straight leg o either 1 minute (category A or B aircraf) or 1 minute and 15 seconds (category C, D and E). At the end o the timed leg a rate 1 turn is made through 180° to bring the aircraf into a position to intercept the reciprocal o the outbound track at an interception angle o 45°.
CAT A and B = 1 min CAT C, D and E = 1 min 15 sec
45°/180° Procedure Turn Figure 8.18 45°/180° - procedure turn
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Approach Procedures 8.44 80°/260° Procedure Turn. This requires track guidance to a point (timed or DME) where an 80° rate 1 turn is made ollowed immediately by an opposite direction 260° rate 1 turn. In still air, this should bring the aircraf on to the reciprocal o the outbound track. Also in still air, the procedure should take exactly 2 minutes.
Start of turn defined by fix or may be timed
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80°/260° Procedure Turn
A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
Figure 8.19 80°/260° - procedure turn
Figure 8.20 Procedure turn shown on an approach plate
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Approach Procedures 8.45 Base Turn. Where accurate outbound track guidance can be provided by an NDB or VOR, a base turn can be specified where the inbound track is not the reciprocal o the outbound track. The specified outbound track is ollowed to a predetermined point at which a rate 1 turn is made so that the aircraf rolls out on the required inbound track.
End of outbound leg may be timed or defined by DME
8 s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Base Turn Figure 8.21 Base turn
Figure 8.22 Base turn shown on an approach plate
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Approach Procedures 8.46 Racetrack Procedure. A racetrack consists o a turn rom the inbound track through 180° at the acility or a fix afer which, the outbound leg is fl own to a point defined by time or a fix at which another turn through 180° is made to bring the aircraf back on to the inbound track. It is used where aircraf are required to enter a holding pattern prior to commencing the instrument procedure, and where the orientation o the holding pattern does not permit either a procedure turn or a base turn to be used. It will normally be specified as an ‘alternate procedure’ and specific instructions will be included on the plate.
Orientation of holding pattern does not permit a procedure turn or base turn
8
Normal reversing turn procedure
A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
‘Racetrack’ is an extension of the outbound leg to a defined fix, where an inbound turn is commenced
Figure 8.23 Racetrack procedure
Figure 8.24 Racetrack shown on an approach plate
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Approach Procedures Missed Approach Segment and Procedure 8.47 The Procedure. I the necessary visual criteria are not obtained at decision altitude/ height (DA/H) or minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H), or at any time during the instrument approach procedure that the pilot is unable to continue the approach, the instrument procedure requires the pilot to fly a missed approach. This procedure is always detailed on the instrument plate together with the loss o RTF procedure. The published inormation will always include a climb to at least MSA and as soon as the pilot elects to fly the missed approach procedure, a climb to that altitude should be initiated. I the aircraf is already at that altitude, it should be maintained. The climb gradient or the procedure is normally 2.5%. A missed approach procedure consists o three phases:
• Initial missed approach • Intermediate missed approach • Final missed approach
8 s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Figure 8.25 Three phases o the missed approach
8.48 Initiating the Procedure (The Initial Phase). The initial missed approach begins at the missed approach point (MAPt) and ends where the climb is established. The manoeuvre in this phase necessitates the attention o the pilot on establishing the climb and the changes in aeroplane configuration to get the aircraf away rom the ground with increasing altitude. For this reason, guidance equipment cannot normally be ully utilized during these manoeuvres and thereore no turns are specified in this phase. The missed approach is assumed to be initiated not lower than the DA/H in a precision approach, or at a specified point in non-precision approach procedure, not lower than the MDA/H. When the MAPt is defined by reerence to a navigational acility or a fix (or instance the middl e marker), the distance rom the FAF to the MAPt is normally published as well, and may be used or timing to the MAPt. In all cases where timing is not to be used, the procedure is to be annotated “timing not authorized or defining the MAPt”. The MAPt may be defined in a procedure as:
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Approach Procedures • • • •
The point o intersection o the glide path with the applicable DA/H A navigational acility A fix A specified distance rom the FAF.
8.49 Navigation. I, upon reaching the MAPt, the required visual reerence is not established, the procedure requires that a missed approach be initiated at once in order or protection rom obstacles to be maintained. It is expected that the pilot will fly the missed approach as published. In the event that a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the MAPt, it is expected that the pilot will proceed to the MAPt and then ollow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace. This does not preclude flying over the MAPt at an altitude/height higher than that required by the procedure. 8
8.50 Intermediate Phase. This is the phase in which the climb is continued, normally s traight ahead but turns up to 15° (within the straight departure criteria) are permitted. The MOC in this segment is 30 m and the segment extends to the first point where 50 m (164 f) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. The climb gradient in this sector is 2.5% paralleling the OIS.
A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
8.51 Final Phase. The final phase begins at the point where 50 m (164 f) obstacle clearance is first obtained and can be maintained. It extends to the point where a new approach, holding or a return to en route flight is initiated. Full turns may be prescribed in this phase.
Published Information 8.52 Terminal Approach Plates. Inormation concerning instrument arrivals is published on Terminal Arrival Plates (usually reerred to just as ‘plates’). The plates shown here are the UK CAA plates or the London Luton sel positioned ILS or runway 08. The design o the plate meets the requirement o ICAO Annex 4. Commercially produced plates are available (Jeppesen; Aerad etc…) and some operators produce their own. An ICAO plate will not show aerodrome operating minima as this is the responsibility o the operator to determine, not the state.
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Approach Procedures
8 s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Figure 8.26
187
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Approach Procedures
8 A p p r o a c h P r o c e d u r e s
Figure 8.27
Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height
OCA/H for visual manoeuvre (circling)
OCA (OCH)
VM(C) OCA (OCH AAL)
CAT I
CAT II
TOTAL AREA
A
654(139)
564 (49)
1000(474)
B
662(147)
575 (60)
1100(574)
C
672(157)
588 (73)
1300(774)
D
681(166)
600 (85)
1300(774)
RECOMMENDED PROFILE
RATE OF DESCENT
GLIDE PATH 3º. 320 FT/NM DME I-LTN
ALT/HGT
G/S KT
FT/MIN
4
1840 (1325)
160
850
3
1520 (1005)
140
740
2
1210 (695)
120
630
1
890 (375)
100
530
80
420
Figure 8.28
188
Note: This is not 'aid' dependent. It is an aerodrome characteristic
Note: For information and cross reference only
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Approach Procedures RNAV Approach Procedures based on VOR/DME 8.53 Basic Assumption. RNAV procedures based on VOR/DME are non-precision procedures. It is assumed that the reerence acility is composed o a VOR and co-located DME equipment. Aircraf equipped with RNAV systems approved by the authority o the State o the Operator may use these systems to carry out VOR/DME RNAV approaches providing that beore starting a flight it is ensured that:
• The RNAV equipment is serviceable; • The pilot has current knowledge how to operate the equipment so as to achieve the optimum level o accuracy; and • The published VOR/DME acility upon which the procedure is based is serviceable. 8
8.54 Data Insertion Errors. The procedures require a computer to handle the data and this has to be programmed with current promulgated data. This is inserted by the operator or the crew and the system has no method o checking or input errors. Thereore, the computed positional inormation presented (‘outputted’) to the crew may well contain errors induced into the system.
s e r u d e c o r P h c a o r p p A
Figure 8.29
8.55
• • • • •
Accuracy. The actors affecting accuracy o the VOR/DME RNAV system are:
Ground station tolerance Airborne receiving system tolerance Flight technical tolerance System computational tolerance Distance rom the reerence acility
The equipment may be used when carrying out conventional (non-RNAV) instrument procedures providing the procedure is monitored using the basic display normally associated with that procedure, and the tolerances or using raw data on the basic display are complied with. 189
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Questions Questions 1.
What radius rom a terminal VOR is MSA provided?
a. b. c. d. 2.
What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment o a missed approach?
a. b. c. d.
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Q u e s t i o n s
3.
d.
OCA/H. 200 f. 350 f. 400 f.
What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment rom the initial approach segment or a non-precision approach?
a. b. c. d.
190
1 NM. 5 NM. 10 NM. 15 NM.
For a straight-in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than:
a. b. c. d. 7.
is not more than 150 m. reduces rom 300 m to 150 m. is equal to or greater than 300 m. is 500 m in mountainous terrain.
What is the optimum distance o the FAF rom the threshold?
a. b. c. d. 6.
an approach using bearing, elevation and distance inormation. an approach with a crew o at least 2 pilots trained or such operations. an instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide path inormation provided by an ILS or a PAR. an approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance inormation.
The MOC in the primary area o the intermediate approach segment:
a. b. c. d. 5.
5.5%. 2.5%. 0.8%. 3.3%.
A precision approach procedure is defined as:
a. b. c.
4.
25 NM. 10 NM. 15 NM. 15 km.
30°. 45°. 120°. 15°.
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Questions 8.
An instrument approach is made up o a number o segments. How many o them are there?
a. b. c. d. 9.
4 5 3 6
On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start?
a. b. c. d.
DH FAF FAP MAPt 8
10.
On an instrument approach, part o the procedure enables the aircraf to return inbound rom outbound with tracks flown being reciprocal. This is called:
a. b. c. d. 11.
3°. 5%. 6.5%. 4.5°.
For the intermediate section o a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
a. b. c. d. 14.
A, B and C. A only. A and B. C, D and E.
On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
a. b. c. d. 13.
base turn. procedure turn. reverse procedure. racetrack.
Which categories o aircraf fly the 45° leg o a procedure turn or 1 minute?
a. b. c. d. 12.
s n o i t s e u Q
30 m. 100 m. 50 m. 120 m.
During an initial approach, what is the turn between the outbound track and the inbound track where the tracks flown are not reciprocal?
a. b. c. d.
Reverse turn. Race track. Procedure turn. Base turn.
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Questions 15.
What are the Cat II ILS criteria or instrument runways?
a. b. c. d. 16.
17.
Q u e s t i o n s
10°. 15°. 30°. 40°.
What is the name o the phase o an instrument approach in which the aircraf is aligned with the runway and descent commenced?
a. b. c. d.
192
Non-precision and CAT I/II/III precision. Precision in general. Precision CAT I/II/III. Instrument precision and CAT II/III.
Within what angle o the extended centre line o a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be straight-in?
a. b. c. d. 21.
Initial segment. Final segment. Arrival segment. Intermediate segment.
What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?
a. b. c. d. 20.
30 m. 50 m. 120 m. 300 m.
In which stage o an instrument approach do you align with the runway?
a. b. c. d. 19.
Not more than ½ scale glide path and ull scale localizer deflection. Not more than ½ scale localizer deflection. Not more than ½ scale glide path and localizer deflection. Not more than ull scale glide path and ½ scale localizer deflection.
What is the MOC or the intermediate missed approach segment?
a. b. c. d. 18.
DH not below 100 f. DH not below 100 f. DH not below 200 f. DH not below 200 f.
When is OCH or an ILS approach complied with?
a. b. c. d. 8
RVR ≥ 350 m RVR ≥ 200 m RVR ≥ 200 m RVR ≥ 300 m
Final. Initial. Intermediate. Arrival.
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Questions 22.
At what point does the intermediate phase o a missed approach end?
a. b. c. d. 23.
The 45° leg o a 45°/180° procedure turn or a Cat C aircraf is:
a. b. c. d. 24.
Yes. Never. Sometimes. It depends on the flight conditions.
3%. 3.3%. 5%. 2.5%.
6 m. 7 m. 3 m. 12 m.
What is the turn rom outbound to inbound called where the tracks flown are not reciprocal?
a. b. c. d. 28.
s n o i t s e u Q
On a precision approach (ILS), the OCH(A) is based among other standard conditions, on the vertical limits between the flight path o the wheels and the glide path antenna. For a Category C aircraf this should not be more than:
a. b. c. d. 27.
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For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is:
a. b. c. d. 26.
1 min. 1 min 15 seconds. 1 min 30 seconds. continued until interception o the glide slope.
Is it permitted to fly over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA?
a. b. c. d. 25.
When 30 metres obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained. When 50 metres obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained. When 75 metres obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained. When 90 metres obstacle clearance is attained and can be maintained.
Base turn. Procedure turn. Reversal procedure. Racetrack procedure.
When ollowing an instrument procedure, the pilot must:
a. b. c. d.
calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to ollow it. fly the heading without wind correction. adjust the track specified to allow or the wind. fly the heading to make good the required track allowing or the wind.
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Questions 29.
Where does the initial phase o a missed approach procedure end?
a. b. c. d. 30.
Who determines OCA/H?
a. b. c. d. 8
31.
Q u e s t i o n s
When a height o 50 m has been achieved and maintained. When established in the climb. At the missed approach point. When en route either to the hold or departure.
When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length o the track that may be used to intercept the localizer?
a. b. c. d.
194
¼ scale deflection. 1½ scale deflection. 1 scale deflection. ½ scale deflection.
Where does the initial sector o a missed approach procedure end?
a. b. c. d. 35.
up to 91 kt. 90 to 121 kt inclusive. 141 to 165 kt inclusive. 91 to 120 kt inclusive.
OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within:
a. b. c. d. 34.
OCH. ILS/DME requencies. Obstacles inringing the OIS. Aerodrome operating minima or the use o the aerodrome as an alternate aerodrome, i higher than normal.
The Vat or a Category B aircraf is:
a. b. c. d. 33.
The operator. The flight operations department. The authority o the State. The Commander.
What does an approach plate not include?
a. b. c. d. 32.
From where a new instrument approach can be commenced. Where 50 f obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. Where a climb is established. At the missed approach point.
10 NM. 5 NM. 10 minutes. 5 minutes.
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Questions 36.
The obstacle clearance suraces or an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy o:
a. b. c. d. 37.
The abbreviation OCH means:
a. b. c. d. 38.
Between 2.5° and 3.5°. 3%. 3°. Up to 400 f/NM.
Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach. Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach. Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing.
15 NM (28 km). 30 NM (55 km). 25 NM (46 km). 20 NM (37 km).
What is the minimum ground visibility or a CAT I ILS approach?
a. b. c. d. 42.
s n o i t s e u Q
The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance o 300 metres within a certain radius rom the navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is:
a. b. c. d. 41.
8
What are the 5 segments o an instrument approach?
a. b. c. d. 40.
obstacle clearance height. obstruction/collision height. obstruction clearance height. obstacle confirmation height.
What is the descent gradient in the final segment or an ILS CAT II approach?
a. b. c. d. 39.
¼ scale. ½ scale. 1 scale. 1 ½ scale.
800 m. 550 m. 50 m. 550 f.
Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure?
a. b. c. d.
At the IF. At the IAF. At the FAF. At the final en route fix.
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Questions 43.
Under which circumstances may an aircraf on a “straight-in” VOR approach continue below MDA/H?
a. b. c. d. 44.
What is the obstacle clearance in the primary area o the intermediate approach segment while on the instrument approach?
a. b. c. d.
8
Q u e s t i o n s
45.
196
300 m (984 f). 450 m (1476 f). 300 m (984 f) reducing to 150 m (492 f). 600 m (1968 f).
What is the MOC in the primary area o the initial segment o an approach?
a. b. c. d. 46.
When it seems possible to land. When the aircraf is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight. When the aircraf has the necessary visual criteria specified by the operator. When the tower is visible.
At least 150 m. At least 300 m. 300 m. 150 m.
When can an aircraf descend below MSA?
1. 2. 3. 4.
The airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so. The aircraf is being radar vectored. The underlying terrain is visible and remains so. The aircraf is ollowing an approach procedure.
a. b. c. d.
1, 2 and 4 only. 1, 3 and 4 only. 2, 3 and 4 only. 1, 2, 3 and 4.
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Questions
8
s n o i t s e u Q
197
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Answers
Answers 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
a
b
c
b
b
a
c
b
c
b
c
c
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
a
d
a
c
a
b
a
c
a
b
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Chapter
9 Circling Approach
Circling Approach . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 201 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Circling Approach Circling Approach 9.1 General. Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) (VM(C)) is the term used to describe the visual phase o flight, afer completing an instrument approach, to bring the aircraf into position or landing on a runway not suitably located or a straight-in approach. Any instrument procedure (precision or non-precision) may be used but the descent in the final segment will be to MDA/H or VM(C) as defined and calculated in 8.38. The procedure is defined as non-precision only, despite the type o approach. 9.2 Visual Flight Manoeuvre. A circling approach is a visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. Each circling situation is different because o variables such as runway layout, final approach track, wind and meteorological conditions. Thereore there can be no single procedure that will cater or every situation. Afer initial visual contact, the basic assumption is that the runway environment (the runway markings, lights or approach lighting etc…) will be kept in sight while at MDA/H or circling.
9 h c a o r p p A g n i l c r i C
9.3 The Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area. VM(C) is only permitted in the VM(C) area. This is determined or each category o aircraf by drawing arcs related to aircraf manoeuvring speed centred on each runway threshold and joining those arcs with tangential lines. The radius o the arcs is related to:
• • • •
Aircraf category Speed (or each category) Wind speed (assumed as 25 kt throughout the turn) Bank angle (20° or rate 1 whichever requires less bank)
9.4 Prohibited Sector. The area may be sectored and VM(C) may be precluded rom a particular sector where unrealistic MDA/H or VM(C) would otherwise exist. In this case, the published inormation will speciy the sector and the restriction.
Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area
R
R
R
R
R is based on aircraft category and speed Figure 9.1
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Circling Approach 9.5 Missed Approach While Circling. I visual reerence is lost while circling to land rom an instrument procedure, the missed approach specified or the instrument approach runway must be ollowed. It is expected that the pilot will make a climbing turn towards the landing runway and when overhead the aerodrome, the pilot will establish the aircraf climbing on the specified missed approach track.
9 C i r c l i n g A p p r o a c h
Figure 9.2
9.6 OCA/H or Visual Manoeuvring (Circling). The table below shows the OCA/H or visual manoeuvring (circling) and the minimum visibility or the procedure. Beware, these are the ICAO data and are different rom the JAR-OPS data which is required learning or Operational Procedures. Aircraf Category
Obstacle Clearance m (f)
Lowest OCH above aerodrome elevation m (f)
Minimum visibility km (NM)
A
90 (295)
120 (394)
1.9 (1.0)
B
90 (295)
150 (492)
2.8 (1.5)
C
120 (394)
180 (591)
3.7 (2.0)
D
120 (394)
210 (689)
4.6 (2.5)
E
150 (492)
240 (787)
6.5 (3.5)
Figure 9.3 OCA/H or visual manoeuvring (Circling)
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Questions Questions 1.
During Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) what is the maximum airspeed or a Cat B aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 2.
When the VM(C) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude /height (OCA/H) is determined or:
a. b. c. d.
9
Q u e s t i o n s
3.
c. d.
a contact approach. the aerodrome traffic pattern. visual manoeuvring (circling). a visual approach.
I visual reerence is lost while circling to land rom an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make a climbing turn towards the:
a. b. c. d.
204
a flight manoeuvre perormed only under radar vectoring. a flight manoeuvre where visual contact with the underlying terrain is maintained. a visual manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. a visual manoeuvre only conducted in IMC.
The term used to describe the visual phase o flight afer completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraf into position or landing on a runway which is not suitably located or a straight-in approach, is called:
a. b. c. d. 6.
prohibits a circling approach to the affected runway. prohibits circling within the sector in which the obstacle exists. permits circling only in VMC. recommends that circling is not carried out in the affected sector.
A circling approach is:
a. b.
5.
all categories o aircraf, and it is the same or all o them. each category o aircraf and it may be different or each o them. only or categories A and B aircraf. only or categories C. D and E aircraf.
It is permissible to eliminate rom consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach areas. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
a. b. c. d. 4.
120 kt. 125 kt. 150 kt. 135 kt.
instrument runway. MAPt. FAF. final missed approach track.
9
Questions 7.
I contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg o a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken?
a. b. c. d. 8.
Turn towards the inner marker or the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude. Initiate a missed approach. Turn 90° towards the runway and wait or visual contact to be re-established. I you other visual cues, continue the approach.
Visual circling or a category B aircraf is to be conducted in visibility not less than:
a. b. c. d.
1500 m. 1600 m. 2800 m. 5000 m. 9
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Chapter
10 Holding Procedures
Holding Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 209 Entry Sectors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 211 ATC Considerations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 213 Obstacle Clearance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 214 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Holding Procedures
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Holding Procedures 10.1 Introduction. Holding is the equivalent to temporary parking areas or aeroplanes. Clearly (unless you are flying a rotorcraf) you cannot stop, but you can remain (hold) in the vicinity o a radio navigation acility or as long as is required (uel permitting!). Providing you can fly the aeroplane accurately and navigate with reerence to a radio navigation aid (VOR, NDB) or a fix position, holding is a easible option or losing time. Indeed, in bad weather or at times o peak traffic flow, you will be lucky to get a ‘straight-in’ approach. All instrument arrivals start rom a holding pattern established at the IAF. In a holding pattern, aircraf are ‘stacked’ up, one on top o another with the necessary vertical separation applied (1000 f). As the bottom aircraf departs the holding pattern to fly the approach procedure, the others above are ‘shuttled’ (descended in the stack) to a lower level one at a time. 10.2 Deviation Warning. It must be noted that deviations rom the in-flight procedures or holding incur the risk o excursions beyond the perimeters o holding areas established in accordance with the provisions o PANS OPS. The procedures described in PANS OPS relate to right turn holding patterns. For lef turn holding patterns, the corresponding entry and holding procedures are symmetrical with respect to the inbound holding track.
0 1 s e r u d e c o r P g n i d l o H
10.3 Shape and Terminology. The shape o holding patterns and the associated terminology are shown below. A standard holding pattern has starboard (right) turns. I port turns are required, the approach plate will be annotated to indicate the act. A lef hand pattern is a mirror image o the standard pattern.
All turns at rate 1 or 25° bank angle whichever requires the lesser bank
Abeam
d
Holding Side
Outbound Outbound End
Fix End Inbound Fix or facility ‘d’ = 1 min in still air at 14 000 and below; and 1½ min above 14 000
Non-holding Side
Figure 10.1 Holding pattern terminology
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Holding Procedures 10.4 Flying the Pattern. In flying the holding pattern described, all turns are to be made at an angle o bank o 25° or at a rate o 3° per second (rate 1), whichever requires the lesser bank. All the procedures depict tracks and pilots should attempt to to maintain the track track by making allowance or known wind by applying corrections both to heading and timing during entry and while flying the holding pattern. Outbound timings begin over or abeam the fix whichever occurs later later.. I the abeam position cannot be determined, determined, start the timing when the turn to outbound is completed. The outbound track should be flown or 1 minute at 14 000 f and below and 1½ minutes above 14 000 f. I the outbound leg is based on a DME distance, the outbound leg terminat terminates es as soon as the limiting DME distance is attained. I, or any reason, a pilot is unable to conorm to procedures or normal conditions, ATC should be inormed as soon as possible. possible. Holding patterns are to to be flown at speeds given in the table below.
1 0 H o l d i n g P r o c e d u r e s
Levels 1
Normal Conditions
Turbulence Conditions
up to 4250 m (14 000 f) inclusive
425 km/h (230 kt) 2 315 km/h (170 kt)4
520 km/h (280 kt) 3 315 km/h (170 kt)4
above 4250 m (14 000 f) to 6100 m (20 000 f) inclusive
445 km/h (240 kt) 5
520 km/h (280 kt) or
above 6100 m (20 000 f) to 10 350 m (34 000 f) inclusive
490 km/h (265 kt) 5
above 10 350 m (34 000f)
Mach 0.83
Mach 0.8, whichever is less
3
Mach 0.83
Notes: 1
The levels tabulated represen representt altitudes or correspond corresponding ing flight levels depending upon the altimeter setting in use.
2
When the holding procedure is ollowed by the initial segment o an instrument approach procedure promulgated at a speed higher than 425 km/h (230 kt), the holding should also be promulgated at this higher speed wherever possible
3
The speed o 520 km/h (280 kt) (Mach 0.8) reserved or turbulence conditions shall be used or holding only afer prior clearance with ATC, unless the relevant publications indicate indicate that the holding holding area can accommodate accommodate aircraf at these these flight holding speeds
4
For holdings limited to CAT A and B aircraf only.
5
Wherever possible possible,, 520 km/h (280 kt) should be used or holding procedures associated with airway route structures. Figure 10.2 Holding speeds
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Entry Sectors 10.5 Introduction. There are three methods o joining a holding pattern based on the heading o the aircraf as it approaches the holding fix. Based upon this heading, three sectors are defined with specific procedures procedures appropriate to to each. Between each sector there there is a 5° ‘flexibility’ area either side o the defining heading within which the pilot has the choice o applicable joining procedure. The three sectors are illustrated below. For ease o definition the entry procedures below relate to a standard (right hand) pattern. 310°Mag
060°Mag
N
SECTOR 1
110° SECTOR 2
0 1
70°
s e r u d e c o r P g n i d l o H
Inbound 310°Mag
SECTOR 3 240°Mag
Each sector sector has +/- 5° ‘latitude’ ‘latitude’
130°Mag
Figure 10.3
10.6 Sector 1 (Parallel Entry) Procedure. Having reached the fix, the aircraf is turned lef onto an outbound heading to make good a track reciprocal to the stated inbound holding track. This is maintained or the appropriate period o time relating to the altitude o the aircraf, and then the aircraf aircraf is turned lef to return to to the fix. On the second time over the fix, the aircraf is turned right to ollow the holding pattern.
Figure 10.4
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Holding Procedures 10.7 Sector 2 (Offset Entry) Procedure. Having reached the fix, the aircraf is turned onto the heading to make make good the track diverging diverging 30° lef o the reciprocal reciprocal o the inbound holding track. This is maintained or the appropriate period o time relating to the altitude o the aircraf, and then the aircraf is turned right onto onto the holding track to return to the fix. On the second time over the fix, the aircraf is turned right to ollow the holding pattern.
1 0 H o l d i n g P r o c e d u r e s
Figure 10.5
10.8 Sector 3 (Direct Entry) Procedure. Having reached the fix, the aircraf is turned right to ollow the holding pattern. pattern.
Figure 10.6
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ATC Considerations Consideratio ns 10.9 Clearance to Join. As the holding pattern will be in controlled airspace and used or controlled flights, ATC (usually the approach controller) will pass an ATC clearance to the pilot with instructions to take up the holding pattern. The clearance will speciy the location o the hold to be used, details o the holding pattern (unless routinely published), the holding level and any special requirements. “G-CD hold at OX FL50 expected approach time 1020” “Hold OX FL50 1020 G-CD”
Followed by: “Oxord Approach G-CD is established in the hold at FL50”
The pilot is required to ensure that the aircraf is level at the holding level at least 5 NM beore reaching the holding fix. The clearance will be acknowledged and the ATCO will not expect to hear rom the pilot again until the aircraf has completed the joining procedure and is established in the holding pattern.
0 1 s e r u d e c o r P g n i d l o H
10.10 Descending in the Hold. When the level 10.10 level below is vacant, the ATCO ATCO will re-clear the pilot to the lower level. The pilot will acknowledge the clearance and immediately commence descent. Note: Shuttle is a climbing or descending manoeuvre in a holding pattern. “G-CD shuttle in the hold to FL40” “Leaving FL50 descending to FL40 G-CD”
Followed by: “G-CD level FL40” 10.11 Depar 10.11 Departing ting the Hold. At the appropriate time, time, the ATCO ATCO will instruct the pilot to to commence the instrument instrument procedure. It is usual to leave a holding pattern pattern at the fix, but where radar is used the Approach Radar controller may vector the aircraf rom any position in the holding pattern. Typically Typically a clearance would be as ollows: ollows: “G-CD advise when ready to commence the procedure” “Ready to commence the procedure G-CD” “G-CD set the Oxord QNH 1003, clear NDB/DME approach runway runway 01, report turning inbound at 2000 f” “1003 set clear NDB/DME runway 01 wilco G-CD”
Under certain circumstances (timed approaches) the ATCO will clear the a ircraf to depart the holding pattern at a specific time to commence commence the procedure. In this case, the pilot should adjust the holding pattern leg lengths to depart the pattern rom overhead the holding fix as close as possible to the stated clearance time.
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Holding Procedures Obstacle Clearance 10.12 Holdi 10.12 Holding ng Area. The instrument procedure designer will ensure that the MOC (300 m or 600 m in mountainous mountainous terrain), terrain), is applied throughout the holding area. This will include the holding pattern and any necessary adjacent airspace that would be used during a joining procedure. The size o the holding area will depend upon the nature o the pattern, the type o aircraf using the hold, adjacent airspace requirements and maximum holding altitude. Surrounding the holding area a buffer zone, 5 NM wide, is established within which wh ich decreasing MOC is applied rom ull MOC at the boundary with the holding area, to zero at the extremity.
1 0 H o l d i n g P r o c e d u r e s
Figure 10.7
Figure 10.8
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Questions Questions 1.
A procedure to alter level in a holding pattern is known as:
a. b. c. d. 2.
Unless otherwise published or inormed by ATC, afer entering a holding pattern all turns are made:
a. b. c. d. 1 0
3.
Q u e s t i o n s
1½ minutes. 2½ minutes. 3 minutes. 30 seconds.
You are cleared to join a hold at 6000 f. At what distance prior to reaching the holding fix must you be established at 6000 f?
a. b. c. d.
216
rate o turn = 3°/sec. rate o turn = 3°/sec or 20° bank angle whichever is less. rate o turn = 3°/sec or 25° bank angle whichever is less. 25° bank angle.
What is the longest time you can fly the 30° offset leg o a joining procedure?
a. b. c. d. 5.
to the lef. to the lef then right. to the right. procedure turn right then lef.
In a holding pattern turns are to be made at a:
a. b. c. d. 4.
shuttle. procedure turn. base turn. racetrack.
5 minutes flying time 5 NM 10 minutes flying time 10 NM
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Chapter
11 Altimeter Setting Procedure
Altimeter Setting Procedures. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 221 Basic Concepts. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 221 Altimeter Setting Objectives . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 221 Transition . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Phases o Flight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 225 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Altimeter Setting Procedures Basic Concepts 11.1 Introduction. In order to ensure separation and to make sure that when flying an instrument procedure the aircraf is actually at or above the procedure design minimum altitude, it is essential that the aircraf altimeter subscale is correctly set to the appropriate reerence pressure. History is littered with accidents caused by incorrect altimeter setting and despite the best intentions o the Air Traffic Controllers, the basic responsibility remains with the pilot to ensure that whatever he/she does with an aircraf, it must be sae. 11.2 Terrain Avoidance. During instrument departure or arrival procedures the aircraf must be flown according to the published flight profile. Until the aircraf is at or above a ‘sae in all cases’ altitude, the altimeter must be reerenced to mean sea level so that the pilot knows exactly how high the aircraf is. All obstacles shown on approach and departure plates are reerenced to sea level and likewise, all altitudes required by the procedures are also reerenced to sea level. As sea level pressure (QNH) varies geographically and the terrain avoidance problem is geographic in nature, the reerence setting must be a local QNH.
1 1
e r u d e c o r P g n i t t e S r e t e m i t l A
11.3 Lowest Useable Flight Level. This is the flight level that corresponds to or is immediately above the established minimum flight altitude. 11.4 ATC Separation. Once above the ‘sae in all cases’ altitude, the problem ceases to be terrain avoidance and becomes avoidance o other air traffic. In this case it essential that all aircraf have at least one altimeter reerenced to the same subscale setting so that a standard separation can be applied regardless o the sea level pressure. According to ICAO ISA the average barometric pressure is 1013.25 hPa and this (when rounded down to 1013 hPa) is defined as the Standard Pressure Setting (SPS).
Altimeter Setting Objectives 11.5
Objectives. The two main objectives o altimeter setting procedures are to:
• Provide adequate terrain clearance during all phases o flight especially departure and arrival. • Provide adequate vertical separation between aircraf 11.6 Altimeter Subscale Settings. There are three altimeter subscale settings that can be applied at any aerodrome. These are: 11.7 QNH. This is the observed barometric pressure at an aerodrome adjusted in accordance with the ISA pressure lapse rate to indicate the pressure that would be observed i the observation was carried out at sea level. I QNH is set on the altimeter subscale, the altimeter would read aerodrome elevation at touchdown. 11.8 QFE. This is the observed barometric pressure at an aerodrome which, i set on the altimeter subscale, would result in the altimeter reading zero at touchdown.
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A l t i m e t e r S e t t i n g P r o c e d u r e
Figure 11.1
11.9 QNE. A situation can occur where the QNH is below the lowest altimeter subscale setting. For instance, i the altimeter subscale will not read below 940 hPa and the QNH is 935 hPa it would appear that the altimeter is useless. I, however, the altimeter subscale is set to a standard setting (e.g. 1013h Pa) then it would be possible to calculate what the altimeter would read at touchdown where the QNH is 930 hPa and the altimeter subscale is set to 1013 hPa using the ICAO ISA. Assume that the aerodrome elevation is 100 f AMSL. On touchdown the altimeter will read:
1013 - 930 = 83 (amount o pressure wound on) 83 × 27 f (ISA interval) = 2241 f + 100 f = 2341 f. In this case, 2341 f is the QNE. A pilot would be instructed by the ATCO: “G-CD set 1013 land with QNE 2340”
There is a popular misconception amongst pilots that QNE is 1013 hPa. When used as a reerence as opposed to a QNH, 1013 hPa is defined as the standard pressure setting (SPS). Thereore QNE is what the altimeter will read at touchdown with SPS set.
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11
Transition 11.10 Definition. Afer take-off, the altimeter setting will be changed rom QNH to SPS at some point. Likewise in the descent to land, the altimeter will be set to QNH rom SPS at some point. The process that allows this to be done saely and at a logical point is called transition. This requires the altitude (or FL) at which this is done to be specified. The altitude above the aerodrome or change rom QNH to SPS is called the transition altitude, and rom SPS to QNH is the transition level . When flying below the transition altitude, the aircraf is flown at altitudes determined with reerence to sea level pressure (QNH) and the vertical position is expressed in terms o altitude. Above the transition altitude, the vertical position is expressed in terms o flight levels. During a climb upon reaching the transition altitude, SPS is set and the climb continued to the desired flight level. In the descent, upon reaching the transition level, the QNH is then set and descent continued to the desired altitude. An exception to the above is when, on descent, the pilot is passed the QNH whilst still above the transition level in which case the pilot would reer to vertical position as an altitude. 11.11 Flight Levels. A flight level (FL) is defined as the vertical displacement o the aircraf above a constant level o barometric pressure related to 1013 hPa. Flight Level Zero (FL0) is located at the atmospheric pressure level o 1013 hPa. Subsequent flight levels are separated by a pressure interval corresponding to 500 f in standard atmosphere. Flight levels are numbered as ollows:
1 1
e r u d e c o r P g n i t t e S r e t e m i t l A
FL30; FL35; FL40; FL45 etc…. and FL100; FL105; FL110 etc….
11.12 Transition Altitude. This is the altitude (with QNH set) above the aerodrome at which the altimeter subscale is reset to SPS and vertical position above that is then reported as a flight level. The transition altitude is specified or every aerodrome by the Authority o the State in which the aerodrome is located. The transition altitude shall be as low as possible but normally not less than 3000 f. Transition altitudes are published in the AIP and shown on charts and instrument plates. A state may speciy a general transition altitude (as in the USA, 18 000 f).
Figure 11.2 Transition altitude
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Altimeter Setting Procedure 11.13 Transition Level. The transition level is the flight level at which the altimeter is reset to the aerodrome QNH and subsequent flight is reported with reerence to altitude. The transition level changes with the QNH. It is calculated by the Approach Controller at regular intervals and also when QNH changes. It is defined as the first available flight level above the transition altitude. This will be a ‘rounding up’ rom what the altimeter is reading at the transition level with SPS set. Calculation o transition level is not required by the learning objectives.
The flight crew shall be provided with the transition level : a.
prior to reaching the level during the descent
b.
in the approach clearance
c.
when requested by the pilot
1 1
A l t i m e t e r S e t t i n g P r o c e d u r e
Figure 11.3 Transition level
11.14 Transition Layer. This is the airspace between the transition altitude with SP S set and the transition level. It is usually insignificant but some states require a minimum depth to the transition layer. When ascending through the transition layer (with SPS set) vertical position is reported as a flight level and when descending through the layer with QNH set, as an altitude.
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11
1 1
e r u d e c o r P g n i t t e S r e t e m i t l A
Figure 11.4 Transition layer
Phases of Flight 11.15 What Should be Set? The QNH should be passed to an aircraf in the taxi clearance prior to take-off. When flying en route below the transition altitude, the vertical position o the aircraf is reported as altitude (QNH set). When outside o the ‘vicinity’ o the departure aerodrome, QNH rom another (closer) aerodrome will be required and set. In the UK we have a system o regional pressure settings (RPS) which cover this case without reerence to en route aerodrome QNH. In the USA when flying cross-country, the pilot will need to contact ATC at ‘local’ aerodromes and update the altimeter setting regularly. This will allow determination o terrain clearance with an acceptable degree o accuracy. When en route and above the transition altitude, the aircraf level is reported as a flight level. When approaching an aerodrome to land, the QNH will be passed to aircraf in clearances to enter the traffic circuit. Normally, vertical position is reported as a flight level until reaching the transition level in the descent, however, afer an approach clearance has been issued, reerence should then be made in terms o altitude with the QNH set. This is intended to apply primarily to turbine aircraf or which an uninterrupted descent rom high altitude is desirable. 11.16 Use o QFE. I a pilot decides to remain in the aerodrome traffic circuit (the visual circuit) throughout the flight, then the altimeter may be set to QFE.
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Altimeter Setting Procedure 11.17 Pilot/Operator Procedures. Pilots and operators are required to plan the route and, complying with the rules o a state and the general flight rules, are to select an appropriate IFR or VFR flight level or the flight. In selecting flight levels or a flight, those selected:
• Should ensure adequate terrain clearance at all points along the route; • Should satisy ATC requirements and • Should be compatible with the table o cruising levels in Chap. 6
The serviceability and accuracy o the altimeter should be confirmed prior to the commencement o a flight. With knowledge o the aerodrome elevation in the case o QNH, the altimeter should be set to either QNH or QFE. The instrument should then be vibrated (avoiding tapping the glass) to ensure that the instrument has reacted to the mechanical adjustment o setting the subscale. A serviceable altimeter will indicate: • The height o the altimeter above the reerence point (QFE) or • The elevation o the position o the aeroplane plus the height o the altimeter above the ground (QNH);
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11.18 Altimeter Accuracy. Altimeters are to be checked or correct operation within the ollowing tolerances:
• Plus or minus 60 f (20 m) or a test range between 0 - 30 000 f or • Plus or minus 80 f (28 m) or a test range between 0 - 50 000 f
11.19 Approach and Landing. Beore commencing an approach to an aerodrome, the pilot is to obtain the transition level. Beore descending below the transition level, the latest QNH or the aerodrome is to be obtained. (This does not preclude a pilot using QFE or terrain clearance purposes during the final approach to a runway.) ATC may clear an aircraf to be operated using QNH when above the transition level i so required or the purpose o descent in accordance with a prescribed procedure (i.e. not or level flight). When an aircraf which has been given clearance as number one to land is using QFE to complete the approach, OCH is to be established with reerence to height above the aerodrome datum or that portion o the flight. On approach plates all vertical displacement is shown as both AMSL and AGL in the ollowing orm: 2000 (1485) with the AMSL figure in bold type and the AGL figure in parenthesis. This is a standard ormat and is used in all publications. 11.20 Minimum Flight Altitudes. Minimum flight altitudes are determined and promulgated by the State or each ATS route and Control Area (C TA) over its territory. They are published in the national Aeronautical Inormation Publication (AIP).
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Questions 1.
What should be the minimum transition altitude?
a. b. c. d. 2.
Determination o the Transition Level is the responsibility o:
a. b. c. d. 3.
s n o i t s e u Q
When passing 3000 f AMSL or 1000 f AGL. When passing the transition level. When passing the transition altitude. Within the transition layer.
flight level. whatever the pilot chooses. altitude. height.
In the vicinity o an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraf, the vertical position o the aircraf shall be expressed as:
a. b. c. d. 7.
1 1
The vertical position o an aircraf at or below the transition altitude will be reported as:
a. b. c. d. 6.
The first available flight level above the transition altitude. The highest flight level available below the transition altitude. The top o the ATZ. The level at which 1013 is set.
When during the approach should the reported aerodrome altimeter setting be set?
a. b. c. d. 5.
the Authority o the State. the ATC Authority. Approach Control office or the aerodrome Control Tower. Area Control.
What is the transition level?
a. b. c. d. 4.
3000 f. 1000 f. 1500 f. 2000 f.
flight level at or below the transition level. flight level at or below the transition altitude. altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude. altitude above sea level at or above the transition altitude.
The pilot o a departing aircraf flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting rom QNH to SPS when passing:
a. b. c. d.
transition level. when specified by ATC. transition altitude. transition layer.
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Questions 8.
Transition rom altitude to flight level, and vice-versa, is done:
a. b. c. d. 9.
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position o the aircraf should be reported as:
a. b. c. d. 10.
Q u e s t i o n s
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altitude above mean sea level during the climb. flight level during descent. either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb. altitude above mean sea level during descent.
Whilst flying through the transition layer the vertical position o the aircraf should be reported as:
a. b. c. d.
1 1
at transition level during the climbs and at transition altitude in the descent. only at transition altitude. only at transition level. at transition altitude during the climbs and at transition level in the descent.
altitude. height. flight level. it depends upon what is set on the altimeter.
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Chapter
12 Parallel or Near-parallel Runway Operation
Simultaneous Operation on Parallel or Near-parallel Runways . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 233 Modes o Operation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 233 Saety . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 238 Runway Spacing. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 239 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Simultaneous Operation on Parallel or Near-parallel Runways Modes of Operation 12.1 Introduction. The need to increase capacity at aerodromes handling IFR traffic in IMC can be met by the use o parallel or near-parallel runways. An aerodrome already having dual/ parallel precision approach (ILS or MLS) runways could increase its capacity i these runways could be saely operated simultaneously and independently in IMC. There is increasing pressure on major aerodromes, like Stansted, to build a second (parallel) runway and virtually all new aerodrome constructions (e.g. Chek Lap - Hong Kong) are constructed with parallel runway configurations. It is also not uncommon or the runway arrangement to include three or even our parallel (or near parallel) runways and or all o them to be in operation together. In this section the discussion will be biased towards pure parallel runway arrangements, but the procedures are the same or similar or all other arrangements. There are a variety o modes o operation associated with parallel or near-parallel runways. All parallel runway operations require the provision and use o radar. 12.2 Simultaneous Parallel Instrument Approaches. operation possible:
There are two basic modes o 2 1
12.3 Mode 1: Independent Parallel Approaches: Approaches are made to parallel runways where radar separation minima between aircraf using adjacent ILS and/or MLS are not applied. Regardless o the weather conditions, all approaches are to be radar monitored with radar controllers specifically detailed or that duty only. Dedicated discrete RTF requencies are allocated to the radar controllers. Only straight-in approaches are permitted with parallel runway operation. Track reversal procedures are not permitted.
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12.4 Separation. Each pair o parallel approaches will have a ‘high’ side and a ‘low’ side to provide vertical separation until aircraf are established inbound on the respective ILS localizer course. The high side will be 300 m (1000 f) above the low side. Beore vertical separation can be reduced below 300 m (1000 f), both aircraf on a simultaneous parallel approach must be established on the ILS localizer centre line or MLS final approach track. Once the 300 m (1000 f) separation is reduced, the radar controller will issue instruc tions i the aircraf deviates significantly rom the localizer course.
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Parallel or Near-parallel Runway Operation 12.5 Mode 2: Dependent Parallel Approaches: Approaches are made to parallel runways where radar separation minima between aircraf using adjacent ILS and/or MLS are applied. Regardless o the weather conditions, all approaches are to be radar monitored with radar controllers specifically detailed or that duty only. Dedicated discrete RTF requencies are allocated to the radar controllers. Only straight-in approaches are permitted with parallel runway operation. Track reversal procedures are not permitted. During vectoring to intercept the localizer the maximum interception angle permitted is 30° and a minimum o 1 NM straight and level flight is required beore localizer intercept. Vectoring is also to ensure that the localizer track is intercepted and flown or at least 2 NM beore glide path intercept. Until the aircraf is established on the localizer, the normal minimum radar separation o 5 NM shall apply. Aircraf carrying out parallel operations must be equipped with ull ILS/MLS.
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Parallel or Near-parallel Runway Operation 12.6 Mode 3: Simultaneous Instrument Departures. This operation is known as Mode 3 Independent Parallel Departures. It involves simultaneous departures or aircraf departing in the same direction rom parallel runways. All departing traffic must be identified by radar at a distance o not more than 1 NM rom DER. All departure tracks must diverge by a minimum o 15° immediately afer take-off.
t n n o i e t d a n r e a p p e e s d e s c u n o e e l n u a b t r l u u t m e i k a s a w e r r o o e e r u e l h a t v d d e n a fi i y c a e p s w n u e r h t l e n g a i n h s t s a s e e l b s i o t s y a d e r w e n d u i r s l e n o l c a r e r a p a o s y w t a w n n e e u r e w t h e t , . b d f e e a c r s n c u r a i t t s a o i n d g n s i i m r e u t a d m p i e o n d i m m r r o e e u h t s t n r n o a i p e t e h a d r l W e e : d l e i a t s r o n a o N c p
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12.7 Mode 4: Segregated Departures/Arrivals: This operation is known as Mode 4 Segregated Parallel Operations. In this mode, one runway is used exclusively or approaches and the other runway is used exclusively or departures. This is the mode o operation at London Heathrow.
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Parallel or Near-parallel Runway Operation 12.8 Semi-mixed Operations. In essence, the option or the use o parallel runways is totally flexible and a situation may exist wh ere one runway is used exclusively or departures, while the other runway accepts a mixture o departures and approaches, or vice versa. There may also be simultaneous parallel approaches with departures interspersed on both runways. In effect, semi-mixed operations may be permutations o the our basic modes (above). Most North American major aerodromes operate some kind o semi-mixed operations.
Safety 12.9 Aircraf equipment. equipped with ull ILS/MLS
All aircraf carrying out parallel runway operations must be
12.10 Radar Monitoring. For all parallel runway operations, radar surveillance (or in some cases, control) must be provided regardless o the weather conditions. Without radar, parallel runway operations are suspended and single runway operations resumed. 12.11 Approach Operations. Due to the real estate limitations o aerodromes, it is inevitable that the spacing between parallel runways will not be sufficient to permit normal ATC separation standards to be applied. However, whatever is implemented must be sae and provide separation immediately something goes wrong. Normally, ATC separation is provided either vertically or horizontally and is usually based on the accuracy o navigation o the aircraf. I the accuracy o navigation can be improved then the separation standard can be reduced, in other words, separation can be traded off against accuracy o navigation. For parallel approach operations, vertical and horizontal separation standards are overruled once the aircraf concerned are established on the localizer centre line. Mode 1 is described as independent and implies that what happens on one runway is totally independent o what is happening on the other. Mode 2 (dependent) does roughly the same but with the addition o radar separation longitudinally and laterally o approaching aircraf, making what happens on one runway dependent upon what is happening on the other. Effectively or both modes, there are two arrival aerodromes albeit very close together.
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12.12 Normal Operating Zone (NOZ). This is applicable to Mode 1 operations and is airspace o defined dimensions extending either side o an ILS localizer course (or an MLS final approach track centre line) within which an aircraf operating normally on the ILS would be positioned. Remember - the protected zone is encompassed by hal scale deviation o the CDI and is the required accuracy o ILS navigation. Only the inner hal o the NOZ is taken into account in independent parallel approaches. 12.13 No Transgression Zone (NTZ). In the context o Mode 1 independent parallel approaches, this is a corridor o airspace o defined dimensions located centrally between the two extended runway centre lines. Penetration o the NTZ by an aircraf requires controller intervention immediately to manoeuvre a threatened aircraf on the adjacent approach, out o the way. Normally this would require a turn away rom the other aircraf and an immediate climb to MSA (or as per the Missed Approach Procedure). Once the threatened aircraf is sae, the controller will attempt to assist the other aircraf regain the approach or carry out the missed approach procedure. It is a requirement that the NTZ must be at least 610 m wide.
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Figure 12.5 No transgression zone
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12.14 Missed Approach. Simultaneous parallel operations require the missed approach track and departure tracks to diverge by a minimum o 30°. When turns are prescribed to establish divergence, pilots are to commence turns as soon as practicable.
Runway Spacing 12.15 Minimum Spacing o Parallel Runways. The worst case is where the runway thresholds (or the normal rotation points) are adjacent. This means that two approaching aircraf or instance, will always be at the same altitude when at the same distance rom touchdown. I, however, the thresholds are ‘staggered’ then a degree o vertical separation is introduced (likewise or departing aircraf). This situation permits closer spacing o runways (30 m reduction or increment or every 150 m o overlap) as is the case or the runway at Manchester. The diagram below illustrates the requirements or spacing o parallel runways. The student should know that the minimum spacing or Mode 1 operations is 1035 m, or Mode 2 it is 915 m and or Modes 3 and 4 it is 760 m.
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Figure 12.7
12.16 Wake Turbulence Considerations. The ull implications o wake turbulence are covered in other subjects and later in these notes under the umbrella o ATC we will discuss wake turbulence separation. However, the use o parallel runways introduces problems concerning wake turbulence rom aircraf using adjacent runways and this is a major limitation to the flexibility that parallel runway ops acilitate. Effectively, i the spacing between runways is less than 760 m or the flight paths o departing or arriving traffic cross at the same altitude (or within 1000 f below the higher level) then wake turbulence separation must be applied.
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Questions Questions 1.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
a. b. c. d. 2.
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that the missed approach track or one approach diverges by:
a. b. c. d.
1 2
3.
Q u e s t i o n s
20°. 25°. 30°. 45°.
The minimum distance between parallel runway centre lines or Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approaches (Mode 1) is:
a. b. c. d.
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15°. 30°. 45°. 25°.
Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted interception angle to intercept the localizer?
a. b. c. d. 6.
at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path. at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path. at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path. at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path.
For parallel runways the missed approach tracks must diverge by:
a. b. c. d. 5.
at least 45° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach. at least 25° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach. at least 15° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach. at least 30° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach.
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraf to be established on the ILS localizer course in level flight or:
a. b. c. d. 4.
the missed approach track or one approach diverges by at least 20° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach. the missed approach track or one approach diverges by at least 25° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach. the missed approach track or one approach diverges by at least 45° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach. the missed approach track or one approach diverges by at least 30° rom the missed approach track o the adjacent approach.
915 m. 760 m. 300 m. 1035 m.
Questions 7.
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraf are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
a. b. c. d. 8.
300 m. 200 m. 150 m. 100 m.
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraf are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
a. b. c. d. 9.
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3 NM. 5 NM. 2 NM. 2.5 NM.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) o at least:
a. b. c. d.
710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display. 510 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display. 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display. 810 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display.
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Chapter
13 SSR and ACAS
SSR and ACAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 247 Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 247 Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 249 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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SSR and ACAS Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 13.1 Background. The technical requirements o the EASA Theoretical Knowledge syllabus or SSR, is covered in 062 Radio Navigation. However, the operation o SSR in the ATC environment is within the remit o Air Law. In the chapters o these notes concerning ATC, the use o radar will be discussed and it will be implied that where required, the radar derived inormation will be enhanced by the use o SSR. The modern SSR systems have been developed rom the equipment used in WWII as a means o identiying ‘riend’ rom ‘oe’ (IFF). The basic system was rather crude effectively giving the ground station a response rom the aircraf indicating that the aircraf was fitted with the then highly secret equipment. As only ‘riendly’ aircraf had the equipment the radar operator could easily distinguish a riendly aircraf radar response rom an enemy response. The airborne equipment was given the code name ‘parrot’ which explains some o the rather peculiar phraseology associated with the operation o a modern SSR system. Current SSR systems enable individual aircraf to be identified on a flight by flight basis with the additional acilities to pass data via the SSR system, indicate aircraf altitude and, using the redundant capacity o the SSR system, provide effective collision avoidance enhancement. 13.2 Carriage o Transponders. The airborne equipment is called a transponder (because it transmits a response to an interrogation). PANS OPS requires that where a serviceable transponder is carried in an aircraf, unless ATC instructs otherwise, it will be used at all times. Individual states may speciy certain conditions where the carriage and operation o a transponder is mandatory. In either case, the operation o the equipment will be regardless o the provision o an ATC service.
3 1 S A C A d n a R S S
13.3 Mode o Operation. The output codes o the SSR system consist o groups o 4 numbers in the range 0 - 7. The ground station (the interrogator) transmits a coded signal that prompts the aircraf transponder to reply. The overall SSR system has several different ‘modes’ o operation. The response will be mode Alpha with addition o mode Charlie. In addition, the military have other modes o operation o SSR which overlap with civilian usage. In order to correctly indicate the required response code, the mode as well as code should always be specified. The pilot is to respond with the mode and code. Typically a radar controller will request the mode and code as ollows:
“G-CD, squawk Alpha two one six one” The response to this by the pilot will be (mode and code): “Squawking Alpha two one six one G-CD” 13.4 Squawk Ident. The transponder has a acility to enable the radar controller to automatically identiy the specific radar contact using SSR other than by reliance on the specific code transmission. This acility may be activated by selection o the ‘Ident’ eature on the transponder controller in response to a request to “squawk Ident.” Pilots are not to squawk Ident except on instruction rom the radar controller.
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SSR and ACAS 13.5 Special Codes. Because the airborne equipment can transmit any o 4096 individual coded responses, certain individual responses have been allocated specific meanings. The ollowing special codes indicate:
• Emergency • Radio ailure • Unlawul intererence
A/7700 A/7600 A/7500
Note : Should an aircraf have been radar identified by a transponder code and subsequently experience an emergency, the pilot should stick to the identified squawk.
In addition, the ollowing reserved codes have the specific meanings:
1 3
• A/7000
Conspicuity. This is set when the aircraf is in an area where radar is used to provide ATS, but the pilot is not in receipt o a service (VFR outside CAS).
• A/2000
In the absence o any ATC direction or regional air navigation agreement (or when outside o a radar control/service area). This code is set when eastbound in the NAT region.
• A/0000
Unserviceable transponder. Set as directed by ATC.
13.6 Altitude Reporting Function (Mode Charlie). Mode Charlie encodes and transmits the aircraf altitude with reerence to SPS (1013 hPa). Whenever the transponder is operating, mode Charlie should also be selected. At some point during the initial communications with ATC, the pilot will be requested to “say aircraf level or Charlie.” The pilot should report the aircraf level inormation accurate to the nearest ull 100 f. From this, the ATCO will determine the accuracy o mode Charlie data. I the mode Charlie data is within +/-300 f o the stated level, mode Charlie is deemed to be accurate.
S S R a n d A C A S
Figure 13.1
13.7 Transponder Failure. The ailure o a transponder in the air will adversely affect the quality o the ATC service provided. Whilst every effort will be made to permit the flight to continue to the destination in accordance with the filed FP, it may be that ATC clearances may be restricted. I a transponder ails beore departure and i t cannot be rectified, the pilot is to:
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• Inorm ATS as soon as possible, preerably beore the submission o the FP. • Put ‘N’ in item 10 or the FP orm. • Comply with the published procedures or seeking exemption rom the requirements or the mandatory carriage o a transponder. • I required by the ATS authority , proceed directly to the nearest suitable aerodrome where the transponder can be repaired. 13.8 Code Selection. The preerred method o selecting/changing a code is to first set the option switch to standby (STBY) and then select the new code. On completion, reset the option switch to ON or ALT. Modern SSR installations have two controllers (designated A and B) with a switch that selects either the A controller or the B controller. In this case, the new code would be set on the controller not in use and the switch then set to that controller.
Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) 13.9 Background. The technical details o ACAS are covered in detail in 022 03 Warning and Recording. However, the response to the alerts generated by ACAS is a matter or consideration in Air Law. Basically, the system uses the redundant capacity o the SSR system to determine the proximity o another aircraf which is operating its SSR transponder. In areas where RVSM is applied, the use o ACAS is mandatory and operators are required to ensure compliance with the requirement.
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13.10 Use o ACAS. ACAS is to be used by pilots in the avoidance o potential collisions, the enhancement o situational awareness, and the active search or (and visual acquisition o) conflicting traffic. It must be understood by pilots that the use o and the exploitation o ACAS alerts and the procedures applicable, do not relieve the pilot o the basic responsibility or the saety o the aeroplane. In all cases, the pilot will be expected to exercise his/her best judgment and ull authority in choosing the best course o action to be taken. 13.11 Response to ACAS Alerts. ACAS generated alerts consist o Traffic Advisories (TAs) and Resolution Advisories (RAs). A TA is intended to alert the pilot to the possibility o an RA being generated. As such, pilots are not to manoeuvre the aircraf in response to a TA only. I an RA is generated, the pilot is to respond immediately unless in doing so the saety o the aeroplane would be jeopardized. In any case, stall warning, wind shear and GPWS alerts will have priority over ACAS. Pilots must be aware that visually acquired traffic may not be the cause o an RA and visual perception o an encounter may be misleading especially at night. 13.12 Conflict. Should there be a conflict o Resolution Advisories between the aircraf, pilots must ollow the RA and the equipment should offer a Reversal Advisory. 13.13 ATC. As soon as would be permitted by the workload o the flight deck crew, ATC should be notified o the RA and the direction o any deviation rom the current flight plan. Once the conflict is resolved, the aircraf should be promptly returned to the requirements o the current FP and again, ATC inormed. Under some circumstance, it is possible that ATC issues instructions that are unknowingly contrary to ACAS RAs. It is vitally impor tant that ATC is notified when an ATC instruction or clearance is not being ollowed because it conflicts with an ACAS RA. 13.14 Disregarding RAs. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides no deviation rom the current flight path is needed. Nevertheless ATC must be inormed in these circumstances.
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SSR and ACAS 13.15 Determination o Aircraf Level using Mode C. ICAO defines the standards or level determination using Mode C (altitude reporting unction) as generally +/- 300 f. However, most contracting states employ a higher standard, +/- 200 f. The specific ICAO standards are:
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• Level occupancy:
Mode C indicates the allocated level +/- 300 f
• Maintaining a level:
Mode C indicates the allocated level +/- 300 f
• Vacating a level:
Mode C indicates that the aircraf is more than 300 f rom the previously allocated level
• Passing a level:
Mode C indicates that the aircraf is within 300 f o a specified level in the climb or descent
• Reaching a level:
Mode C indicates that the aircraf is within 300 f o the allocated level at the completion o a climb or descent
Questions
13
Questions 1.
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
a. b. c. d. 2.
The pilot o an aircraf losing two-way communications shall set the SSR transponder to Mode Alpha code:
a. b. c. d. 3.
b. c. d.
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s n o i t s e u Q
Code 7500 Code 7600 Code 7000 Code 7700
Which o the ollowing correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in conjunction with SSR?
a. b. c. d. 6.
the aircraf would be permitted to depart to the nearest aerodrome where repair can be carried out. the pilot must indicate the ailure on the flight plan afer which ATC will endeavour to provide or the flight to be continued. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner. the pilot will not be permitted to commence the flight.
What Mode A code shall be used to provide recognition o an aircraf emergency?
a. b. c. d. 5.
7700 7600 2000 7500
When the SSR transponder appears to be unserviceable and repair is not possible beore departure, then:
a.
4.
read back only the code to be set. read back the mode and the code to be set. use only the word ROGER. use only the word WILCO.
Distress 7700; Distress 7500; Distress 7600; Distress 7700;
Unlawul Intererence 7600; Unlawul Intererence 7700; Unlawul Intererence 7500; Unlawul Intererence 7500;
Communications ailure 7500 Communications ailure 7600 Communications ailure 7700 Communications ailure 7600
When an aircraf carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot is to operate the transponder:
a. b. c. d.
only when the aircraf is flying within the airspace where SSR is used or ATC purposes. only when the aircraf is flying in CAS. only when direct by ATC. at all times during flight regardless o whether or not the aircraf is within or outside airspace where SSR is used or ATC purposes.
251
13
Questions 7.
What is the transponder code or radio ailure?
a. b. c. d. 8.
Which o the ollowing is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
a. b. c. d.
1 3
Q u e s t i o n s
252
Mode A code 7500 Mode B code 7600 Mode A code 7700 Mode A code 7600
A5555 A5678 A2345 A7777
Questions
13
3 1
s n o i t s e u Q
253
13
Answers
Answers
1 3
A n s w e r s
254
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
b
b
b
d
d
d
d
b
Chapter
14 Airspace
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257 Control Areas and Zones . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 259 Classes o Airspace . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 Required Navigation Perormance (RNP) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 262 Airways and ATS Routes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 262 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
264
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
270
255
14
Airspace
1 4 A i r s p a c e
256
Airspace
14
Introduction 14.1 Division o Airspace. All the airspace within a state must be contained within one or more Flight Inormation Regions (FIR). This is the basic unit o airspace within which the most basic orm o Air Traffic Service, a Flight Inormation Service, is available. The alerting service is also available in an FIR. It is usual to give each FIR a name i.e. the London FIR, which geographically identifies the location o the FIR and its associated Area Control Centre (ACC) within which the Flight Inormation Centre is located. Where a State strictly enorces its sovereignty, the boundaries o that State’s FIR(s) usually coincide with the national borders o the state. It is not unusual (in Europe, or instance) or FIR boundaries to be ‘convenient’ (i.e. ollowing Lat/Long or median lines) rather than to ollow ofen convoluted national borders. As well as FIRs, the airspace o a state will be divided into Control Areas (CTAs) and Control Zones (CTRs) and may include restricted, prohibited and danger areas. CTAs can exist in the orm o corridors linking other CTAs; these are known as airways. The air space in the vicinity o an aerodrome is known as an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).
4 1 e c a p s r i A
Figure 14.1
14.2 Upper Inormation Regions (UIRs). Where a state applies a division o airspace vertically, the upper portion o the airspace is defined as an Upper Inormation Region UIR. Such a division acilitates the application o different rules and separation standards to those o the underlying airspace. The basic assumption is that traffic using the UIR will be essentially in transit en route, whereas lower traffic will be arriving or departing and thereore manoeuvring. In Europe the division between the FIR and UIR is at FL195 whereas in the USA it is at FL180. The lower boundary o a UIR will always be a VFR FL. 14.3 Open FIR. Airspace within an FIR that is not defined as a C TA, CTR or other ‘restricted’ airspace is known as the open FIR. Within the open FIR the only air traffic services offered are a Flight Inormation Service and the Alerting Service.
257
14
Airspace
1 4 A i r s p a c e
Figure 14.2
14.4 Oceanic Control Areas (OCAs). Over large areas o the world’s Oceans e.g. the North Atlantic, traffic control has special problems (i.e. relatively poor navigation and o necessity HF communications requiring the use o radio operators). To solve the problems, or at least to make them manageable, the airspace above FL55 over the Oceans is designated as OCAs where strict rules are enorced and special navigation procedures are applied. 14.5 Prohibited, Restricted and Danger Areas. All Prohibited, Restricted and Danger Areas within a state are contained in the FIR(s) o that state and subject to notification o ac tivity and change in status by NOTAM (see definition). Each area will be assigned an individual designator consisting o the country identifier, the letter P, R or D ollowed by a number in the range 001 - 999. For example in the UK a danger off the north coast o Cornwall is designated EG D001. EG is the ICAO identifier or the UK; D means a danger area and 001 is the unique number or that area.
258
Airspace
14
Control Areas and Zones 14.6 CTAs and CTRs. Air Traffic Control is only provided inside what is known as controlled airspace (CAS). It is generally accepted that the upper limit o CAS is defined as FL660. CAS comprises CTAs and CTRs. The primary unction o CTAs/CTRs is to acilitate ATC to IFR traffic. 14.7 CTAs. A CTA is airspace within which ATC is provided to controlled flights (see definition) which are ‘en route’ (i.e. not in the departure or approach phases o a flight). The service provided in a CTA is Area Control and is discussed in detail in Chapter 17. CTAs are usually established in the vicinity o major aerodromes and at the confluence o airways. As already mentioned, the linking corridors o airspace (airways) are also CTAs. CTAs are defined to exist rom a level above ground level (AGL) to an altitude or FL. Where the limit o a CTA is defined as a FL, it will be a VFR FL. The lowest level o a CTA must be at least 200 m (700 f) AGL. The airspace within a CTA may be sub-divided to allow different types o operation to exist. The upper portion o a CTA will be predominantly or traffic that is in transit whilst the lower levels will be dedicated to aircraf entering the ‘manoeuvring ‘ airspace rom above or leaving it. The lower part o the CTA will be used to route aircraf arriving to the individual IAFs or instrument approaches, and to separate departing aircraf rom one aerodrome rom arriving traffic to another. 14.8 CTRs. CTRs are established in the vicinity o aerodromes to provide ATC to arriving and departing controlled traffic. Within a CTR the ATC service is provided by Approach controllers and is mandatory. A CTR may serve more than one aerodrome. Because a CTR is a zone, the base o any zone is defined as ground level or MSL. Where the upper limit is defined as a FL it would always be a VFR FL. A CTR should be big enough to encompass the airspace required to provide the service and will usually extend at least 5 NM rom the aerodrome reerence position in the direction rom which approaches are made. I established within the lateral limits o a CTA, the CTR must extend upwards to the lower limit o the CTA.
4 1 e c a p s r i A
Figure 14.3
259
14
Airspace 14.9 Upper Control Areas. Where a CTA extends above FL195, the rules applicable may be those pertaining to the lower airspace. 14.10 Control Units. The provision o ATC to flights in CAS is the responsibility o the air traffic control units (ATCUs) within the designated airspace. Area Control Centres provide ATC within CTAs and Approach Control Units and Aerodrome Control Towers provide the service required in CTRs.
Classes of Airspace 14.11 Introduction. In 1980, ICAO introduced a uniorm system o classification o airspace to replace the disparate systems o airspace reservations throughout the world. The ICAO system classifies airspace in 7 categories rom A to G each class dependent upon the rules applicable, the ATC service provided, separation standards applicable and the utilization o the airspace. 14.12 Controlled Airspace (CAS). Classes A - E are classified as controlled airspace within which air traffic control is provided to controlled flights. In these classes, IFR flights are always controlled flights. In classes A and B all permitted flights are controlled whereas in classes C and D, ATC is provided to VFR traffic only when conflicting with IFR traffic. CAS is defined as CTAs (including airways) and CTRs. ICAO states that class E airspace cannot be used as a CTR. 14.13 Advisory Airspace. Class F airspace is defined as advisory airspace in which advisory ATC is provided to IFR traffic which requests the service (participating traffic). All IFR traffic flying in class F airspace is required to file a FP but no ATC clearance will be issued. The service is limited to the provision o advice and inormation and only par ticipating flights are separated. Class F airspace is considered to be temporary, established during a trial period whilst it is determined i a ull ATC service is applicable.
1 4 A i r s p a c e
14.14 SVFR. All classes o airspace which support the establishment o a CTR permit flight under SVFR. SVFR is covered in detail in chapter 6 - Rules o the Air. 14.15 Non-radio. Classes E - G permit VFR traffic to fly without VHF 2-way RTF communications. In areas where the ATC authority consider that the provision o the alerting ser vice is essential (over remote areas or over expansive areas o sea), routes may be established along which (at the appropriate altitude) 2-way RTF communications will be available and traffic will be advised to maintain radio contact with an air traffic services unit. 14.16 Speed Limit. A speed limit o 250 kt IAS is applied to VFR traffic in class C and all traffic in classes D - G. The limit is applicable to traffic flying below 10 000 f (FL100) only. 14.17 Flight Inormation Service (FIS). In classes C - G, a Flight Inormation Service is available to aircraf that either request the service, or are otherwise known to ATC. This service provides collision alerts but leaves it to the pilot to take the necessary (as per the rules o the air) avoiding action. Inormation considered necessary relating to collision avoidance is known as traffic inormation. In classes A and B airspace, FIS is available but is o a lesser priority to the provision o ATC. Where the provision o traffic inormation is considered to be o the same priority as ATC, the traffic concerned is known as ‘essential traffic,’ and the inormation relating to such traffic is called ‘essential traffic inormation.’ 14.18 Airspace Summary. The table below summarizes the requirements and restrictions o the 7 classes o airspace.
260
Airspace
14
4 1
4 . 4 1 e r u g i F
e c a p s r i A
261
14
Airspace Required Navigation Performance (RNP) 14.19 Definition. RNP is a numerical representation o the navigational accuracy required within ATS airspace o a State, and is prescribed on the basis o regional air navigation agreements (RANs). It is based on a 95% containment actor, implying that an aeroplane will be within the required RNP or a period o not less than 95% o the time the aircraf is within the airspace concerned. Alternatively, it can be implied that not less than 95% o the aircraf flying in a given airspace will be navigated within the stated RNP actor. The state is responsible or speciying the RNP value or its airspace. 14.20 Theory. The RNP actor relates to navigational accuracy relating to the aircraf plotted position in nautical miles. For instance, RNP4 implies that the aircraf will be within 4 NM o the plotted position or 95% o the time the aircraf is within the airspace concerned. The applicable RNP actors are: RNP1; RNP4; RNP10; RNP12.6; RNP20. All ATS airspace is classified or RNP. Where VOR/DME is used or airways or RNAV navigation, the RNP specified is RNP5. Within the classification o RNP however, RNP5 does not exist. It was envisaged that VOR/ DME would cease to be used or RNAV by the year 2005 and be replaced by more accurate systems offering at least RNP4. This has proved not to be the case and VOR/DME at RNP5 will continue or the oreseeable uture. The use o radar permits RNP1 whereas GPS theoretically offers a relative value o RNP0.3. The value o RNP12.6 is derived rom the historical accuracy o multiple IRS used or transatlantic navigation. 14.21 Application. A good example o how RNP is used is the track spacing used or the NAT tracks in the MNPSA o the North Atlantic Oceanic regions. The airspace is classified as RNP20 thereore the aircraf flying the routes will be within 20 NM o the plotted position or not less than 95% o the flight time. This means that the airspace reserved to a NAT track must be 20 NM either side o the specified route. The additional saety ‘buffer’ will be equal to the RNP so the track spacing will be 20 + 20 + 20 = 60 NM.
1 4 A i r s p a c e
RNP20
20 NM
20 NM RNP20
60 NM
20 NM
Figure 14.5
Airways and ATS Routes 14.22 Establishment. The corridors linking CTAs are called airways. These have evolved by a process o demand as has the road structure in the UK. The airways carry the en route traffic and are thereore primarily concerned with traffic in the cruise rather than manoeuvring traffic. The ATC problem is relatively simple and involves separating traffic heading in opposite
262
Airspace
14
directions, and the allocation o FLs to same direction traffic. Whilst the upper limit o an airway may be defined as the lower limit o the UIR, the lower limit will be dictated by airspace restrictions, terrain avoidance considerations and the needs o other air users (e.g. the military). Historically, airways served the purpose o linking CTAs with CAS, but in the modern environment o increasing traffic density, airways create as many problems as they solve. They create choke points, reduce flexibility, create delays, increase transit times and reduce uel efficiency. With the use o smaller aeroplanes and many regional airports the use o airways is declining and a considerable amount o traffic (especially in the UK) now fl ies off-route making use o military radar acilities. Under the ‘open skies’ policy in Europe and the ‘gate-to-gate’ operations philosophy encouraged by Eurocontrol, the use o airways will continue to decline effectively making all airspace above about 6000 f CAS. 14.23 Designation. Historically, airways are ‘beacon hopping’ routes (rom VOR to VOR). During the 70s and 80s advances were made in area navigation (RNAV) techniques and RNAV airways using waypoints based on VOR/DME inormation, were established. Whilst beacon hopping routes (non-RNAV routes) still exist, nearly all the airways introduced in the latter part o the 20th century were RNAV routes. Routes are also classified as being regional (routes which exist between states in one ICAO region) or non-regional (routes which do not extend beyond the borders o a state). The options are thereore:
• • • •
Regional non RNAV routes Regional RNAV routes Non-regional non RNAV routes Non-regional RNAV routes
4 1 e c a p s r i A
14.24 Other ATS Routes. Other ATS routes also include SIDs, STARs and low level helicopter routes. All these are given specific designators which can be reerred to in ATC communications and in FPs. 14.25 Route Designators. Airways are given a ‘designator’ which defines the type o airway, gives it a unique number and provides additional inormation about the type o route. The specific route designator indicates what type o route is defined and, in addition, a unique number (1 - 999).
A prefix can be added rom the ollowing list: • U = • S = • K =
Upper air route Supersonic transport route Helicopter low level route
Additionally suffixes may be applied rom the list: • F = • G = • Y =
• Z
=
Advisory route (Class F airspace) FIS route (Class G airspace) RNP1 route at and above FL200 where turns between 30° and 90° are to be made within the allowable RNP tolerance o a tangential arc defined by a radius o 22.5 NM. RNP1 route at and below FL190 where turns between 30° and 90° are to be made within the allowable RNP tolerance o a tangential arc defined by a radius o 15 NM
263
14
Questions Questions 1.
What is the speed restriction in class B airspace under FL100 (10 000 f) in both VFR and IFR?
a. b. c. d. 2.
In what class o airspace are all aircraf separated rom one another and VFR is permitted?
a. b. c. d. 3.
4.
Q u e s t i o n s
C, D, E, F and G. F and G only. F. A, B, C, D,E ,F and G.
For VFR flight in class E airspace:
a. b. c. d.
264
250 kt TAS. 250 kt IAS. Not applicable. 200 kt IAS.
FIS is provided to aircraf concerning collision hazards in the ollowing classes o airspace:
a. b. c. d. 7.
7 NM. 5 NM. 15 NM. 20 NM.
What is the speed limit below 10 000 f in Class E airspace?
a. b. c. d. 6.
Clear o cloud and in sight o the surace. 8 km flight visibility, 1000 f vertically and 1500 m horizontally rom cloud. 5 km flight visibility, 1000 f vertically and 1500 m horizontally rom cloud. The same as class D.
A control zone extends laterally rom the centre o an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction o approaching aircraf or at least:
a. b. c. d. 5.
D E A B
What are the VMC limits or class B airspace?
a. b. c. d. 1 4
250 kt IAS. 200 kt IAS. 260 kt TAS. Not applicable.
ATC clearance and two way radio are required. two-way radio not required. ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required. ATC clearance is required.
Questions 8.
Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:
a. b. c. d. 9.
s n o i t s e u Q
Control area. Air Traffic Zone. Control zone. TMA.
A D C F
The lowest height o the base o a CTA above ground or water is:
a. b. c. d. 15.
4 1
What class o airspace can you get an advisory service or IFR traffic and an FIS or VFR traffic?
a. b. c. d. 14.
not applicable. 250 kt TAS. 250 kt IAS. 270 kt IAS.
What type o airspace extends rom the surace to a specified upper limit?
a. b. c. d. 13.
The controlling o all traffic close to an aerodrome. The controlling o all traffic in Class F airspace. The controlling o all traffic in Class F & G airspace. The controlling o IFR traffic.
What is the speed limit or VFR traffic in class C airspace below 10 000 f?
a. b. c. d. 12.
B B; C; D; E B; C B; C; D
What is the primary unction o a CTR and a CTA?
a. b. c. d. 11.
country identifier, ollowed by P/D/R, ollowed by a number. country identifier ollowed by P/D/R. P/D/R ollowed by the identifier. country identifier ollowed by numbers.
In which class or classes o airspace would VFR traffic be separated rom other VFR traffic?
a. b. c. d. 10.
14
300 m. 150 m. 200 m. 500 m.
In which class or classes o airspace is IFR separated rom IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?
a. b. c. d.
A B D D and E.
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14
Questions 16.
The lower boundary o an UIR must be:
a. b. c. d. 17.
What is the upper limit o a CTA?
a. b. c. d. 18.
Q u e s t i o n s
20.
A B C D
In class C airspace, what flights are separated?
a. b. c. d.
266
E & G. D. E, D. C, D, E.
In which class o airspace is IFR and VFR permitted, IFR is separated rom all traffic, VFR separated rom IFR and VFR receives traffic inormation about other VFR traffic?
a. b. c. d. 22.
F E G D
In which airspace(s) can you fly VFR without a radio?
a. b. c. d. 21.
Not applicable. 260 kt IAS. 250 kt IAS. 250 kt only below FL100 (10 000 f).
What class o airspace permits both IFR and VFR, and IFR participating traffic receives advisory ATC or separation?
a. b. c. d.
1 4
2000 f. 3000 f. 5000 f. A VFR Flight Level.
What is the maximum speed permitted in class B airspace?
a. b. c. d. 19.
an IFR flight level. a VFR flight level. is not specified. at any flight level.
All flights. IFR rom all flights; VFR rom VFR. IFR rom IFR; VFR rom IFR and VFR rom VFR. IFR rom IFR; IFR rom VFR; VFR rom IFR.
Questions 23.
What service is provided to IFR/VFR traffic in class E airspace?
a. b. c. d. 24.
b. c. d.
4 1
s n o i t s e u Q
C B A D
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace E?
a. b. c. d. 28.
240 kt IAS. 250 kt TAS. not applicable. 250 kt IAS.
Airspace, in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and in which IFR flights are separated rom other IFR flights and receive traffic inormation concerning VFR flights, and VFR flights receive traffic inormation concerning all other flights, is classified as:
a. b. c. d. 27.
5 NM rom the centre o the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction rom where approaches can be made. 20 NM rom the centre o the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction rom where approaches can be made. 15 NM rom the centre o the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction rom where approaches can be made. 10 NM rom the centre o the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction rom where approaches can be made.
Whenever flying below 3050 m (10 000 f) AMSL in Class C Airspace the speed restriction or IFR is:
a. b. c. d. 26.
ATC to IFR and VFR. ATC to IFR; FIS to VFR. ATC to IFR and radio equipped VFR; FIS to non radio VFR. ATC to IFR; Advisory ATC to IFR in VMC; FIS to VFR.
A Control Zone has to exist to at least:
a.
25.
14
250 kt or IFR and VFR, below FL100. 250 kt or IFR only, below FL195. 250 kt or IFR and VFR, at all altitudes. 250 kt or IFR only, below FL100.
Controlled airspace, in which IFR and VFR flights are allowed and where all flights are separated rom each other by ATC, is classified as:
a. b. c. d.
A D B E
267
14
Questions 29.
Flight inormation service provided to flights shall include the provision o inormation concerning collision hazards to aircraf operating in airspace classes:
a. b. c. d. 30.
Which o the ollowing is true concerning the rules and regulations in the UIR compared with the airspace below?
a. b. c. d. 31.
32.
33.
by states but not on the basis o Regional Air Navigation agreements (RANs). by ICAO on the basis o RANs and applied by the state. by RANs. by states based on RANs.
An RNP1 route designated with suffix Z indicates that or the route at or below FL190 and all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance o a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius o:
a. b. c. d.
268
98%. 93%. 95%. 90%.
RNP (Required Navigation Perormance) is prescribed:
a. b. c. d. 35.
The State. The State + ICAO. ICAO. ATC.
RNP4 is a containment value meaning that a percentage o aircraf operating along a particular route would be within 4 NM o the centre line all the time. What is that percentage?
a. b. c. d. 34.
provided with ATC or otherwise known to the relevant ATS unit. provided with Air Traffic Control only. known to the relevant ATS units only. known to the relevant ATS unit or have filed a flight plan.
Who is responsible or designating the RNP or an airway?
a. b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
The same rules apply i the airspace is o the same class. They are agreed by the Air Navigation Meeting. They are identical to the airspace below. They do not have to be the same as those in the airspace below.
A Flight Inormation Service shall be provided to all aircraf which are likely to be affected by the inormation which are:
a. b. c. d. 1 4
A to G (inclusive). C to G (inclusive). F and G. A to E (inclusive).
10 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 15 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 22.5 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 30 NM or turns between 30° and 90°.
Questions 36.
An RNP1 route designated with suffix Y indicates that or the route at or above FL200 and all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance o a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius o:
a. b. c. d. 37.
14
10 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 15 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 22.5 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 30 NM or turns between 30° and 90°.
Who organizes the RNP specification or airspace?
a. b. c. d.
The State in which the airspace is located. ICAO. The State + ICAO. States who agree what the RNP should be.
4 1
s n o i t s e u Q
269
14
Answers
Answers 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
d
d
d
b
b
a
b
a
a
d
c
c
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
d
c
d
b
d
a
a
a
c
d
b
a
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
c
d
a
c
b
d
a
a
c
d
b
c
37 a
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A n s w e r s
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Chapter
15 Air Traffic Services
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 273 Air Traffic Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 274 ATC Clearances . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 274 Control o Persons and Vehicles at Aerodromes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 276 The Flight Inormation Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 277 The Alerting Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 279 Procedures. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
282
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
288
271
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Air Traffic Services
1 5 A i r T r a f fi c S e r v i c e s
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Air Traffic Services
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Introduction 15.1 The Air Traffic Services (ATS). Annex 11 to the Chicago Convention lays down the SARPs or the establishment o an Air Traffic Control services in each o the contracting states. Each state is required to establish an authoritative body responsible or setting up and regulating the operation o the ATS o the state. In the UK the body responsible is the UK C AA and the operating organization is National Air Traffic Services (NATS). 15.2 Document 4444. Because the SARPs o Annex 11 are (by necessity) insufficiently detailed, PANS ATM (Air Traffic Management) (Document 4444) is published by ICAO as the definitive reerence or the establishment and management o an ATS. PANS ATM is mainly directed to ATS personnel; however, flight crews should be amiliar with the content o the sections relating to ATM; ATS and separation; ADS and CPDLC; ATIRs and RPL. 15.3
• • • • •
Objectives. The objectives o an ATS are to:
Prevent collisions between aircraf; Prevent collisions between aircraf on the manoeuvring area and obstructions thereon; Expedite and maintain an orderly flow o air traffic; Provide advice and inormation useul or the sae and efficient conduct o flights; Notiy appropriate organizations regarding aircraf in need o SAR aid, and assist such organizations as required.
15.4
ATS Divisions. ATS comprises three divisions: 5 1
• Air Traffic Control Service • Flight Inormation Service • Alerting Service 15.5
s e c i v r e S c fi f a r T r i A
ATC Service. The ATC Service is divided into three sub-divisions:
• Area Control Service. The provision o ATC or controlled flights within CTAs and en route in FIRs and UIRs. • Approach Control Service. The provision o ATC or controlled flights associated with arrival and departure. Usually provided within CTRs. • Aerodrome Control Service. The provision o ATC to aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes. 15.6
• • • •
The Need or ATS. An ATS is set up in consideration o the ollowing:
The types o traffic involved The density o traffic The meteorological conditions Other relevant actors (e.g. mountainous terrain, extensive sea areas, limited navigational acilities etc...)
15.7 ACAS. The carriage o ACAS by aircraf in a given area will not be taken into consideration when determining the level o service required to be established.
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Air Traffic Services Air Traffic Control 15.8 Applicability. Air Traffic Control (ATC) is the service provided to controlled flights inside controlled airspace or to aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes. ATC is always provided to IFR traffic inside CAS whereas ATC is only provided to VFR flights in classes B, C and D. Additionally, all SVFR flights are provided with ATC. 15.9 ATS Units. ATS units comprise Air Traffic Control Units (ATCUs) and Flight Inormation Centres (FICs). The ATS unit providing ATC are ATCUs and those providing flight inormation are FICs. The ATCU providing area control (ATC to en route traffic) is known as an Area Control Centre (ACC). It is usual to prefix the unit with a geographical name e.g. London ACC. Within a CTR the unit providing approach control is the approach control office usually located in a control tower at an aerodrome. Combined approach control offices exist where approach control or multiple aerodromes/CTRs is provided e.g. London Terminal Control Centre (LTCC) which provides approach control or Heathrow, Gatwick, Stansted, Luton, London City , Biggin Hill and Northolt. Aerodrome Control is provided by an aerodrome control tower. Within an FIR, the provision o FIS and the Alerting service may be rom the same ATSU. 15.10 Ground Control. The ground movement o aircraf and vehicles is the responsibility o the aerodrome controller. However, the provision o services to aircraf moving on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome and on the apron may be delegated to a ground movements controller usually to limit the aerodrome RTF to flight saety messages concerning the take-off and landing o aircraf. At major aerodromes, the movement o aeroplanes and vehicular traffic on the apron may be delegated to an Apron Management Service. In this case, ATC would commence once the aircraf moves onto the taxi-way and will cease when the pilot takes instructions rom a marshaller.
1 5 A i r T r a f fi c S e r v i c e s
15.11 Time in ATC. ATC units throughout the world are required to report time in hours, minutes and seconds with time reerenced to co-ordinated universal time (UTC). This uses the 24 hour clock. UTC has been previously known as ‘Zulu’ time or Greenwich Mean Time. 1200UTC would be the time at which the sun is directly overhead the Greenwich meridian (0°E/W). The use o one standard time reerence (rather than local time) makes the handling o flight plans simple and acilitates co-ordination o ATC clearances. 15.12 Time Accuracy. ATSU clocks and timing devices are to be checked to ensure that the times indicated are within +/- 30 seconds o UTC at all times. Time checks round up or down to the nearest minute.
ATC Clearances 15.13 Definition. An ATC clearance is authorization or an aircraf to proceed under conditions specified by an ATCU. 15.14 Purpose. Clearances are issued solely or expediting and separating air traffic and are based on known traffic conditions. This includes traffic moving on the ground at an airport as well as airborne traffic. I a clearance given to a pilot is unsuitable (or impossible to comply with), an alternative clearance may be requested. I possible, such a clearance will be offered but the pilot must understand that alternative clearances may result in delays being incurred. A clearance must be issued early enough so that there is sufficient time or the clearance to be complied with.
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15.15 Basic Responsibility. When flying in accordance with an ATC clearance, the pilot is not relieved o the basic responsibility or ensuring the saety o the aircraf, including terrain avoidance, and that o other air users. Likewise, the Rules o the Air apply to any flight proceeding in accordance with an ATC clearance. When an aircraf is under radar vectoring, the radar controller will issue clearances such that the required obstacle clearance will exist at all times. 15.16 Application. The practical application o ATC clearances is to provide a method whereby ATC gives instructions to aircraf to acilitate separation. In general, within CAS, IFR flights are always separated rom other IFR flights. In classes B and C, IFR is separated rom VFR and in class B, VFR is separated rom other VFR. Within a CTR it is normal practice to separate SVFR flights. 15.17 Contents o a Clearance. Clearances are to contain positive and concise data and shall be phrased in a standard manner. An ATC clearance should include:
• The aircraf identification as shown on the FP; • Any clearance limit; • The route o the flight; • Level allocated or the flight (or or the initial/current part o the flight); • Any other necessary instructions or inormation, such as SIDs, STARs, communications or clearance expiry time;
5 1
• Transition level in approach clearances i so prescribed or when requested by the pilot;
s e c i v r e S c fi f a r T r i A
• QNH (except when it is known that the aircraf has already received the inormation): when first cleared to an altitude below the transition level; in approach clearances; in clearances to enter the traffic circuit; in taxi clearances or departing aircraf.
In order to expedite the delivery and reading back o clearances, standard phraseology may be used such as “cleared via flight planned route to ….” or “cleared via Midhurst departure 2G …..” or “cleared via Ockham 1D arrival” . In such cases the pilot will be required to reer to the reerence document or procedure plate. 15.18 Clearance Co-ordination. The responsibility or issuing a route clearance or a flight rests with the ACC o the FIR in which the flight originates. Ideally, beore issuing a clearance, an ATCU would co-ordinate (agree) a clearance with all the other ACCs en route. In practice this is not easible especially or long intercontinental flights. In this case, the ACC would issue a clearance limited to the initial FIR or where the flight time in the originating FIR is short (e.g. flights originating rom Heathrow entering the Paris FIR), it would be essential to coordinate with at least the next FIR to be entered. Where it has not been possible to co-ordinate the clearance or the entire route, the aeroplane would be given clearances on a rolling (downstream) basis rom FIR to FIR. Under certain circumstance it may not be possible or the current ACC to obtain a downstream clearance rom the subsequent FIR in which case, the aircraf may be requested to originate communications with the downstream FIR and obtain a clearance prior to entering the airspace o that FIR.
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Air Traffic Services 15.19 Clearance Read-back. Flight crews are required to ‘read back’ to the air traffic controller, saety related parts o ATC clearances and instructions which are communicated by voice. The ollowing items must always be read back:
• ATC route clearances • Clearance relating to the use o runways (i.e. land, take off, cross, enter and back-track, hold short o) • Runway in use; altimeter settings; SSR codes; level instructions; heading and speed instructions; transition levels
15.20 Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM). Using modern data processing systems and prior flight planning, especially using repetitive flight plans (RPLs), it is now possible to predict traffic loading in each sector o the route structure o the airspace within an FIR. Where this exceeds that which can normally be accommodated, the ATFM unit in the ACC will advise flight crews and operators that delays are likely or that restrictions may be applied. Such inormation is disseminated generally so that operators can see that any disruption is incurred equitably. In practice, predictable delays are handled by delaying the take-off o an aeroplane such that the delay is absorbed on the ground rather than in the terminal phase o a flight. Clearly, this has economic, environmental and saety advantages and is the most obvious practical advantage o ATFM.
Control of Persons and Vehicles at Aerodromes
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15.21 Rules o the Air. The movement o persons or vehicles including towed aircraf on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome is to be controlled by the aerodrome control tower as necessary to avoid hazards to them or to aircraf landing, taxiing or taking off.
A i r T r a f fi c S e r v i c e s
15.22 Low Visibility Procedures. When Low Visibility Operations are in orce (ground visibility below 800 m) persons and vehicles operating on the manoeuvring area will b e kept to a minimum. Special procedures will be implemented to saeguard the ILS/MLS sensitive areas when CAT II and CAT III precision instrument operations are in progress (ground visibility less than 550 m). 15.23 Emergency Vehicles. Emergency vehicles proceeding to the scene o an accident or incident will have priority over all other sur ace movement traffic. 15.24 Vehicles on the Manoeuvring Area. The ollowing rules cover the movement o vehicles on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome:
• Vehicles and vehicles towing aircraf are to give way to aircraf that are landing, taxiing or taking off. • Vehicles are to give way to vehicles towing aircraf. • Vehicles will give way to other vehicles in accordance with ATS unit instructions. • Notwithstanding the above, vehicles and vehicles towing aircraf are to comply with instructions issued by the aerodrome control tower.
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The Flight Information Service 15.25 Introduction. As already stated, the basic unit o airspace within a state is the Flight Inormation Region (FIR). In theory, an FIR can exists without CAS, in which case the only services provided to air traffic would be a flight inormation service (FIS) and the alerting service. Even where ATC is provided inside CAS, FIS will be provided although at a lower priority to ATC. The provision o any service relies on a regular flow o inormation and the provision o FIS relies heavily on the Aeronautical Inormation Service (AIS) established by each state in accordance with Annex 15. AIS is covered in Chapter 18 o these notes. 15.26 FISOs. Outside o CAS and at uncontrolled aerodromes, flight inormation is provided by Flight Inormation Service Officers (FISOs) operating rom a Flight Inormation Centre (FIC). Where a FIS is provided the name o the office providing the service will be suffixed ‘inormation.’ FISOs are licensed to provide the service but are not permitted to offer any service that can be described as ATC. The only exception to this is the provision o ATC to aircraf taxiing on the ground at a controlled aerodrome but this is strictly limited to movements prior to entering the runway or take-off. The FIS provided in the London FIR is by ‘London Inormation’ in three geographic sectors on dedicated VHF requencies. 15.27 Operation. Flight Inormation is provided to all air traffic that is likely to be affected by the inormation. Specifically:
• Aircraf which are provided with an ATC service; • Aircraf which are otherwise known to the relevant ATS units. 5 1
The inormation provided by the FIS is to include: • • • • • • •
s e c i v r e S c fi f a r T r i A
SIGMET and AIRMET (see definition below); Volcanic eruption activity; Release o radioactive or toxic material into the atmosphere; Inormation concerning change o serviceability o radio navigation aids; Inormation concerning change o conditions concerning aerodromes; Inormation concerning unmanned ree balloons; Other inormation considered pertinent to saety.
Additionally, inormation is to be provided concerning: • Weather conditions reported or orecast at departure, destination or alternate aerodromes; • Collision hazards to aircraf operating in classes C, D, E, F and G airspace; • For flights over sea areas (when requested by pilots), details o surace vessels. Apart rom the delivery o FIS on discrete VHF requencies, the majority o ‘routine’ FIS is broadcast by the Operational Flight Inormation Service (OFIS). 15.28 AIRMET. According to Annex 11, AIRMET is defined as:
‘Inormation concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence o specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the saety o low-level aircraf operations and which was not already included in the orecast issued or low-level flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area thereo.’
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Air Traffic Services 15.29 SIGMET. According to Annex 11, AIRMET is defined as:
‘Inormation issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence o specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the saety o aircraf operations.’ 15.30 OFIS. OFIS is broadcast in three specific areas:
• HF OFIS • VHF OFIS • ATIS Both HF OFIS and VHF OFIS broadcast VOLMET (METAR, SIGMET and TAF) inormation or specific aerodromes (or groups o aerodromes) in accordance with a schedule. The table below shows the VHF OFIS Volmet coverage in the London, Scottish and Shannon FIRs.
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Location
Frequency
Airports covered
London Main
135.375
Amsterdam, Brussels, Dublin, Glasgow, London LGW, London LHR, London STN, Manchester, Paris CDG
London North
126.6
Blackpool, East Midlands, Leeds Bradord, Liverpool, London LGW, Manchester, Newcastle, Isle o Man, Teeside
London South
128.6
Birmingham, Bournemouth, Bristol, C ardiff, Jersey, Luton, Norwich, Southampton, Southend
Scottish
125.725
Aberdeen, Belast BFS, Edinburgh, Glasgow, Inverness, London LHR, Prestwick, Stornoway, Sumburgh
Dublin
127.0
Dublin, Shannon, Cork, Belast BFS, Glasgow, Prestwick, Manchester, London LHR, London LGW Figure 15.1 Volmet broadcasts
HF OFIS Volmet is broadcast by the Oceanic Control Centres (e.g. Shanwick) and covers the aerodromes used by transiting traffic. 15.31 ATIS. Automatic Terminal Inormation Service broadcasts (ATIS) consist o two types o broadcast: Voice ATIS and Data ATIS. The preparation and dissemination o ATIS is the responsibility o ATS. 15.32 Voice ATIS. This is provided at aerodromes where there is a requirement to reduce voice channel communications. ATIS broadcasts comprise:
• • • •
One broadcast serving arriving aircraf; or One broadcast serving departing aircraf; or One broadcast serving both arriving and departing aircraf; or Two broadcasts serving arriving or departing aircraf where one broadcast would be exceptionally long.
15.33 Transmission. Voice ATIS is usually transmitted on a discrete VHF requency (displayed on all aerodrome plates). It may be transmitted on the voice channel o a relevant VOR (e.g. departure ATIS on the VOR used as the primary VOR or a SID; or arrival ATIS on the VOR that serves as the IAF or a procedure). ATIS is never transmitted on the voice channel o ILS. Voice ATIS is continuous and repetitive.
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15.34 ATIS Inormation. ATIS inormation normally relates to a single aerodrome and the broadcast should not last longer than 30 seconds. It is updated immediately any significant change occurs. ATS is responsible or making sure that the service is available and up to date. Each sequence o ATIS broadcasts will have a specific sequential broadcast designator letter. On initial contact with ATC, aircraf are to acknowledge receipt o the relevant ATIS with reerence to the current inormation designator.
“Oxord Tower G-ABCD bay 27, inormation Charlie, QNH 1003 request start”
15.35 Cloud Inormation. The ATIS broadcast will only include cloud cover when the cloud base is below 5000 f or the highest MSA (whichever is higher), or when cumulonimbus cloud is present. 15.36 Acknowledgment o a Non-current ATIS. Should an aircraf acknowledge an ATIS that is no longer current, any element o inormation that needs up-dating shall be transmitted to the aircraf by the ATCU without delay.
The Alerting Service 15.37 Introduction. Within an FIR, the provision o service to aircraf requesting assistance or indicating that they may require assistance is the responsibility o the Alerting Service o ATS. This service is provided by any ATS unit (ACC, ATCU, FIC etc…) regardless o the type o service normally offered. The Alerting Service is the link between the aircraf needing assistance, and the services that can provide that assistance. Where necessary, the provision o a service to aircraf in need o assistance will have priority over all other air traffic services.
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15.38 Application. The Alerting Service is provided to:
• All aircraf provided with ATC; • As ar as practicable, all aircraf that have filed a FP or are otherwise known to ATC, and • Any aircraf known (or believed to be) the subject o unlawul intererence. FICs and ACCs will serve as the central point or collecting all inormation relevant to an aircraf state o emergency, and orwarding such inormation to the appropriate rescue co-ordination centre (RCC). I an emergency arises when an aircraf is under the control o the aerodrome or approach controller, that office will notiy the ACC or FIC which in turn will notiy the RCC. I the urgency o the situation dictates, the aerodrome or approach office will set in motion all necessary local emergency organizations that can give im mediate assistance. 15.39 Communication o Inormation. Where it is established by an ATS unit that an aircraf is in a state o emergency in the vicinity o other aircraf, the ATS unit will inorm the other aircraf o the nature o the emergency as soon as possible. I an aircraf is being subjected to unlawul intererence, no reerence will be made in ATC communications unless it has been reerred to in communications rom the aircraf in the fi rst place, and such communication will not make the situation worse.
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Air Traffic Services 15.40 Stages o Emergency. emergency phase), these are:
There are three stages o alert (known generically as the
• Uncertainty phase (code word: INCERFA). This stage exists when no communication has been received rom an aircraf within a period o 30 minutes afer a time at which normal communication should have been made, or the aircraf ails to arrive at the destination within 30 minutes o the estimated arrival time. • Alert phase (codeword: ALERFA). The alert phase would be declared ollowing the uncertainty phase (except when evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the saety o the aircraf or its occupants) when: • Subsequent attempts to make communication have ailed and there is not urther news o the aircraf; or • The aircraf ails to land within 5 minutes afer the issuing o a landing clearance; or • Inormation has been received that the operating efficiency o the aircraf is impaired (but not that a orced landing is likely); or • It is known that an aircraf has been subject to unlawul intererence. • Distress phase (codeword: DETRESFA). The distress phase would be declared ollowing the alert phase (except where there is reasonable certainty that the aircraf and its occupants are not threatened by grave and imminent danger) when: • Further attempts at communication are unsuccessul and widespread enquiries indicate the probability that the aircraf is in distress; or • The uel on board is considered to be exhausted; or • Inormation is received that the operating efficiency o the aircraf is impaired to the extent that a orced landing is likely; or • Inormation is received that the aircraf is about to or has made a orced landing.
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Procedures 15.41 Speed Control. The speed o an aircraf may be prescribed by ATC as a means o maintaining separation. Where speed control is applied, adequate notice is to be given to flight crews to ensure compliance. Prolonged use o speed control is not recommended as this can affect uel usage. When applied, changes in speed should be limited to those necessary to maintain separation minima or spacing. At or above FL250 speed adjustments should be in multiples o M 0.01 and below FL250 in multiples o 10 kt IAS. On intermediate and final approach, speed changes are to be limited to minor adjustments o 20 kt IAS. Speed control is not to be applied to aircraf afer passing a point 4 NM rom the threshold o the landing runway. 15.42 Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS). Automatic Dependent SurveillanceBroadcast (also called ADS-B) is a system by which aeroplanes constantly broadcast their current position and altitude, category o aircraf, airspeed, identification, and whether the aircraf is turning, climbing or descending, over a dedicated radio data link to the Controller.. The ADS system was developed in the 1990s. It relies on data rom the Global Positioning System, or any navigation system that provides an equivalent or better service. The maximum range o the system is line-o-sight, typically less than 200 nautical miles (370 km). The ADS transmissions are received by the Air Traffic Service unit serving the airspace in which the aircraf is operating, and all other ADS equipped aircraf within reception range.
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Basic ADS consists o: • • • • •
Latitude Longitude Altitude Time Figure o Merit (accuracy)
15.43 AIREP. Where required, operational and meteorological inormation can be transmitted in the orm o an air-report (AIREP). AIREPs consist o routine and special reports. A routine report has three sections:
• Section 1 - Position report • Section 2 - Operational inormation (ETA and endurance) • Section 3 - Meteorological inormation Section 1 is mandatory and section 2 is transmitted when requested by the operator or considered necessary by the pilot. Section 3 is transmitted when the aircraf has been requested to make routine met reports at specific en route points. 15.44 AIREP SPECIAL. Special air-reports (AIREP SPECIAL) are reported by all aircraf which encounter any o the ollowing hazards:
• • • • • •
Severe turbulence; Severe icing; Severe mountain wave; Thunderstorms without hail that are obscured, embedded, widespread or in line-squalls; Heavy dust or sand storms; Volcanic ash cloud.
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15.45 Air Traffic Incident Reports (ATIR). In order to provide a medium or reporting, investigation and eedback o incidents occurring whilst an aircraf is under ATC, a system o ATIRs has been established. The ATIRs relate to:
• Aircraf proximity reports (AIRPROX) • ATC procedure reports • ATC equipment reports AIRPROX reports may be originated by either the pilot, AIRPROX(P), or by a controller, AIRPROX(C). From a pilot, the initial report is filed by RTF and the report completed on the ground. 15.46 Priority An aircraf known or believed to be in a state o emergency, including being subject to unlawul intererence, shall be given priority over other aircraf. 15.47 Change o Callsign ATC may require an aircraf to temporarily change its callsign should there be a chance o conusion with another aircraf o a similiar callsign on the same requency.
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Questions Questions 1.
What is the definition o Distress?
a. b. c. d. 2.
What defines the alert phase (ALERFA)?
a. b. c. d. 3.
4.
Q u e s t i o n s
C, D, E, F, G. F and G only. F. A, B, C, D, E, F, G.
What are the three elements o an Air Traffic Control Service?
a. b. c. d.
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The Distress Phase. The Alarm Phase. The Alert Phase. A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the Distress Phase.
FIS is provided to aircraf concerning collision hazards in the ollowing classes o airspace:
a. b. c. d. 7.
FIC or the relevant ATCU. The State and ATC. The Area Control and the RCC. RCC and the FIR.
What is the definition o the Emergency Phase?
a. b. c. d. 6.
discrete VHF requency only. discrete VHF requency or on voice on VOR. VHF requency or on ILS requency. ILS only.
Who is responsible or initiating the Alert Phase?
a. b. c. d. 5.
A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and imminent danger. A situation where it is certain that uel is exhausted. A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its saety. A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency.
Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:
a. b. c. d. 1 5
An emergency condition where an aircraf is in grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance. Persons on board an aircraf are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued. The aircraf will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome. The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the saety o person on board or within sight.
Radar, SAR and FIS. Area, Approach and Aerodrome. Radar, Procedural and FIS. Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.
Questions 8.
What does an ATSU consist o?
a. b. c. d. 9.
b. c. d.
s n o i t s e u Q
Air Traffic Co-ordination Centres. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Inormation Centres. Search and Rescue Co-ordination Centres. Air Traffic Control Centres only.
According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the ollowing statement define: “Inormation concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence o specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the saety o low-level aircraf operations and which was not already included in the orecast issued or low-level flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area thereo.”
a. b. c. d. 14.
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DETRESFA. INCERFA. ALERFA. EMERGFA.
When an aircraf encounters difficulty, the initiation o the alert phase is the responsibility o:
a. b. c. d. 13.
The alert phase is initiated when an aircraf ails to communicate within 30 minutes. FIS and the alerting service may be provided by the same ATCU. The distress phase is always initiated or aircraf subject to unlawul intererence. All other traffic in the vicinity o an aircraf subjected to unlawul intererence is to be notified.
An aircraf has been cleared to land and ails to do so within 5 minutes o the ETA o landing and communications have not been re-established with the aircraf. What phase o the Alerting Service will be declared by the ATSU?
a. b. c. d. 12.
Every 30 minutes or VFR, every 60 minutes or IFR. When there is a change in inormation, irrespective o content or intensity. When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum. When there is a significant change in inormation.
Which o the ollowing statements concerning the alerting service is correct?
a.
11.
An ACC and FIC. An ATCU and FIC. A combined radar unit and ATC tower. An ACC and Approach Control.
How ofen is an ATIS updated?
a. b. c. d. 10.
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NOTAM. SIGMET Inormation. AIRMET Inormation. En route Weather Report.
A Flight Inormation Service shall be provided to all aircraf which are likely to be affected by the inormation and which are:
a. b. c. d.
provided with ATC or which are otherwise known to the relevant ATS unit. provided with ATC. known to the relevant ATS unit. known to the relevant ATS unit and which have filed a FP.
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Questions 15.
Aircraf “A” with ATC clearance is flying in VMC in a CTR. Aircraf “B” without ATC clearance is converging at approximately the same altitude. Which aircraf has the right o way?
a. b. c. d. 16.
Air Traffic Control Centres issue clearances or the purpose o:
a. b. c. d. 17.
a. b.
Q u e s t i o n s
c. d.
Flight Inormation Service; Alerting Service; Advisory Service. Flight Inormation Service only. Flight Inormation Service and Advisory Service. Flight Inormation Service and Alerting Service.
An AIREP comprises a number o sections. What is the content o part 1?
a. b. c. d.
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provided or arriving and departing controlled flights. provided or arriving and departing IFR flights. provided or IFR and VFR flights within a CTR. provided or IFR flights within an ATZ.
A Flight Inormation Region (FIR) is airspace within which the ollowing services are provided:
a. b. c. d. 21.
all aircraf having filed a FP or otherwise known to ATC, as ar as is practicable. or all controlled flights; to any aircraf known or believed to be the subject o unlawul intererence; and all aircraf having filed a FP or otherwise known to ATC, as ar as is practicable. only to aircraf provided with ATC. only to aircraf known or believed to be the subject o unlawul intererence.
The Approach Control Service is an ATC service:
a. b. c. d. 20.
10 seconds. 1 minute. 30 seconds. 15 seconds.
The Alerting Service is to be provided or:
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19.
providing advisory ATC. expediting and separating traffic. achieving separation between IFR flights. providing FIS.
ATSU clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within UTC plus or minus:
a. b. c. d. 18.
Aircraf “A” i “B” is on its right. Aircraf “A” regardless o the position o “B”. Aircraf “B” regardless o the position o “A”. Aircraf “B” i “A” is on its lef.
Noted weather. Flight identification and noted weather. Urgent messages. A position report.
Questions 22.
Clearances will be issued by ATC or the purpose o:
a. b. c. d. 23.
b. c. d.
c. d.
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s n o i t s e u Q
the ATS unit responsible or the aircraf at that moment. the ATS unit responsible or the aircraf at that moment when it can transmit on 121.5 MHz. only ATC units. Area Control Centres.
When is ATIS updated?
a. b. c. d. 28.
preventing collisions between aircraf, between aircraf and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow o air traffic. applying separation between aircraf and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow o air traffic. preventing collisions between controlled aircraf and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow o air traffic. avoiding collisions between all aircraf and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow o air traffic.
The Alerting Service is provided by:
a. b.
27.
ETA and endurance. EET and endurance. Present position and ETA. ETA or the FIR boundary and endurance.
The Air Traffic service is provided or the purpose o:
a.
26.
ATCUs and Air Services reporting units. FICs and Air Services reporting units. ATCUs; FICs and Air Services reporting units. ATCUs and FICs.
What is the content o section 2 o an AIREP?
a. b. c. d. 25.
providing alerting services. achieving separation between air traffic. providing a flight inormation service. providing advisory ATC.
Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) means:
a. b. c. d. 24.
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Only when the weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use. Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value. Upon the receipt o any significant change. Every 30 minutes i weather conditions are below those or VFR, otherwise hourly.
Who is responsible or an ATC clearance to be sae in respect o terrain avoidance?
a. b. c. d.
ATC. The ATSU when accepting the FP. The PIC. The Operator.
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Questions 29.
Which o the ollowing statements regarding the Alerting Service is correct?
a. b. c. d.
30.
ATIS broadcasts or departing and arriving aircraf are to contain cloud cover inormation when:
a. b. c. d. 31.
Q u e s t i o n s
32.
F and G only. C to G inclusive. A to G inclusive. A to E inclusive.
The phases o the Alerting Service to an aircraf in emergency or believed to be in emergency are:
a. b. c. d.
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the Met office serving the aerodrome. both ATC and the Met office. whichever office is prescribed by the state. ATS.
Flight inormation provided to flights shall include provision o inormation concerning collision hazards to aircraf operating in airspace classes:
a. b. c. d. 34.
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel o a VOR beacon. shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF requency. shall not be transmitted on the voice channel o ILS. shall be transmitted on the voice channel o ILS, on a discrete VHF requency or on the voice channel o a VOR beacon.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination o the ATIS message is the responsibility o:
a. b. c. d. 33.
the cloud base is below 5000 f or the highest MSA whichever is higher. the cloud base is below 3000 f or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or there is cumulonimbus reported. the cloud base is below 5000 f or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or there is cumulonimbus reported. the cloud base is below 10 000 f or the highest MSA whichever is higher, or there is cumulonimbus reported.
ATIS broadcast:
a. b. c. d.
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The distress phase is established when an aircraf is known or believed to be the subject o unlawul intererence. Aircraf in the vicinity o an aircraf that is known or believed to be the subject o unlawul intererence, shall be inormed about this. The Alerting Service and FIS are ofen provided by the same ATSU. The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received rom an aircraf within a period o 30 minutes afer the time communications should have been received.
uncertainty phase; urgency phase; distress phase. uncertainty phase; urgency phase; emergency phase. uncertainty phase; alert phase; urgency and distress phase. uncertainty phase; alert phase; distress phase.
Questions 35.
The ATIS broadcast should not exceed:
a. b. c. d. 36.
15
3 minutes. 30 seconds. 1 minute. 2 minutes.
An aerodrome Flight Inormation Service:
a. b. c. d.
can only relay ATC instructions to aircraf on the ground or in the air. can supply limited services to the users but not ATC under any circumstances to aircraf in the air. can supply ATC but is not subject to authority supervision. is the same as ATC but is only provided at an aerodrome.
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Chapter
16 Separation
Concept o Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 291 Vertical Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 291 Horizontal Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 293 Radar Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 303 Procedural Wake Turbulence Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 303 Radar Wake Turbulence Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 308 Visual Separation in the Vicinity o Aerodromes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 308 Stacking . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Separation
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
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Concept of Separation 16.1 General Provisions or the Separation o Controlled Traffic. Separation methods and minima are stipulated in ICAO PANS Document 4444. Within CAS the ATC service will make sure that all controlled flights (flights provided with ATC) are separated rom each other to comply with the first requirement o the service - to prevent collisions between aircraf. Separation can be either:
• Vertical or • Horizontal or • Composite (a mixture o both - see para. 16.3) It is applied to a defined standard, known as the separation minima. Separation is also applied to achieve spacing between aircraf to counter the effects o wake vortices and to acilitate timed arrivals and departures rom busy aerodromes. Separation is applied: • • • • •
Between all flights in class A and B airspaces Between IFR flights in class C, D and E airspaces Between IFR flights and VFR flights in class C airspace Between IFR flights and special VFR flights Between special VFR flights, when so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority
Note: IFR flights in VMC during daylight hours in classes D and E airspace may be cleared to climb and descend whilst maintaining own separation. 16.2 Minimum Separation. Clearance will not be given to execute any manoeuvre that would reduce the spacing between two aircraf to less than the separation minimum applicable. Larger separations than the specified minima will be applied whenever wake turbulence or exceptional circumstances such as unlawul intererence call or extra precautions. Whenever the type o separation or minimum used to separate two aircraf cannot be maintained, action shall be taken to ensure that another type o separation exists, or is established, when the previously applied separation becomes insufficient.
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
16.3 Composite Separation. In circumstances where (usually due to an emergency or a serious deterioration in operating capability) the aircraf cannot maintain the necessary requirements or normal navigation, a compromise separation standard may be specified (in accordance with a RAN agreement), whereby the aircraf will take up altitude and track spacing not less than hal that specified in the standards or normal separation. The RTF ailure procedure or the NAT region specifies composite separation; likewise, the suggested procedure or unlawul intererence where the pilot cannot maintain two-way RTF also specifies composite separation. 16.4 Essential Traffic Inormation. Essential Traffic is defined as that controlled traffic to which ATC separation is applicable but to which in relation to another controlled flight is not, or will not, be separated by the required minimum. ‘Essential traffic inormation’ will be passed to the controlled flights concerned when they constitute essential traffic to each other.
Vertical Separation 16.5 Vertical Separation Minima. Wherever possible, ATC will arrange vertical separation to maximize the use o airspace and minimize horizontal use o airspace. Vertical separation is obtained by requiring aircraf using the same altimeter setting to fly at different levels expressed in terms o flight levels or altitudes dependent upon the magnetic track o the aircraf. The vertical separation minimum (VSM) is:
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Separation • Within designated airspace (subject to RAN agreement (RVSM)), a nominal 300 m (1000 f) below FL410 or a higher level where so prescribed or use under specified conditions, and a nominal 600 m (2000 f) at or above this level; and • Within all other airspace: a nominal 300 m (1000 f) below FL290 and a nominal 600 m (2000 f) at or above this level.
FL110 300 ft 400 ft
Safety “BUFFER” area
300 ft FL100
ICAO LEVEL OCCUPANCY STANDARD = +/- 300 ft (UK applies +/- 200 ft standard) 1 6
Figure 16.1 ICAO level occupancy standard
S e p a r a t i o n
16.6 RVSM Cruising Levels. The RVSM cruising levels defined or domestic airspace (outside o the NAT MNPSA) are those between FL290 and FL410 inclusive. In other words, both FL290 and FL410 are RVSM levels. 16.7 Minimum Cruising Level. Except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, cruising levels below the minimum flight altitudes (established by the State) shall not be assigned. Area Control Centres shall, when circumstances warrant it, determine the lowest usable flight level or levels or the whole or parts o the control area or which they are responsible, and use it when assigning flight levels and pass it to pilots on request. Unless otherwise prescribed by the State concerned, the lowest usable flight level is that which corresponds to, or is immediately above, the established minimum flight altitude. The portion o a control area or which a particular lowest usable flight level applies is determined in accordance with air traffic services requirements. 16.8 Assignment o Cruising Level. An ACC will normally allocate only one cruising level to an aeroplane (except where cruise climb is authorized), or flight in the control area or or flight entering another control area. 16.9 Level Change. I a change in cruising level is required, the aircraf is to request a level change en route (afer initial clearance received). Aircraf, cruise climb authorized, will be cleared to operate between two levels. On ATS routes (airways) extending beyond the control area, level changes are to be effected over a radio navigation aid. I an aircraf has been cleared into a CTA below the minimum cruising level or that airspace, the ACC will issue a clearance to climb even though the pilot has not requested it. When necessary, an aircraf may be cleared to change cruising level at a specified time, place or rate. 292
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16.10 Same Destination. I practicable, cruising levels o aircraf bound or the same destination will be assigned to acilitate the correct approach sequence at the destination. 16.11 Priority. An aircraf at a cruising level will have priority over aircraf requesting that level. When two or more aircraf are at the same level, the preceding aircraf will have priority 16.12 Allocation Separation. An aircraf may be assigned a level previously occupied by another aircraf afer the latter has reported vacating it. In the case o severe turbulence or cruise climb, the assignment will be withheld until the other aircraf has reported at another level separated by the required minimum. 16.13 Vertical Separation During Ascent or Descent. Pilots in direct communication with each other may, with their concurrence, be cleared to maintain a specified vertical separation between their aircraf during ascent or descent. 16.14 Clearance to Maintain Own Separation in VMC. I requested by the pilot o an aircraf and it is agreed by the pilot o the other aircraf and authorized by ATC, a flight operating in classes D and E airspace in VMC during daylight, may be cleared to climb or descend maintaining own separation rom one other aircraf providing:
• The clearance is specifically or the portion o flight below 10 000 f; • Alternative instructions are passed to the pilot to cover loss o VMC; • I conditions deteriorate to the limits o VMC, the pilot is to inorm ATC that he/she is complying with the alternative instructions.
Horizontal Separation 6 1
16.15 Definition. Horizontal separation relates to the distance between aircraf in the horizontal plane. This may be:
n o i t a r a p e S
• Longitudinal (aircraf ollowing the same route), where the separation standard is based on time (or distance) along track between aircraf, or • Lateral.
Figure 16.2
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Separation 16.16 Lateral Separation. Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between those portions o the intended routes or which the aircraf are to be laterally separated is never less than an established distance to account or navigational inaccuracies plus a specified buffer. This buffer shall be determined by the appropriate authority and included in the lateral separation minima. Lateral separation o aircraf at the same level is obtained by requiring operation on different routes or in different geographical locations as determined by visual observation, by use o navigation aids or by use o area navigation (RNAV) equipment. The ‘buffer’ concept is applied to all methods o separation.
Minimum lateral separation
1 6
Position accuracy ‘area’
S e p a r a t i o n
Safety “BUFFER” area Figure 16.3
16.17 Lateral Separation Criteria and Minima. Means by which lateral separation may be achieved include the ollowing:
• Geographical Separation. Separation positively indicated by position reports over different geographical locations as determined visually or by reerence to a navigation aid. • Track Separation. This can be achieved between aircraf using the same navigation aid or method. It is achieved by requiring aircraf to fly on specified tracks which are separated by a minimum amount (angle and distance) appropriate to the navigation aid or method employed as ollows. For the three cases specified the distance required is 15 NM rom the common position with track divergence as ollows:
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• VOR:
Track divergence 15°
• NDB:
Track divergence 30°
• DR Fix:
Track divergence 45°
Separation
16
Figure 16.4 Lateral separation
16.18 Different Navigation Aids. Lateral separation between aircraf using different navigation aids, or where one aircraf is using RNAV equipment, is to be established by ensuring that the derived protected airspaces (buffer areas) do not overlap. 16.19 RNAV Operations. Within designated airspace or on parallel routes where RNP is specified, lateral separation between RNAV aircraf may be obtained by requiring aircraf to be established on the centre lines o parallel tracks or ATS routes spaced at a distance which ensures that the protected airspaces do not overlap. This is the policy that determines the spacing o the NAT tracks employed in the NAT MNPSA.
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
16.20 Longitudinal Separation. Longitudinal separation is the most complex application o separation standards. In procedural ATC (not radar control) the position o the aircraf is that which is reported by the pilot. The positions reported are usually specified reporting points, radio navigation acilities, or geographic points or routes not specified by navigation aids. In any event, the position known to the ATCO is only as good as that reported by the pilot. In applying procedural separation, all possible errors must be allowed or and then a saety margin (buffer) applied. The only situation in which the saety margins may be relaxed is where the pilots o aircraf to which separation should be applied have (and confirmed) that they have visual contact with each other and that they can maintain visual contact during the necessary manoeuvre to which separation would otherwise be applied. Clearly, the separation standards assume operations in IMC. The accuracy o pilot position reporting relies on the accuracy o the navigation system in use. In remote areas (over the oceans and desert regions) where RNAV procedures may be used, greater protection needs to be applied. Longitudinal separation applied is either in terms o time or dis tance.
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Separation 16.21 Application. Longitudinal separation is applied so that the spacing between the estimated positions o the aircraf being separated is never less than a prescribed minimum. Longitudinal separation between aircraf ollowing the same or diverging tracks may be maintained by application o the Mach number technique, when so prescribed on the basis o RAN agreement. Longitudinal separation is established by requiring aircraf to depart at a specific time, to lose time, to arrive over a geographical location at a specified time, or to hold over a geographical location until a specified time. For the purpose o the application o longitudinal separation, the ollowing terms are defined:
• Same track. The same track case applies when the tracks o two aircraf that require separation, converge or diverge by an angular difference less than 45°, or more than 315° and whose protection areas overlap. • Reciprocal track. The reciprocal track case applies when the tracks o two aircraf that require separation, converge or diverge by an angular difference more than 135° but less than 225° and whose protection areas overlap. • Crossing tracks. When there is an angular difference between tracks o 45° or more but not exceeding 315° (ie : 045 to 135 degrees or 225 to 315 degrees).
Minimum longitudinal separation
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
Position accuracy ‘area’
Safety “BUFFER” area
Figure 16.5 Longitudinal separation
16.22 Time Based Longitudinal Separation. The separation standards applied depend upon whether the aircraf concerned are maintaining the same level, or are climbing/descending. 16.23 Same Level. In this situation the separation is dependent upon the track case:
• Same track case. The basic standard is that aircraf should be at least 15 minutes apart. I, however, navigation aids or the route being flown permit requent determination o position and speed, the basic standard may be reduced to 10 minutes. The standard my be urther reduced to 5 minutes providing the aircraf have departed rom the same aerodrome, or
296
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passed over the same en route reporting point, or reported over a fix that is located relative to the departure point, to ensure that 5 minutes separation can be established at the point the departing aircraf will join the route, with the overriding proviso that the preceding aircraf has TAS 20 kt or more aster than the succeeding aircraf. I the speed difference is increased to 40 kt, the standard may be urther reduced to 3 minutes.
Figure 16.6
• Crossing tracks case. The basic standard is 15 minutes. I, however, the requent determination o position and speed caveat applies, the standard may be reduced to 10 minutes.
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
Figure 16.7
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Separation 16.24 Climbing or Descending. This is a more complex case. The problem only exists when vertical separation does not exist (the aircraf are within the vertical separation standard o each other). Again it depends upon the relative tracks o the aeroplanes but now also involves the reciprocal track case.
• Same track. When an aircraf will pass through the level o another aircraf on the same track, the separation applied is 15 minutes, but may be reduced to 10 minutes provided that navigation aids permit requent update o position and speed (and approved by the authority); or 5 minutes provided that the level change is commenced within 10 minutes o the time that the second aircraf has reported over an exact reporting point.
Figure 16.8
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
Figure 16.9
298
Separation
16
Figure 16.10
Note: I the level change involved is considerable, an intermediate level just above or just below (depending on the case - climb or descend) may be allocated to the manoeuvring traffic. Once at that level, separation will be assessed and i applied, the level crossing manoeuvre approved and executed.
• Crossing tracks. The applicable standard is 15 minutes unless requent update o position and speed is available, in which case the minimum is reduced to 10 minutes. • Reciprocal tracks. Where lateral separation is not provided, vertical separation shall be provided or at least 10 minutes prior to and afer the time the aircraf are estimated to have passed. Once it has been established (usually visually) that the aircraf have indeed passed, this minimum need not then urther apply.
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
Figure 16.11
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16
Separation 16.25 Longitudinal Separation Based on DME. Where DME inormation is available, separation can be established by maintaining not less than the specified distances between aircraf positions. In this case it is a requirement that direct pilot - controller communication is maintained. Note: in the NAT region using HF, communication is via a radio operator not direct to the controller. 16.26 Aircraf at the Same Level. The previously defined same and crossing track situations apply:
• Same track. The normal standard is 20 NM provided each aircraf uses on-track DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings rom the aircraf at requent intervals. The standard may be reduced to 10 NM provided the leading aircraf maintains a TAS 20 kt or more, aster than the succeeding aircraf. • Crossing tracks. The same track standards apply to crossing traffic providing that each aircraf reports distance rom the station located at the crossing point and that the relative angle o the tracks is less than 90°. • Climbing or descending. The standard separation is 10 NM whilst vertical separation does not exist, providing each aircraf uses ‘on-track’ DME stations; one aircraf maintains a level whilst vertical separation does not exist, and separation is established by simultaneous DME readings rom the aircraf. • Reciprocal tracks. Aircraf using on-track DME may be cleared to climb or descend to or through levels occupied by other aircraf using on-track DME, provided it has been positively established that the aircraf have passed each other and are at least 10 NM apart (or such other value as the authority specifies).
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
16.27 Longitudinal Separation with Mach Number Technique Based on Time. The Mach number technique requires turbojet aircraf to fly at the Mach number approved by ATC, and to request approval beore making any speed changes. I it is essential to make immediate temporary changes to speed (e.g. due to turbulence), ATC is to be inormed as soon as possible. I it is not easible due to aircraf perormance to maintain the last assigned Mach number during en route climbs and descents, pilots are to advise ATC at the time clearance to climb or descent is requested. Separation will be deemed to exist when the required time interval exists providing:
• The aircraf concerned have reported over the same reporting point and ollow the same track or continuously diverging tracks until some other orm o separation is provided, or • It is possible to ensure, by radar or other means, that the appropriate time interval will exist at the common point rom which they will either ollow the same track or continuously diverge, i the aircraf have not already reported over the same p oint. 16.28 Time Intervals. When the Mach number technique is applied, minimum longitudinal separation between turbojet aircraf on the same track, whether in level, climbing or descending flight is:
• 10 minutes providing the preceding aircraf maintains a Mach speed equal to or greater than that maintained by the ollowing aircraf, or
300
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• Between 9 and 5 minutes inclusive, providing the preceding aircraf is maintaining a Mach number greater than the ollowing aircraf in accordance with the ollowing: Mach No. difference between preceding and ollowing
Longitudinal Separation standard
0
10 minutes
0.01
10 minutes
0.02
9 minutes
0.03
8 minutes
0.04
7 minutes
0.05
6 minutes
0.06
5 minutes
Figure 16.12 Mach number separation
16.29 Longitudinal Separation Based on RNAV. This is applicable to RNAV aircraf operating along RNAV routes or ATS routes defined by VOR. In this case, separation is established by maintaining the specified distance between aircraf positions reported by reerence to the RNAV equipment. It is a requirement that direct controller/pilot communications are maintained. RNAV positions are defined as standard way points common to both aircraf subject to separation. The minimum is 150 km (80 NM) distance based separation instead o the normally required 10 minutes. It is also essential that the Mach number technique is applied. In the event o equipment ailure reducing the navigation capability to less than the RNAV requirement, the normal longitudinal separation will be app lied. The specific separation requirements are:
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
• Same cruising level. 150 km (80 NM) providing each aircraf reports position rom same point and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous RNAV distance readings rom the aircraf at requent intervals. • Climbing or descending on same track. 150 km (80 NM) whilst vertical separation does not exist, provided each aircraf reports distance rom same way point, one aircraf maintains level flight whilst vertical separation does not exist, and separation is established by obtaining simultaneous RNAV distance readings rom the aircraf. • Reciprocal tracks. Aircraf may be permitted to climb or descend through levels occupied by other aircraf providing it has been positively established by simultaneous RNAV distance readings to or rom the same on-track way point that the aircraf have passed each other by at least 150 km (80 NM).
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Separation 16.30 Longitudinal Separation Based on RNAV where RNP is Specified. For aircraf cruising, climbing or descending on the same track in an RNP RNAV environment, the separation standards detailed in the table below may be used. During the application o the 50 NM minimum, i an aircraf ails to report its position, the controller is to take action within 3 minutes to establish communications. I communication has not been established within 8 minutes, alternative separation is to be applied. An aircraf may climb or descend through an occupied level once it has been established that the aircraf concerned have passed.
RNP Type
Communication Requirement
Surveillance Requirement
Distance Verification Requirement
Separation
20
Direct pilot/controller communications
Procedural Position Reports
At least every 60 minutes
80 NM
10
Direct pilot/controller communications
Procedural Position Reports
At least every 30 minutes
50 NM
Figure 16.13 RNP RNAV separation
16.31 Reduction in Separation Minima. The separation minima may be reduced as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, afer prior consultation with the aircraf operators, as appropriate, in the ollowing circumstances:
• When special electronic or other aids enable the pilot-in-command o an aircraf to determine accurately the aircraf’s position and when adequate communication acilities exist or that position to be transmitted without delay to the appropriate air traffic control unit; or
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
• When, in association with rapid and reliable communication acilities, radar-derived inormation o an aircraf’s position is available to the appropriate air traffic control unit; or • When special electronic or other aids enable the air traffic controller to predict rapidly and accurately the flight paths o an aircraf and adequate acilities exist to veriy requently the actual aircraf positions with the predicted positions; or • When RNAV-equipped aircraf operate within the coverage o electronic aids that provide the necessary updates to maintain navigational accuracy. • In accordance with RAN agreements, afer prior consultation with the aircraf operators, when: • Special electronic, area navigation and other aids enable the aircraf to closely adhere to their current flight plans; and • The air traffic situation is such that the conditions regarding communications between pilots and the appropriate ATS unit or units need not necessarily be met to the degree specified therein, in order to maintain an adequate level o saety.
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Radar Separation 16.32 Separation Minima. Radar provides the ATCO with airly accurate position inormation or an aircraf under his/her control. Problems associated with radar include: slant range display, target discrimination and loss o contact close to the radar overhead. These ‘errors’ must be handled in the same manner that other positional errors are: by the addition o ‘buffer’ allowances. The errors are worse or long range radars used in area control but must still be considered or terminal radars covering a much smaller area. The basic radar separation standard is 5 NM. This means that where two aircraf identified on radar are at the same level, they are not permitted to approach closer than 5 NM to each other on the radar display. 16.33 Reduced Radar Separation. When approved by the authority and in specific circumstances, the radar separation standard (5 NM) may be reduced. The ollowing describe these specific occasions:
• Radar capabilities. When radar capabilities so permit at a given location, the radar separation standard may be reduced to 3 NM. • ILS Localizer. Where two (or more) aircraf are established on the same ILS localizer course and within 10 NM o the threshold o the landing runway, the separation standard may be reduced to 2.5 NM between contacts on the radar display. • Simultaneous Parallel Approaches (Mode 2 - Dependent). During Mode 2 parallel runway operations radar separation is applied. Between aircraf on adjacent localizer courses the separation standard may be reduced to 2 NM between contacts on the radar display. 6 1
Procedural Wake Turbulence Separation
n o i t a r a p e S
Figure 16.14
16.34 Situation. When the wings are creating lif (rom ‘rotate’ to ‘touchdown’), wake vortices are created behind the aircraf. This is apparent in the orm o turbulence, the severity o which is a unction o aircraf mass, the worst case being a heavy aircraf at low speed. Where an aircraf is ollowing another aircraf, allowance must be made or the ‘wake turbulence effect’ which under certain circumstance can be so severe as to cause structural damage (even catastrophic damage) to an airrame. The nature o the wake vortex is that it emanates rom the wing tip in the orm o spiralling air rom the high pressure area below the wing to the low
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Separation pressure area above the wing. It spirals ‘in board’ towards the uselage. The vortex exists at the level o the generating aircraf and to an altitude not exceeding 1000 f below the generating aircraf. Where the ollowing aircraf is within this airspace, wake turbulence separation must be applied.
16.35 Wake Turbulence Categories. Aircraf are categorized by maximum take-off mass (MTOM) to relate to the severity o the wake vortices generated. There are three categories as ollows:
• Heavy • Medium • Light
- all aircraf types with MTOM equal to 136 000 kg or more - aircraf types with MTOM less than 136 000 kg but more than 7000 kg - aircraf types with MTOM o 7000 kg or less
Note: MTOM is stated on the Certificate o Airworthiness or the aircraf. 16.36 Separation Minima. The ollowing procedural (non-radar) wake turbulence separation is applied. Note the criteria are only applicable where the ollowing aircraf is ‘lighter’ than the preceding aircraf.
16.37 Arriving Aircraf. Timed approaches:
• Medium behind a heavy - 2 minutes • Light behind a medium or heavy - 3 minutes 1 6
16.38 Departing Aircraf. For a light or medium taking off behind a heavy, or a light behind a medium, a minimum o 2 minutes is applied when they are using:
S e p a r a t i o n
• The same runway. • Parallel runways separated by less then 760 m. • Crossing runways i the projected flight paths cross at the same altitude or within 1000 f below the heavier. • Parallel runways separated by 760 m or more i the projected flight paths cross at the same altitude or within 1000 f below the heavier.
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Separation
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Figure 16.15 Parallel runways
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
Figure 16.16 Parallel and crossing runways
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Separation
Figure 16.17 Intermediate take-off
Note: Separation is increased to 3 minutes where a light or medium is taking off behind a heavy (or light behind a medium) rom an intermediate part o the same runway or an intermediate point on parallel runways. 1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
16.39 Displaced Landing Threshold. A separation o 2 minutes is applied between light or medium and heavy (or between light and medium) when operating on a runway with a displaced threshold when:
• A departing light or medium ollows a heavy arriving, or a departing light ollows a medium arriving, or • An arriving light or medium ollows a heavy departing, or an arriving light ollows a medium departing, i the projected flight paths are expected to cross.
16.40 Opposite Direction. A separation o 2 minutes is applied between a light or medium and a heavy, or between a light and a medium, when the heavier aircraf is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraf is using an opposite direction runway or take-off, or is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction, or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by less than 760 m.
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Separation
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Figure 16.18 Opposite direction or take-off
6 1 n o i t a r a p e S
Figure 16.19 Opposite direction or landing
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Separation 16.41 Indication o Heavy Category. Because o the inherent problems caused by heavy wake turbulence category aircraf requiring additional separation, pilots o heavy category aircraf are to indicate the aircraf’s heavy category in the initial RTF contact with an ATCU by the inclusion o the suffix “heavy” to the identiying call sign o the aircraf. e.g. “London Control this is Speedbird 216 heavy on 133.650”
Radar Wake Turbulence Separation 16.42 Radar Wake Turbulence Separation. Because the position o the aircraf is displayed to the controller, the required separation or wake turbulence in this case is expressed in distance. The table below contains the wake turbulence radar separation minima specified by ICAO which will be applied to aircraf in the approach and departure phases o flight. Note that in this case the criteria apply where the category o the ollowing aircraf is lighter than the leading aircraf, except or the heavy/heavy case. Aircraf Wake Turbulence Category
1 6
Leading Aircraf
Following Aircraf
Separation
Heavy
Heavy
4 NM
Heavy
Medium
5 NM
Heavy
Light
6 NM
Medium
Light
5 NM
Figure 16.20 Radar wake turbulence separation criteria
S e p a r a t i o n
Visual Separation in the Vicinity of Aerodromes 16.43 Introduction. Except in conditions where ‘Low Visibility’ operations are in progress at an aerodrome, traffic flying in the vicinity o the aerodrome including arriving, departing and local area traffic, will be flying in conditions which will either permit VFR or pilots o aircraf to maintain separation rom other aircraf visually. The im portance o this cannot be overstressed as the application o visual separation not only relieves the ATCO o having to impose either procedural or radar separation, but permits minimum runway occupancy time, ‘land afer’ procedures and multiple aircraf flying in the visual traffic pattern. In effect, the application o visual separation increases aerodrome capacity and hence aerodrome utilization. Typically, Heathrow has the capacity to accommodate about 60 take-off operations and 60 landing operations per hour and at peak time the traffic load gets close to this. I procedural or radar separation had to be applied to the arrival or departure phases o operations, the utilization would reduce dramatically. The standards previously mentioned can be reduced i:
• Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraf is continuously visible to the controller; or • Flight crews report that they have visual contact with other aircraf and this can be maintained; or • In the case o one aircraf ollowing another, the crew o the ollowing aircraf report that the leading aircraf is within sight and that separation can be maintained.
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Separation
16
16.44 Essential Local Traffic. Any aircraf, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway, or traffic in the take-off and climb out areas or the final approach area, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraf is defined as essential local traffic. Where essential local traffic is known to the controller the inormation is to be transmitted to flight crews without delay. 16.45 Departing Aircraf. Under IFR, departing aircraf will normally be separated rom each other by requiring the aircraf to ollow a SID. ATCUs will co-ordinate the issuing o clearances, and where possible, standard clearances will be used. Such clearances will normally be specified by the approach controller and passed to the aircraf by the aerodrome control tower. For departures in VMC, the aerodrome controller will clear an aircraf or take-off once the preceding aircraf has either:
• Passed the upwind end o the runway, or • Has made a turn away rom the runway. Where wake turbulence separation is applied, departures will be sequenced to minimize delays and maximize runway utilization. For IFR traffic, the standard separation between departures is 5 minutes (12 movements per hour). This may be reduced to 2 minutes between aircraf ollowing the same departure track providing the preceding aircraf has filed a FP speed 40 kt greater than the succeeding aircraf. This may ur ther be reduced to 1 minute (60 movements per hour) providing the track o the succeeding aircraf diverges rom that o the preceding aircraf by 45° or more. Obviously, where parallel runways are used or simultaneous take-offs, or diverging runways are used, higher utilization rates (lower separation) may be achieved.
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Figure 16.21
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Separation 16.46 Departure Sequence. At busy aerodromes, the ground movement o aircraf will be planned to ensure that the stated Off Blocks Time can be translated into the necessary slot time or the aircraf. This is the job o the Ground Movements Planner working or the aerodrome controller. I correctly sequenced, the aircraf will arrive at the holding point (or holding area) in the correct order or take-off. Consideration will also be given to the route o the aircraf immediately afer take-off to minimize wake turbulence separation. Departure may be expedited by suggesting a take-off direction that is not into wind. In this case, the PIC is to make the decision i this is acceptable. 16.47 Delays. It is inevitable that at some point a delay will occur. In which case, flights may be cleared to take off in an order based on the estimated departure time. Deviation rom this may be made to acilitate the maximum number o departures with the least average delay, or in response to requests rom operators. ATCUs should inorm operators when anticipated delays exceed 30 minutes. 16.48 Arriving Aircraf. Arriving IFR aircraf may be cleared to make a visual approach provided that:
• The pilot can maintain visual reerence to terrain; and • The reported ceiling is at or above the approved initial approach level; or • The pilot reports that at any time during an instrument approach the meteorological conditions are such that there is a reasonable assurance that an approach and landing will be made visually. 16.49 Separation. ATC will provide separation between aircraf making a visual approach and all other arriving or departing traffic. For arriving IFR traffic (in IMC) the Approach Controller will transer control o the aircraf to the Aerodrome Controller at a point during the approach so that separation rom departing traffic can be achieved and sufficient time is available to issue a landing clearance. For certain types o approach (PAR or SRA) the aircraf will remain under control o the Approach Radar Controller throughout the approach. This will necessitate the radar controller obtaining the landing clearance and p assing it to the pilot during the latter stages o the approach. The Aerodrome Controller in co-operation with the Approach Controller will be responsible or sequencing departures during low visibility IFR operations. Two situations are considered:
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
• Complete Approach. I an aircraf is making a complete instrument approach, a departing aircraf may take off in any direction until an arriving aircraf has started its procedure turn or base turn leading to final approach OR in a direction which is different by at least 45 degrees rom the reciprocal o the direction o approach afer the arriving aircraf has started a procedure turn or base turn leading to final approach, provided that the take-off will be made at least 3 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the beginning o the instrument runway. (see Figure 16.22) • Straight-in Approach. I an aircraf is making a straight-in approach, a departing aircraf may take off in any direction until 5 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the instrument runway OR in a direction which is different by at least 45 degrees rom the reciprocal o the direction o approach o the arriving aircraf until 3 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the beginning o the instrument runway OR beore the arriving aircraf crosses a designated fix on the approach track as determined by the ATS authority. (see Figure 16.22)
310
Separation
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Figure 16.22
16.50 Inormation to Arriving Aircraf. I a pilot requests it, or it is apparent to ATC that the pilot o an aircraf is not amiliar with the procedures or an instrument approach, inormation will be passed to enable the approach to be flown. I the aircraf has been cleared or a straight-in approach, only details o the final approach track need be passed.
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16.51 Missed Approach Tracks. Where parallel runway segregated operations (the Heathrow case) are in progress, a missed approach to the landing runway creates a simultaneous departure situation where procedures or Mode 3 are not in orce. To overcome the problems this creates, procedures are to be implemented to ensure that the missed approach track diverges rom the normal departure track by at least 30°.
Figure 16.23
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Separation Stacking 16.52 Approach Sequence. Where more than one aircraf is arriving it is normal or the aircraf at the lowest altitude to land first. Where necessary, a holding pattern will be established or ‘stacking’ o aircraf waiting to start the approach. Under certain circumstances, a later arrival will be given priority over earlier arrivals. Such circumstances are:
• Where an aircraf is compelled to land because o actors affecting the saety o the aeroplane or the occupants. In this case, the PIC o the aircraf involved will be expected to declare an emergency using either “MAYDAY” or “PAN PAN” procedures; • Hospital aircraf or aircraf carrying sick or seriously injured people. International hospital flights will prefix initial RTF with “PAN PAN MEDICAL”; • Aircraf engaged in SAR operations; • Other aircraf as may be determined by the authority. 16.53 Procedure. It is normal or ‘stacks’ to be established on the radio navigation beacons serving as the IAF or the instrument procedures to be used. The vertical size o the stack may be limited by airspace considerations and when ull, ‘overspill’ stacks would be established on remote beacons. Arriving aircraf will be cleared into the stack at the lowest available level. Normal holding pattern joining procedures are used. Aircraf will be cleared to commence the instrument procedure rom the lowest holding altitude (the bottom o the stack) using timed arrival procedures. I a pilot states his/her intention to continue holding awaiting a weather improvement when other pilots wish to make an instrument approach, the holding pilot will be instructed to take up another holding pattern or directed to rejoin the hold at the top. I a pilot elects to attempt an instrument approach when others remain in the hold, an unsuccessul approach would result in the aircraf being directed back into the stack at the top.
1 6 S e p a r a t i o n
16.54 Expected Approach Time (EAT). When an aircraf enters a stack the controlling ATCO will pass an EAT which must be acknowledged by the pilot. This will be the time that the pilot can expect to commence the instrument approach. Initially the EAT will not be less than 30 minutes afer the time o entry. I it is expected that the aircraf will not be held or more than 20 minutes, the pilot will be inormed “no delay expected”. As the approach sequence progresses, i necessary the EAT will be revised by 5 minute intervals, passed to the pilot and acknowledged. 16.55 En Route Holding. It is ofen preerred to hold an aircraf en route at cruising altitude, rather than to progress the flight to the terminal stage and hold at low level with high uel burn rates. Where delays are known to exist and aircraf are held en route, credit will be given or time spent holding en route by inserting the aircraf into the approach sequence ahead o other aircraf so that the aircraf that has held en route is not p enalized.
Should an en route aircraf be instructed by ATC to take up a hold while en route, this may necessitate basing the hold over a non-standard holding point (a town, a point o latitude and longitude, a significant point along the route) – i.e. not over an authorized navigational aid over which a recognized hold is based. In this case, unless otherwise instructed, the aircraf should take up a right-hand hold.
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D D Y L t a s k c a t s e v i t a n r e t l a e h t d n a f 0 0 0 7 t a A H L h t i w k c a t s n i g g i B e h t g n i w o h s R O V n i g g i B e h t a i v R H L r o R A T S e h T 4 2 . 6 1 e r u g i F
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Questions Questions 1.
What types o separation does ATC apply?
a. b. c. d. 2.
I you want to descend through the level o another aircraf on the same track, the minimum separation is:
a. b. c. d. 3.
Q u e s t i o n s
5.
I the pilot requests and the state approves. I the pilot requests and it is day time. I the pilot requests during day or night. Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted.
What is the separation based on RNAV when RNP is specified?
a. b. c. d.
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1000 f. 500 f. 2000 f. 4000 f.
When can one aircraf pass through the level o another aircraf which is flying along an ATS route, in VMC maintaining own separation?
a. b. c. d. 7.
500 f. 1000 f. 2000 f. It depends whether or not RVSM is applied.
What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR aircraf flying in the same direction above FL290 in non-RVSM airspace?
a. b. c. d. 6.
80 NM. 60 NM. 50 NM. 20 NM.
What is the vertical separation minimum below FL290?
a. b. c. d.
1 6
20 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes. 15 minutes.
What is the minimum longitudinal separation standard required or RNAV routes?
a. b. c. d. 4.
Horizontal, longitudinal and timing. Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal. Horizontal, vertical and composite. Horizontal, vertical and lateral.
80 NM. 50 NM. 80 or 50 dependent upon the RNP type. 15 minutes.
Questions 8.
I two aircraf are using the same VOR or track separation, what distance must the aircraf be rom the VOR beore one o the two may commence a climb or descent?
a. b. c. d. 9.
c. d.
s n o i t s e u Q
80 NM. 60 NM. 50 NM. 25 NM.
When can a controlled flight be given permission to climb/descend maintaining own separation in VMC?
a. b. c. d. 14.
6 1
10 NM where the first aircraf speed is 40 kt aster than the second. 10 NM where the first aircraf speed is 20 kt aster than the second. 20 NM where the first aircraf speed is 40 kt aster than the second. 20 NM where the first aircraf speed is 20 kt aster than the second.
Two aircraf are using the Mach number technique (both at same Mach number or first aster than second) or same same track separation. separation. I using an RNAV track, what would be the standard separation in lieu o time?
a. b. c. d. 13.
10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM. 15 NM.
What is the separation standard between aircraf at the same altitude when using DME to determine range rom a beacon?
a. b. c. d. 12.
During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval. You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night. You only need to request approval or the manoeuvre. In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal.
Two aircraf are on the same track at the same level and are using simultaneous DME fixes rom the same on track DME station. What is the minimum longitudinal separation applied?
a. b. c. d. 11.. 11
5 NM. 10 NM. 15 NM. 20 NM.
Whilst under IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level o another aircraf. What is required? required?
a. b.
10.
16
When directed by ATC. When requested by the pilot and the ATC approves. When there is no conflicting traffic. When approved by the operator.
What is essential traffic?
a. b. c. d.
Flights engaged in priority flights i.e. VIP, hospital or police flights. Any conflicting traffic. Traffic which should be separated but which isn’t. Unidentified Unidentifie d traffic on radar.
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Questions 15.
When is essential traffic inormation passed to an aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 16.
What is the divergence angle that must be maintained rom overhead an NDB to a range o 15 NM to allow one aircraf to climb/descend through the level o another?
a. b. c. d. 17.. 17
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Q u e s t i o n s
10 minutes. 9 minutes. 8 minutes. 7 minutes.
What is the divergence angle that must be maintained rom overhead a VOR to a range o 15 NM to allow one aircraf to climb/descend through the level o another?
a. b. c. d.
316
60 NM. 80 NM. 50 NM. 20 NM.
With the Mach number technique applied what is the longitudinal standard separation between two aircraf o which the preceding aircraf is M 0.04 aster than the ollowing aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 20.
5 minutes. 6 minutes. 10 minutes. 3 minutes.
A separation minimum based on “RNAV” distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed, assuming that every aircraf reports its distance to or rom the same “on-track” waypoint. The minimum is:
a. b. c. d. 19.
15°. 30°. 45°. 60°.
The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraf at the same altitude, or which navigation aids can give a requent determination o position and speed and when the proceeding aircraf has a true airspeed o at least 40 kt higher than the ollowing aircraf, is:
a. b. c. d. 18.
Beore a take-off clearance is issued. Where traffic constitutes essential traffic to another controlled flight. When the separation minima cannot be maintained. When a pilot requests permission to descend or climb maintaining own separation.
15°. 30°. 45°. 60°.
Questions 21.
The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraf at the same altitude, or which navigation aids can give a requent determination o position and speed and when both aircraf have updated navigation data, can be reduced to 5 minutes i:
a. b. c. d. 22.
6 1
s n o i t s e u Q
10 minutes. 2 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
The reduced radar separation provided to aircraf established on the same localizer course is:
a. b. c. d. 26.
15°. 30°. 45°. 60°.
Longitudinal separation based on time or aircraf at the same level when navigation aids permit requent determination o speed and position and where the preceding aircraf is maintaining TAS 20 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf, is:
a. b. c. d. 25.
3 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes. 15 minutes.
What is the required track divergence between the departure track and the missed approach track or parallel runway operations?
a. b. c. d. 24.
the first aircraf has updated the navigation data within the last 10 minutes. both aircraf have updated the navigation data within the last 10 minutes. the second aircraf is updating navigation data at the time. the second aircraf has updated the navigation data within the last 10 minutes.
Two aircraf are on crossing tracks at the same level where the navigation aids do not permit requent update o speed and position. What is the minimum separation applied?
a. b. c. d. 23.
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2 NM. 5 NM. 3 NM. 2.5 NM.
Longitudinal separation based on time or aircraf at the same level when navigation aids permit requent determination o speed and position is:
a. b. c. d.
10 minutes. 2 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
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Questions 27.. 27
I an aircraf is making a ‘straight-in’ approach a departing aircraf may take off in any direction:
a. b. c. d. 28.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum is:
a. b. c. d. 29.
1 6
Q u e s t i o n s
at least 45° separated at a distance o 15 NM or more rom the fix. at least 30° separated at a distance o 15 km or more rom the fix. at least 30° separated at a distance o 15 NM or more rom the fix. at least 45° separated at a distance o 15 km or more rom the fix.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or medium aircraf and a heavy aircraf, and between a light and a medium aircraf, when the heavier aircraf is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraf is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction, or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by:
a. b. c. d.
318
Medium behind heavy = 2 minutes. Medium behind medium = 2 minutes. Light behind medium = 4 minutes. Medium behind heavy = 3 minutes.
Track separation between aircraf using the same DR fix shall be applied requiring the aircraf to fly:
a. b. c. d. 32.
the preceding aircraf is 30 kt or more aster than the succeeding aircraf. the preceding aircraf is 20 kt or more aster than the succeeding aircraf. the preceding aircraf is 10 kt or more aster than the succeeding aircraf. the preceding aircraf is 40 kt or more aster than the succeeding aircraf.
To meet wake turbulence separation criteria or aircraf using timed approaches, what is the minimum applied to aircraf landing behind a heavy or medium aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 31.
2.5 NM. 5 NM. 3 NM. 2 NM.
Separation between departing aircraf may be reduced to 2 minutes when:
a. b. c. d. 30.
until 2 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the threshold o the instrument runway. until 10 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the threshold o the instrument runway. until 5 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the threshold o the instrument runway. until 3 minutes beore the arriving aircraf is estimated to be over the threshold o the instrument runway.
730 m. Less than 760 m. 760 m. Less than 730 m.
Questions 33.
16
What would be the minimum distance applied in an approach sequence between a heavy aircraf ollowed by a light aircraf? ( Note: Note: It is assumed that this question is applicable to radar wake turbulence and assumes that the ollowing aircraf is at the same level as the preceding aircraf.)
a. b. c. d. 34.
What is the minimum vertical separation between IFR aircraf flying below FL290?
a. b. c. d. 35.
6 1
5 minutes at the time the level is crossed. 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed. 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed. 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
s n o i t s e u Q
In order to meet the wake turbulence separation criteria, what separation should be applied when a medium aircraf is taking off behind a heavy and both are using the same runway?
a. b. c. d. 38.
2 NM. 2.5 NM. 3 NM. 5 NM.
When one aircraf will pass through the level o another aircraf on the same track where navigation aids permit requent determination o speed and position, the minimum longitudinal separation provided is:
a. b. c. d. 37.. 37
500 f. 1500 f. 2000 f. 1000 f.
What is the minimum radar separation applied between aircraf on adjacent localizer courses during simultaneous parallel approaches mode 2 - dependent?
a. b. c. d. 36.
6 NM. 3 NM. 4 NM. 5 NM.
2 minutes. 3 minutes. 4 minutes. 1 minute.
What is the reduced radar separation applied between aircraf on the same ILS localiser course within 10 NM o touchdown?
a. b. c. d.
5 NM. 2.5 NM. 3 NM. 2 NM.
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Questions 39.
Longitudinal separation based on time or aircraf at the same level when navigation aids permit requent determination o speed and position and the preceding aircraf is maintaining a TAS 40 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf is:
a. b. c. d. 40.
RNAV distance based separation may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraf reports its distance to or rom the same ‘on track’ waypoint. The minimum is:
a. b. c. d. 41.. 41
1 6
43.
25° immediately afer take-off. 45° immediately afer take-off. 30° immediately afer take-off. 15° immediately afer take-off.
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced to a minimum o hal the standard is called:
a. b. c. d.
320
3 minutes. 1 minute. 2 minutes. 5 minutes.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraf i the tracks to be flown diverge by at least:
a. b. c. d. 44.
3 NM. 5 NM. 1.5 NM. 1 NM.
What wake turbulence separation is applied when a light aircraf is taking off behind a medium aircraf?
a. b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
60 NM. 50 NM. 20 NM. 80 NM.
The normal radar separation standard may be reduced, when radar capabilities permit, to:
a. b. c. d. 42.
10 minutes. 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 3 minutes.
composite separation. combined separation. reduced separation. essential separation.
Questions 45.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME rom ‘on track’ DME stations is:
a. b. c. d. 46.
b. c. d.
6 1
s n o i t s e u Q
reported airborne and climbed to 500 f. lef the aerodrome traffic zone. crossed the upwind end o the runway or made a turn away rom the runway. reported ‘downwind’.
A departing aircraf will not be permitted to take off when arriving instrument traffic has:
a. b. c. d. 50.
5 minutes afer the aircraf are assumed to have passed each other other.. 10 minutes afer the aircraf are assumed to have passed each other. 15 minutes afer the aircraf are assumed to have passed each other. 20 minutes afer the aircraf are assumed to have passed each other other..
An aircraf will not be given clearance to take off until the preceding aircraf has:
a. b. c. d. 49.
10 NM when the leading aircraf maintains a TAS 20 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf. 10 NM when the leading aircraf maintains a TAS 40 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf. 20 NM when the leading aircraf maintains a TAS 10 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf. 10 NM when the leading aircraf maintains a TAS 10 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf.
Aircraf flying reciprocal tracks may be cleared to climb and descend through the level o the other aircraf provided the manoeuvre does not commence until:
a. b. c. d. 48.
10 NM. 5 NM. 20 NM when the leading aircraf maintains a TAS 20 kt aster than the succeeding aircraf. 20 NM.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME where each aircraf uses ‘on track’ DME stations s tations is:
a.
47.. 47
16
started the procedure turn. passed a point 10 minutes rom the threshold o the instrument runway. reported “field in sight”. reported “long final”.
Wake turbulence separation is:
a. b. c. d.
applicable at all times. applicable only between aircraf o different wake turbulence categories. applicable only between aircraf at the same level or where the succeeding aircraf is less than 1000 f below the preceding aircraf. not applicable to parallel runway operations.
321
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Answers
Answers
1 6
A n s w e r s
322
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
c
d
a
b
d
b
c
c
a
c
b
a
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
b
c
b
b
d
b
d
a
d
d
b
c
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
d
a
c
b
d
a
a
b
a
d
a
b
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
a
b
d
d
a
c
b
a
d
a
b
c
49
50
a
c
Chapter
17 Control of Aircraft
Procedural ATC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 325 Radar Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 325 Radar Identification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 327 Radar Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 327 Aerodrome Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 331 Approach Control Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 333 Air Tr Traffic affic Advisory Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 339 Aircraf Emergencies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 339 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
341
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
348
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Control of Aircraft
1 7 C o n t r o l o f A i r c r a f t
324
Control of Aircraft
17
Procedural ATC 17.1 Concept. The provision o ATC to air traffic is largely a post WW2 concept. The need or ATC was highlighted by the high loss rate o aeroplanes during WW2 on and in the vicinity o aerodromes due to mid air collisions, collisions with obstacles and inadvertent flight into terrain. This led to the establishment o ATC at aerodromes provided by the control tower but beyond the aerodrome boundary (now replaced by the ATZ) little was provided other than a ‘flight ollowing’ monitoring service essentially to ascertain that the aircraf was still airborne! Afer an accident in the US involving two Constellations over the Grand Canyon in the early 1950s concern was expressed that two relatively small objects flying over a vast geographic area could be a threat to each other. This led to the establishment o a ‘one-way’ system or east/west flight over the continental US and gave rise to the first established ‘procedural’ ATC service. The service provided separation by requiring aircraf naturally cruising at the same altitude to fly via different routes (lateral geographic separation). It required the pilot to tell the air traffic controller where the aircraf was by passing position reports. The data collected was plotted and as the flight progressed any apparent collision risk was determined and the flights concerned would be asked to alter course to eliminate the problem. The problems with this were that the equipment used to determine the aircraf position was, by modern standards, somewhat crude; the communications equipment and acilities were poor and the availability o flight inormation including met data was virtually nonexistent. However, the density o air traffic was also low and the application o large ‘buffer’ distances overcame the problems o inaccuracy and poor communications. 17.2 Flight Strips. Within the ATC centres, the progress o a flight is tracked with a paper system known as a flight strip. The strip is originated rom the ATS Flight Plan and in theory, is transerred rom ATCO to ATCO and rom centre to centre. Clearly, the progress o the flight strips may not actually be ‘physical’ but will require a new strip to be compiled at centre ‘B’ rom inormation passed by telephone rom centre ‘A’. Within a centre the progress may be a physical passing o the strip rom one controller to another. This system is virtually ool-proo and over the last 20 years ATC research centres (e.g. Eurocontrol at Brétigny) have tried to come up with electronic replacements.
7 1 t f a r c r i A f o l o r t n o C
17.3 Procedural Separation. The procedural separation standards are covered in Chapter 16 o these notes. 17.4 Communications. Ever since aircraf have been able to carry radios, they have been used or air to ground communications. The present day ATC system relies on VHF two-way communications to make the system work. Over the ocean areas and remote land areas, HF is used together with the ability to maintain a radio watch using the Selcal system which relieves the pilot o having to actually listen to the radio. Each ATC unit has a radio callsign e.g. Oxord Approach, as does each aircraf. I two aircraf have the same or conusingly similar call signs, ATC can ask one aircraf to use another call sign or the time being.
Radar Control 17.5 Concept. The primary use o radar in ATC is to enhance the provision o separation. In theory, radar gives the ATCO the ability to determine the aircraf position with more accuracy than the pilot can! However, SATNAV systems with precision accuracy (+/- 30 cm) are now adding a whole new dimension to ATC. Radar systems cover long range surveillance used in area control (en route traffic), terminal aerodrome radar (TAR) used in the vicinity o an aerodrome or aerodromes to provide a service to arriving and departing traffic, and surace movement radar at an aerodrome to provide the aerodrome controller with inormation in poor visibility or at night.
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Control of Aircraft The system that provides a radar return displayed on a display system is called Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR). All radar systems can be augmented with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) to provide flight specific identification and altitude inormation. Radar can also be used in the provision o precision or non-precision approaches.
Figure 17.1 ATC radar head at Clee Hill, Shropshire
Figure 17.2 ATC radar head at London Heathrow 1 7
17.6 Radar Services. At its most basic, radar is used to derive inormation or the updating o inormation displayed on the flight strips. In this manner, it is augmenting a procedural system. I, however, the radar response rom a specific aircraf can be individually determined (identified) then the provision o separation rom other radar contacts (aircraf) can be achieved. In this manner, the radar derived inormation is used directly to provide separation to a much greater degree o accuracy. The types o radar service are:
C o n t r o l o f A i r c r a f t
• Radar Control or controlled en route aircraf • Approach Radar Control or arriving and departing controlled traffic • Radar vectoring: the provision o navigation instructions to an aircraf to achieve a specific aim e.g. positioning to intercept the ILS localizer. • PAR and SRA as instrument approach systems As with all ATC procedures, a radar service is only provided inside CAS. ICAO does however permit the use o radar to obtain inormation to enable the provision o an FIS outside o CAS. Radar may also be used to assist the provision o inormation as part o the Advisory ATC service provided in class F airspace. At an aerodrome, radar may be used by the aerodrome controller to determine the separation between departing aircraf but not to actually apply the separation.
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17.7 Radar Separation. There is only one radar separation standard and this is 5 NM. As defined in Chapter 16, reduced radar separation may be applied under specific conditions. The separation applied is based upon the aircraf position derived rom PSR only. As defined and specified in Chapter 16, wake turbulence separation can be applied using radar derived inormation. In this case the separation standards applied are based on d istance.
Radar Identification 17.8 Requirement. Beore a radar controller can provide any service to an aircraf, the radar identity o the aircraf must be established. Clearly, the basic SSR capability is to identiy a specific aircraf squawking a specifically allocated code, thereore this method o identification is most commonly used. It is also the quickest method o identification. Once an aircraf has been allocated an SSR code, it must be retained until otherwise advised by the radar controller. I an emergency situation arises, the pilot should not squawk A7700 i the identity o the aircraf has already been established using SSR. All other methods o identification by radar require the ATCO to observe the radar contacts on the display screen and determine, either rom geographic position or rom a specific manoeuvre, which contact is the aircraf requiring the service. Such observations include:
• • • • • •
Geographic location e.g. ‘2 NM west o Woodstock’ Relative to a radio navigation aid - “On the 230 radial rom the Daventry VOR DME 5 NM” Latitude and longitude Geore position Turn through 30° or more away rom desired course and then return to the course Positive handover rom a radar controller who had previously identified the aircraf
17.9 Procedure. When identiying a radar contact as a specific aircraf, the radar controller must tell the pilot how the identification was achieved. The controller will use the phrase ‘radar contact’ to indicate that the aircraf has been identified and that until urther advised, a service will be provided - “G-CD radar contact 2 NM west o Oxord”. This position should agree with the position the pilot thinks the aircraf is at. I significantly different, the pilot must inorm the controller in the event that the controller has misidentified the aircraf.
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Radar Service 17.10 Commencement. Afer identification, the pilot is to be told what type o radar service is to be provided and what the objective is - “G-CD radar contact 6 NM west o Compton, radar control, expect radar vectors or ILS approach runway 26” 17.11 Termination. When an aircraf reaches the limit o radar cover or the edge o a radar vectoring area, or the aim o the service has been achieved, the pilot will be advised that the service is terminated, given position inormation and instructions/advice how to continue. For instance: “G-CD radar service terminated, presently 10 NM south o Benson, resume own navigation, suggest continue with London Inormation 125.650”
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Control of Aircraft 17.12 Radar Vectoring. Radar vectoring is the passing o navigation inormation to a pilot by a radar controller to achieve the aircraf flying a required track. This may be simply to avoid weather or manoeuvre around another aircraf radar contact. Once the aim o the vectoring has been achieved, the pilot will be told to “Resume own navigation” giving the pilot the aircraf’s position and any appropriate instructions. This implies that the radar vectoring has ended. It may be provided to position the aircraf such that a straight-in instrument approach can be achieved. In any event, radar vectoring or approach control purposes is only carried out inside a radar vectoring area (RVA). Obstacles are marked on an RVA chart.
MSA outside of RVA
Radar Vectoring Area Boundary
1 7
Safety altitude inside of RVA
C o n t r o l o f A i r c r a f t
Figure 17.3 Radar vectoring area
17.13 Vectoring Procedure. Radar vectoring will not begin until the aircraf radar contact is determined to be within the RVA. The RVA will be displayed on the radar display in the orm o a video map electronically generated within the radar display sofware. Because o possible inaccuracies (‘slippage’) aircraf will not be radar vectored closer to the edge o the RVA than hal the applicable radar separation standard or 2.5 NM whichever is greater. Normally, radar vectoring will begin at a fix at MSA. It may, however, begin at any time afer the aircraf has been identified on radar and the aircraf altitude is known to the ATCO. The RVA chart displays the obstacles in the area together with the elevation o the terrain. The radar controller will pass magnetic headings to the pilot to steer to make good a desired track over the ground. The pilot will fly the heading and the controller will adjust the heading or the wind. The aircraf will not be given clearance to descend below the RVA sae altitude (highest obstacle in RVA plus MOC rounded up) until established on the ILS localizer course or on the final approach track, or the pilot reports that he/she is continuing the approach visually. Throughout the procedure, the radar controller must be aware o the elevation o the terrain and the aircraf configuration to avoid spurious GPWS warnings.
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17.14 ILS Vectoring Requirements. Where the purpose o vectoring is to position the aircraf at a point where localizer capture is achieved, the closing heading to the centre line o the ILS localizer is 45°. I parallel runway operations Modes 1 or 2 are in use, the angle is limited to 30°. The closing heading is to be maintained or a distance o not less than 1 NM. 17.15 Radar Controlled Approach. Radar may be used to provide a precision (PAR) or nonprecision (SRA) approach to a runway. In both cases, the radar controller provides radar derived inormation to the pilot to permit the aircraf to be flown along a predefined track and, in the case o PAR, a defined glide path. For SRA, a recommended vertical profile (virtual glide path) is published. I radar contact is lost or any significant period during the last 2 NM o a radar approach, the pilot will be advised to carry out a missed approach procedure. 17.16 PAR. This is specifically engineered radar equipment that provides very accurate (precision) azimuth and glide path inormation to a dedicated radar controller. Whilst providing a PAR service, the controller will be engaged in providing the service to one aircraf and will not have any other duty. The pilot will be passed azimuth (right or lef turn or heading) inormation and elevation (‘on’; ‘above’; or ‘below’) inormation to fly the aircraf along the predetermined flight path. The service will continue until the aircraf reaches DH which would have been passed by the pilot to ATCO at the beginning o the procedure. At DH the pilot wi ll be inormed that the aircraf is at DH and radar service is terminated. Because the inormation is passed in the orm o a continuous talk-down, the pilot must stay on the PAR approach requency. The radar controller is thereore responsible or obtaining a landing clearance rom the aerodrome controller. Normally this would be done at 4 NM rom the threshold o the landing runway, but may be delayed by the aerodrome controller until 2 NM. I no clearance has been received at 2 NM, the pilot will automatically begin the missed approach procedure. At some time during the approach (usually at 3 NM) the pilot will be asked to confirm a final check o the landing gear (and at a military aerodrome, the flap configuration). At some point during the approach, the flight crew will cross-check the position o the aircraf against the PAR inormation (or instance using DME and rad alt inormation). PAR will not generally be ound at civilian aerodromes; however, the new generation o PAR equipment is widely installed at military aerodromes.
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Figure 17.4 PAR installation at RAF Marham
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Control of Aircraft (27 Oct 05) AD 2-EGKK-8-5
UK AIP 1 8 0 °
22
2 70 °
0 90 °
20
° 0 6 3
LONDON GATWICK
EGKK CAT A,B,C,D
23
AD ELEV
THR ELEV
TRANSITION ALT
VAR
202FT
195FT
6000
2°W
20
MSA 25NM ARP
SRA RTR 2NM RWY 08L RADAR 126.825
ATIS
APPROACH
TOWER
136.525
126.825, 118.950, 129.025
124.225, 134.225, 121.800(GMC)
000 30W
000 20W
000 10W
000 00
000 10E
10NM
OCK 115.30D
5120N
BIG 115.10D b i g
o c k
0 8 0
876
EPM 316 e p m
823
5 0 0
791 5 00
771 742
5 0 0
820
0 0 0 8 0
500
575
509
965
856
982
SDF 4NM
5
GY 365
5110N
0 8 0 °
g y
564 646
0 8 0 °
0 8 0 °
443
MAPt
489
1 M I N 2 6 0 °
627
LHA 2000
5 0 0
666 MAY
502
787
D5 270° 500
645
090°
5100N 1 7
MAY 117.90D
522
C o n t r o l o f A i r c r a f t
m a y
Initial and Intermediate Approach as directed by radar.
MAPt ( SDF
Climb straight ahead to 3000, then as directed. RADIO FAILURE: In the event of RCF climb straight ahead to I-GG DME 10 (VOR DME MAY R356 for aircraft unable to receive DME I-GG), then proceed to VOR DME MAY not above 3000.
4NM radar range
1295(1100)
5NM radar range
1895(1700)
0 8 0 °
0 ° 0 8
( 4 . 9 % )
10NM 9
8
7
6
5
RADAR ADVISORY HEIGHTS
NOTE
3
2
1
THR
OCA (OCH)
RATE OF DESCENT
Gradient 4.9%, 300FT/NM
4
NM
ALT/HGT
G/S KT
FT/MIN
5.0 4.0 3.0 2.0
1745 (1550) 1445 (1250) 1145 (950) 845 (650)
160 140 120 100 80
800 700 600 500 400
) RTR 2NM
PROCEDURE A B C D
845 (650) 845 (650) 845 (650) 845 (650)
VM(C) OCA (OCH AAL) TOTAL AREA 802 (600) 802 (600) 1102 (900) 1102 (900)
MAXIMUM IAS for Missed Approach Procedure 250KT.
Figure 17.5 SRA approach
17.17 SRA. An SRA approach is a non-precision procedure using TAR and will thereore have a determined MDA/H. The procedure or SRA is similar to PAR except that in this case advisory height inormation is passed with range inormation e.g. “5 miles rom touchdown, you should be passing one thousand five hundred and fify eet”. SRA approaches always have an RTR
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figure stated. This is the range at which the radar service will be automatically terminated. RTR stands or Radar Termination Range. Typically RTR2 is used indicating that the radar service will be terminated at 2 NM rom the threshold o the landing runway. During the procedure, the pilot is passed magnetic headings to fly and corrections (lef or right) to the extended centre line o the landing runway. I the RTR is 2, distance inormation is passed (with advisory height inormation) every 1 NM. I RTR1 is applicable, range and height inormation is passed every 0.5 NM. As or PAR, the radar controller will be responsible or obtaining a landing clearance rom the aerodrome controller and passing it to the pilot. The approach plate or the SRA approach to Gatwick is shown in Figure 17.5.
Aerodrome Control 17.18 Introduction. The responsibility or avoiding collisions involving aircraf, obstacles, vehicles and personnel on or in the air in the vicinity o an aerodrome rests with the aerodrome controller. At a ‘controlled aerodrome’ (see definition) the aerodrome controller usually operates rom the visual control room (VCR) situated at the top o the control tower. The VCR normally allows the aerodrome controller to see all parts o the aerodrome but may also have electronic aids to assist the controller when visibility is poor or at night. The primary duty o the aerodrome controller is to control access to the runway in use. The nature o the service offered is procedural, with the pilot telling the aerodrome controller where the aircraf is and the controller basing any instructions or clearances on that inormation. For departing aircraf the aerodrome controller will give a take-off clearance which will be de-acto permission to enter and take off rom the runway. Once airborne the pilot will report ‘airborne’ at which time another aircraf can be cleared to use the runway. 17.19 Use o the Runway. The aerodrome controller will normally decide which runway will be used or take-off and landing operations. The ‘runway-in-use’ will determine the direction or instrument approaches and the direction or the v isual circuit. Normally, the wind direction will be the deciding actor; however, in calm or light wind conditions, another direction may be preerable or ATC, airspace restriction or noise abatement requirements. At London Heathrow, a departing aircraf will be expected to accept a 5 kt tail wind and use the noise preerential runways. It is a generally accepted practice that only one aircraf is permitted on the runway at any time.
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17.20 Departing Aircraf. Aircraf waiting or take-off will be held at a runway holding point on the taxiway at a sae distance rom the centre line o the runway. It is normal procedure or aircraf to be given a ‘take-off immediate’ clearance. This requires the pilot to taxi the aircraf on to the runway and without stopping, line the aircraf on the centre line and then apply the necessary power to commence the take-off run. A succeeding aircraf may be permitted to enter the runway (given the instruction ‘line up and wait’) as soon as the preceding aircraf has commenced the take-off run. A succeeding aircraf will not be given clearance to take off until the preceding aircraf has either crossed the upwind threshold, or has commenced a turn away rom the runway direction. 17.21 Arriving Aircraf. When established on final approach, an arriving aircraf will be given clearance to land i the runway is available. For an arriving instrument approach, the clearance to land will normally be given at about 4 NM rom the threshold and certainly no later than 2 NM rom the threshold. I the pilot o an arriving instrument approach has not been given a landing clearance, the missed approach procedure is to be flown commencing at 2 NM. Once the landing run is complete and the pilot has turned the aircraf onto the taxiway, he/she is required to make a report to the aerodrome controller to confirm that the aircraf has ‘vacated the runway’. This is to be made when all o the aircraf has passed the appropriate holding point. 331
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Control of Aircraft
Figure 17.6 Runway vacated report
17.22 Essential Local Traffic. Inormation on essential local traffic known to the Controller, shall be also transmitted to departing and arriving aircraf. Essential local traffic consists o any aircraf, vehicle or personnel on or near the runway to be used, or traffic in the take-off, climbout or final approach areas, which may constitute a collision hazard to a departing or arriving aircraf. 17.23 “Land Afer” Clearance. Under certain conditions, a pilot may be given a provisional clearance to “land afer the preceding aircraf”. This will be done to increase the utilization o the runway at peak times so that aircraf may arrive at 1 minute intervals. In this case, the pilot o the second aircraf will decide i the preceding aircraf will be clear o the runway at the time he/she lands and that there is sufficient separation between the aircraf throughout the manoeuvre. Throughout the landing, the pilot o the ollowing aircraf must be able to see the previous aircraf and is responsible or maintaining separation. In this case, the pilot o the ollowing aircraf will apply the appropriate visual separation which may be less than the procedural separation. The provision o ‘ast turn off lanes’ or ‘rapid exit taxiways’ on aerodromes enhances this option. The necessary conditions are:
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• Only permitted during daylight; • The pilot o the second aircraf must be able to see the preceding aircraf throughout the manoeuvre; • The runway must be dry (braking action good); • The pilot and operator o the aircraf concerned must be aware that the runway occupancy time is limited to 50 seconds; • The ATCO must be able to see the entire length o the landing runway. 17.24 Flight Inormation. As with all other ATSUs the aerodrome controller is responsible or the provision o flight inormation to aircraf on the aerodrome or in flight in the vicinity o the aerodrome. Routine inormation may be passed using ATIS but the aerodrome controller is responsible or making sure that departing aircraf and arriving aircraf at the initial contact with ‘tower’ are aware o any limitations to the radio navigation or visual aids on the aerodrome. Likewise any work in progress on the aerodrome is to be repor ted in a timely manner.
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17.25 Inormation to Departing and Arriving Aircraf. The aerodrome controller is required to ensure that pilots have adequate and accurate aerodrome inormation prior to using the aerodrome. Where wind inormation is passed, the direction is to be in degrees magnetic so that the pilot can relate this directly to the aircraf compass.
• Prior to Taxi. Beore taxiing a pilot is to be told: • What runway is in use; • The surace wind direction and speed; • The aerodrome QNH; • The air temperature or the runway to be used (or turbine engine aircraf only); • The visibility in the direction o take-off or the RVR; • The correct time. • Prior to Take-off. The ollowing is passed to a pilot prior to take-off: • Any significant changes in wind conditions, air temperature, visibility or RVR • Significant meteorological conditions in the take-off and climb-out areas (unless the pilot has already been inormed) • Prior to Entering the Traffic Pattern. Beore entering the traffic pattern or commencing an approach to land, a pilot is to be provided with the ollowing inormation: • The runway to be used; • The surace wind direction and speed; • The aerodrome QNH; 17.26 Alerting Service. The aerodrome controller is responsible or the activation o the aerodrome crash rescue and firefighting service when required. I necessary, all visual circuit traffic can be suspended by the aerodrome controller or the duration o an emergency situation. The aerodrome controller may suspend the visual circuit on the instructions o the Area Control Centre i an aircraf in an emergency is likely to land at the aerodrome. I an aircraf which has been cleared to land ails to do so within 5 minutes afer the landing clearance has been issued, or ails to contact the aerodrome controller afer having been transerred, the aerodrome controller will report the act immediately to the ACC or the FIC and the Alert Phase will be declared immediately.
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Approach Control Service 17.27 Establishment. Approach control provides ATC to traffic departing rom, and arriving at, aerodromes. Where IFR traffic is departing to join airways, the approach controller is the link between the aerodrome departure procedures and the airways joining procedures and vice versa or arriving traffic. It is usual nowadays or radar to be used in approach control although procedural approach control exists (as here at Oxord or the VDF and NDB approach procedures). Where an aerodrome is in a CTR, approach control is mandatory and the controller may be known as the zone controller. The approach office (approach control room) may be at another aerodrome i there is more than one aerodrome in the CTR. Where an aerodrome is outside o a CTR, approach control (where established, as here at Oxord) is advisory. Where procedures are established or instrument approaches, the approach controller may delegate radar vectoring (and monitoring o sel positioning) to a radar director. At aerodromes in CTRs where the met conditions are IMC or the criteria or VMC take-off cannot be met, the approach controller will be responsible giving clearance or take-offs. It will also be the approach controller’s responsibility or obtaining clearance to land rom the aerodrome controller or IFR flights carrying out low visibilit y instrument approaches.
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Control of Aircraft 17.28 Departing Aircraf. When the control o traffic is based on an air traffic control clearances, the clearance is to speciy:
• • • • •
Direction o take-off and turn afer take-off, Track to be made good beore proceeding on desired heading, Level to maintain beore continuing climb to assigned cruising level, Time, point and/or rate at which level change shall be made, Any other necessary manoeuvre consistent with the sae operation o the aircraf.
17.29 Take-off direction. Departing aircraf may be expedited by suggesting a take-off direction which is not into the wind. It is the responsibility o the pilot-in-command o an aircraf to decide between making such a take-off, and waiting or normal take-off in a preerred direction. 17.30 Delays. In order to avoid excessive holding at the destination, aircraf may be held at the departure aerodrome prior to take-off. ATC is required to advise operators (or their nominated representative) o substantial delays and in any case where the delay is expected to exceed 30 minutes. 17.31 Inormation or Departing Aircraf. The ollowing inormation is to be passed to departing aircraf by the approach controller:
• Meteorological inormation. Inormation regarding significant changes in the meteorological conditions in the take-off or climb-out area, obtained by the unit providing approach control service is to be transmitted to departing aircraf without delay, except when it is known that the aircraf already has received the inormation. Significant changes in this context include those relating to surace wind direction or speed, visibility, runway visual range, or air temperature (or turbine engined aircraf), and the occurrence o thunderstorm or cumulonimbus, moderate or severe turbulence, windshear, hail, moderate or severe icing, severe squall line, reezing precipitation, severe mountain waves, sand storm, dust storm, blowing snow, tornado or waterspout.
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• Visual or non-visual aids. Inormation regarding changes in the operational status o visual or non-visual aids essential or take-off and climb shall be transmitted without delay to a departing aircraf, except when it is known that the aircraf already has received the inormation. • Essential traffic inormation. Inormation regarding essential local traffic known to the controller shall be transmitted to departing aircraf without delay. 17.32 Arriving Aircraf. Arriving aircraf (aircraf being handed over to approach rom area (airways)) may be required to report when leaving or passing a reporting point, or when starting procedure turn or base turn, or to provide other inormation required by the controller to expedite departing aircraf. 17.33 Initial Approach Clearance. An IFR flight will not be cleared or an initial approach below the appropriate minimum altitude unless:
• • • •
334
The pilot has reported passing an appropriate point defined by a radio navigation aid; or The pilot reports that the aerodrome is (and can be maintained) in sight; or The aircraf is conducting a visual approach; or The aircraf’s position has been positively determined by radar.
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17.34 Visual Approach. Visual approach is defined as an approach by an IFR flight when either part or all o an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reerence to terrain. An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided that the pilot can maintain visual reerence to the terrain and the reported ceiling is at or above the approved initial approach level or the aircraf so cleared; or the pilot reports at the initial approach level or at any time during the instrument approach procedure that the meteorological conditions are such that with reasonable assurance a visual approach and landing can be completed. 17.35 Separation. Separation shall be provided between an aircraf cleared to execute a visual approach and other arriving and departing aircraf. For successive visual approaches, radar or non-radar separation shall be maintained until the pilot o a succeeding aircraf reports having the preceding aircraf in sight. The aircraf shall be instructed to ollow and maintain separation rom the preceding aircraf. Transer o communications should be effected at such a point or time that clearance to land or alternative instructions can be issued to the aircraf in a timely manner. 17.36 Instrument Approach. Instrument approaches are carried out under the supervision o the approach controller. Where radar vectoring and monitoring o approaches is carried out, control may be delegated to a radar director or radar final controller.
• Speed control. The method o maintaining separation during sequenced instrument approaches using radar is by asking the aircraf concerned to fly at specified a speed. It is usual or an aircraf to start an instrument approach (rom the IAF) at 210 kt (IAS). For example a clearance might be: “Speedbird 289 leave Ockham heading 290 speed 210 kt”. This is a speed that most commercial operations aircraf can achieve without having to use drag or lif enhancing devices. I necessary, the speed o a subsequent aircraf will be reduced to maintain the necessary time/distance interval between the aircraf. Speed adjustments will be made in intervals o no more than 20 kt and required speeds will always be in multiples o 10 e.g. “Speedbird 289 maintain 180 kt”. During the latter stages o an approach, the pilot will need to reduce the speed to V at so no urther speed control will be applied afer the aircraf has passed 4 NM rom touchdown.
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• Unamiliar procedures. I a pilot-in-command reports (or i it is clearly apparent to the ATC unit) that he or she is not amiliar with an instrument approach procedure, the initial approach level, the point (in minutes rom the appropriate reporting point) at which procedure turn will be started, the level at which the procedure turn shall be carried out and the final approach track shall be specified, except that only the last-mentioned need be specified i the aircraf is to be cleared or a straight-in approach. The missed approach procedure shall be specified when deemed necessary. • Visual reerence to terrain. I visual reerence to terrain is established beore completion o the approach procedure, the entire procedure must nevertheless be executed unless the aircraf requests and is cleared or a visual approach. • Choice o procedure. A particular approach procedure may be specified to expedite traffic. The omission o a specified approach procedure will indicate that any authorized approach may be used at the discretion o the pilot.
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Control of Aircraft 17.37 Holding. Where holding is required as part o an arrival procedure leading to an instrument approach, the approach controller will control the holding procedure (stack). Control may be delegated to a radar controller (director). Holding and holding pattern entry shall be accomplished in accordance with procedures established by the appropriate ATS authority and published in Aeronautical Inormation Publications. I entry and holding procedures have not been published or i the procedures are not known to the pilot-in-command o an aircraf, the appropriate air traffic control unit shall describe the procedures to be ollowed.
• Holding point. Aircraf shall be held at a designated holding point. The required minimum vertical, lateral or longitudinal separation rom other aircraf, according to the system in use at that holding point, shall be provided. • Separation. When aircraf are being held in flight, the appropriate vertical separation minima shall continue to be provided between holding aircraf and en route aircraf while such en route aircraf are within five minutes flying time o the holding area, unless lateral separation exists. • Holding levels. Levels at holding points shall be assigned in a manner that will acilitate clearing each aircraf to approach in its proper priority. Normally the first aircraf to arrive over a holding point should be at the lowest level, with ollowing aircraf at successively higher levels. However, aircraf particularly sensitive to high uel consumption at low levels, such as supersonic aircraf, should be permitted to hold at higher levels than their order in the approach sequence, whenever the availability o discrete descent paths and/or radar makes it possible, subsequently, to clear the aircraf or descent through the levels occupied by other aircraf. • Alternative procedures. I a pilot-in-command o an aircraf advises o an inability to comply with the approach control holding or communication procedures, the alternative procedure(s) requested by the pilot-in-command should be approved i known traffic conditions permit.
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17.38 Stacking (Approach Sequence). Whenever approaches are in progress, the ollowing procedures (stacking) are applied:
• Priority. The approach sequence (the stack) is established to permit the arrival o the maximum number o aircraf with the least average delay. Special priority may be given to: • An aircraf which anticipates being compelled to land because o actors affecting the sae operation o the aircraf (engine ailure, uel shortage, etc.). • Hospital aircraf or aircraf carrying any sick or seriously injured person requiring urgent medical attention. • Procedural sequence. Except where timed approaches are in progress (see paragraph 17.39), succeeding aircraf will be cleared or approach (to start the procedure - leave the stack) when the preceding aircraf: • Has reported that it is able to complete its approach without encountering IMC; or • Is in communication with and has been sighted by the aerodrome controller, and reasonable assurance exists that a normal landing can be made.
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• Holding. ATC will approve a request to hold or weather improvement (or or other reasons). I other aircraf holding decide to make an approach and radar is available, a pilot deciding to remain holding will be vectored to an adjacent fix to continue holding. Alternatively, he/ she may be vectored (or given a procedural clearance) to place the aircraf at the top o the stack so that other aircraf may be permitted to carry out the procedure and land. • Credit time. Where an aircraf has been authorized to absorb delay time whilst en route (by reduced cruising speed or en route holding), the time delayed should be credited in any stacking. 17.39 Timed Approaches. Timed approaches allow subsequent aircraf to commence approaches more requently than as specified in paragraph 17.38. In this case an aircraf would be cleared to depart the fix o the stack a period o time afer the preceding aircraf. The procedure must be authorized by the authority and the ollowing complied with:
• A suitable point on the approach path (capable o being determined by the pilot - VOR radial, DME range) is to be specified as a check point or timing o successive approaches; • Aircraf are to be give a time at which to pass the specified point inbound (the purpose o which is to achieve the desired interval between successive landings on the runway while respecting the applicable separation minima at all times including runway occupancy period). The time determined is to be passed to the pilot to allow sufficient time or him/ her to arrange the flight to comply. 17.40 Expected Approach Time (EAT). An expected approach time shall be determined or an arriving aircraf that will be subjected to stacking, and shall be transmitted to the aircraf, as soon as practicable and preerably not later than at the commencement o its initial descent rom cruising level. In the case o aircraf particularly sensitive to high uel consumption at low levels, an expected approach time should, whenever possible, be transmitted to the aircraf early enough beore its intended descent time to enable the pilot to chose the method o absorbing the delay and to request a change in the flight plan i the choice is to reduce speed en route. A revised expected approach time shall be transmitted to the aircraf without delay whenever it differs rom that previously transmitted by 5 minutes or more or such lessor period o time as has been established by the appropriate ATS authority or agreed between the ATS units concerned. An expected approach time shall be transmitted to the aircraf by the most expeditious means whenever it is anticipated that the aircraf will be required to hold or thirty minutes or more. The holding point to which an expected approach time relates shall be identified together with the expected approach time whenever circumstances are such that this would not otherwise be evident to the pilot. Expected Approach Time is defined as the time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraf, ollowing a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach or landing.
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17.41 Inormation or Arriving Aircraf. The ollowing inormation is to be passed to aircraf during the approach phase:
• When established. As early as practicable afer an aircraf has established communication with the approach controller, the ollowing inormation, in the order listed, shall be transmitted to the aircraf, except where it is known the aircraf has already received it: • Runway-in-use; • Meteorological inormation;
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Control of Aircraft Note: The meteorological inormation is identical to that required in ATIS broadcasts or aircraf arriving, and is to be extracted rom meteorological reports disseminated locally at the aerodrome.
• Current runway surace conditions, in case o precipitants or other temporary hazards; • Changes in the operational status o visual and non-visual aids essential or approach and landing. • Commencing final approach. At the commencement o final approach, the ollowing inormation shall be transmitted to the aircraf: • Significant changes in the mean surace wind direction and speed; Note: Significant changes are detailed in Annex 3 (Met). I the controller has access to wind component tables, the ollowing are considered to be significant: ◦
◦
◦
Mean head-wind component Mean tail-wind component Mean crosswind component
10 kt 2 kt 5 kt
• The latest inormation, i any, on wind shear and/or turbulence in the final approach area; • The current visibility representative o the direction o approach and landing or, when provided, the current runway visual range value(s) and the trend, i practicable, supplemented by slant visual range value(s), i provided. • During final approach. The ollowing inormation shall be transmitted without delay:
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• The sudden occurrence o hazards (or example: unauthorized traffic on the runway);
C o n t r o l o f A i r c r a f t
• Significant variations in the current surace wind, expressed in terms o minimum and maximum values; • Significant changes in runway surace conditions; • Changes in the operational status o required visual or non-visual aids;
• Changes in observed RVR value(s), in accordance with the reported scale in use, or changes in the visibility representative o the direction o approach and landing.
17.42 Transer o Aircraf rom One ATC Unit to Another. Transer o the control o aircraf rom one ATC Unit to another shall be at such a point, level or time that inormation and instructions can be passed to the aircraf in a timely manner.
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Air Traffic Advisory Service 17.43 Establishment and Objective. The Air Traffic Advisory Service is defined as a service provided within advisory airspace (class F) to ensure separation between aircraf operating on IFR flight plans. In practice, this service is established in response to a request where the establishment o a ull ATC service has not been determined. In other words, it is a temporary arrangement pending a decision on whether or not a ull ATC service is required. The objective is to make inormation on collision hazards more effective than it would be in the provision o a flight inormation service only. It is provided to IFR flights in advisory airspace or on advisory routes. 17.44 Operation. The Air Traffic Advisory Service does not afford the degree o saety and does not assume the same responsibilities as a ull ATC service. To this end clearances are not issued and only advice or suggestions are offered by the ATCOs. An IFR flight electing to use the service is expected to comply with the same procedures as would be in orce in CAS, except that Flight Plan changes are not subject to clearance. All IFR flights flying in class F airspace are required to file Flight Plans. Traffic electing to use the advisory service will receive an ‘acknowledgement’ o the submission o the Flight Plans only. IFR flights crossing an advisory route are required to do so at ‘right angles’ to the route direction at a level appropriate to the semi-circular rule.
Aircraft Emergencies 17.45 Use o SSR. Use o the reserved SSR codes is the most expeditious means o indicating a situation where an aircraf requires assistance. Clearly, the aircraf must be flying in an area where radar is used or ATC, and in this may be a actor o altitude. Even outside o radar control areas there are military acilities and mobile units that can interrogate and receive SSR inormation which can assist the alerting service to provide the necessary assistance. The reserved codes are:
• Mode A code 7700 • Mode A code 7600 • Mode A code 7500
7 1 t f a r c r i A f o l o r t n o C
Emergency Radio ailure Unlawul Intererence
Additionally: • Mode A code 7000
Conspicuity code or an aircraf operating in an area where a radar service is available but the aircraf is not in receipt o the service (commonly reerred to as VFR conspicuity)
• Mode A code 2000
An aircraf is operating in an area where a radar service is not available but will be entering an area where a radar service is available and will be requesting that service (this is used or eastbound NAT traffic east o 30W that intend entering the Scottish UIR).
17.46 Aircraf Already Identified. I a pilot is already in receipt o a radar service and has been identified by the use o a discrete SSR code, selection o a reserved code to indicate a state o emergency may delay the application o the assistance. In this case the allocated Mode A code should be retained.
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Control of Aircraft 17.47 ATC Contact in an Emergency. In an emergency pilots can expect to be contacted by ATC on 121.5 MHz or, as a back-up, on the inter-pilot air-to-air requency 123.45 MHz. 17.48 Emergency Descent. I an aircraf suffers a pressurization ailure at altitude, the rules require the aircraf to be descended to an altitude where oxygen in the air supports lie. In the event, ATC will broadcast a warning to aircraf in the vicinity o a descending aircraf. The pilot o the descending aircraf should attempt to broadcast the aircraf altitude at intervals to assist other aircraf to avoid a collision. 17.49 Fuel Jettison. In certain circumstances, it may be necessary to reduce the mass o the aircraf to maximum landing mass as soon as possible by dumping as much uel as is required. All aircraf which have a maximum take-off mass greater than the maximum landing mass are required to have a uel jettison system. I the aircraf is flying in C AS, beore commencing uel jettison, the controlling ATCU is to be inormed. The route over which the uel is to be jettisoned should be clear o towns, preerably over water and clear o areas where thunderstorm activit y has been reported or is expected. The level at which the jettison takes place is to be not lower than 6000 f. This will allow the uel in aerosol orm to evaporate beore reaching the ground. The ATCU is to be advised o the duration o the operation. 17.50 Strayed and Unidentified Aircraf. A strayed aircraf is one that has deviated significantly rom its intended track or reports that it is lost, whereas an unidentified aircraf is one o which the ATCU is aware but the identity is not known.
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Questions
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Questions 1.
In what class o airspace is an advisory service provided or participating IFR traffic and an FIS or all other traffic?
a. b. c. d. 2.
List the services that must be provided in an FIR:
a. b. c. d. 3.
In the taxi clearance. On engine start-up request. On first contact with ATC. Just prior to take-off.
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s n o i t s e u Q
The necessary separation minima or controlled traffic in the vicinity o an aerodrome may be reduced when:
a. b. c. d. 6.
DETRESFA. INCERFA. ALERFA. EMERGFA.
When must QNH be passed to an aircraf prior to take-off?
a. b. c. d. 5.
FIS only. FIS, advisory ATC, ATC. FIS, aerodrome control. FIS, alerting service.
An aircraf has been cleared to land and ails to do so within 5 minutes o the ETA o landing and communications have not been re-established with the aircraf. What phase o the Alerting Service will be declared?
a. b. c. d. 4.
A D C F
the commander o the aircraf requests reduced separation. the aerodrome controller has the involved aircraf in sight. the commander in the ollowing aircraf has the preceding aircraf in sight and is able to maintain own separation. directed by the aerodrome controller.
At commencement o final approach, i the approach controller has wind component inormation, what change in crosswind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a. b. c. d.
10 kt. 8 kt. 3 kt. 5 kt.
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Questions 7.
For IFR departures, 1 minute separation can be applied i the aircraf fly on diverging tracks immediately afer take-off o at least:
a. b. c. d. 8.
During an approach, when can normal separation be reduced?
a. b. c. d. 9.
11.
Q u e s t i o n s
b. c. d.
5 NM. 3 NM. 2 NM. 4 NM.
What defines a controlled aerodrome?
a. b. c. d.
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beore entering the traffic pattern or commencing an approach to landing, and prior to taxiing or take-off. in anticipation o the upper wind or areas North o 60°N and South o 60°S. when an aircraf is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a AIREP. when the local variation is greater than 10° East or West.
What is the closest to touchdown that a radar controller can request a change o speed to an aircraf on final approach?
a. b. c. d. 13.
5 kt. 2 kt. 4 kt. 3 kt.
According to international agreements the wind direction, in degrees magnetic converted with local magnetic variation rom the true wind direction must be passed to the pilot o an aircraf:
a.
12.
15°. 30°. 45°. 20°.
When the air traffic controller has wind inormation as components at the start o final approach, significant changes in the average surace wind direction and speed must be given to the pilot. The significant change o the average tailwind is:
a. b. c. d. 1 7
When the controller has both aircraf in sight. When the ollowing aircraf has the preceding in sight and can maintain it. When both pilots request it. When both aircraf are under radar control.
For parallel runway operations, the missed approach tracks must diverge by:
a. b. c. d. 10.
45°. 15°. 30°. 2°.
It must be located within a CTR. It must have a control tower giving an ATC service. It must have a control tower and be in a CTR. It must be in controlled airspace.
Questions 14.
What is the primary use or radar in ATC?
a. b. c. d. 15.
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s n o i t s e u Q
1 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 4 NM.
What is the closest point to the threshold that a radar controller may request a speed change?
a. b. c. d. 20.
± 40 kt. ± 5 kt. ± 10 kt. ± 20 kt.
What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the aircraf executes a missed approach i the aircraf either is lost rom the radar or a significant time, or the identity o the aircraf is in doubt?
a. b. c. d. 19.
5 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 10 NM.
The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is:
a. b. c. d. 18.
Always. At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC. At the pilot’s discretion regardless o ATC instructions. Mode A always; Mode C at pilot’s discretion.
What is the minimum distance rom threshold that a controller must have issued clearance to land by, or a non-precision approach?
a. b. c. d. 17.
Separation. Helping when aircraf communications have ailed. To assist pilots with technical problems. To assist pilots o aircraf that are lost.
When must the SSR transponder be operated?
a. b. c. d. 16.
17
1 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 4 NM.
An aircraf in receipt o a radar service is told to “resume own navigation”. What does this mean?
a. b. c. d.
The pilot is responsible or own navigation. Radar vectoring is terminated. The pilot should contact next ATC unit. The pilot should contact the current ATC unit.
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Questions 21.
What is standard radar separation?
a. b. c. d. 22.
By how much will a radar controller turn an aircraf to identiy that aircraf on the radar?
a. b. c. d. 23.
25.
26.
Only when directed by ATC. Always. Always in controlled airspace. Only in controlled airspace.
I radar contact is lost during an approach, at what range rom touchdown would ATC order a missed approach to be flown?
a. b. c. d.
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degrees true and must be corrected or wind. degrees magnetic and must be corrected or wind. degrees true no correction to be applied. degrees magnetic no correction to be applied.
When would you squawk SSR mode C?
a. b. c. d. 27.
Only in controlled airspace. When instructed by ATC. Only in uncontrolled airspace. Only when under radar control.
I you are given an instruction by ATC to steer heading 030, the heading is:
a. b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
± 100 f. ± 150 f. ± 300 f. ± 200 f.
When may the pilot operate the ‘IDENT’ switch on the transponder?
a. b. c. d. 1 7
45°. 15°. 30° or more. a minimum o 25°.
What is the acceptable tolerance or Mode ‘C’ altitude indication (not in RVSM airspace)?
a. b. c. d. 24.
5 NM. 3 NM. 10 NM. 2.5 NM.
1 NM. 2 NM. 3 NM. 4 NM.
Questions 28.
When is an aircraf considered to have lef the allocated flight level in the descent when reerencing altitude to Mode C?
a. b. c. d. 29.
7 1
s n o i t s e u Q
5 NM. 4.5 NM. 4 NM. 3 NM.
How close to the boundary o a radar vectoring area can an aircraf be vectored?
a. b. c. d. 34.
+/- 300 f. +/- 150 f. +/- 250 f. +/- 200 f.
I approved by the authority within 40 NM o the radar transmitter, radar separation can be reduced to:
a. b. c. d. 33.
aircraf on the movement area and flying in the vicinity. aircraf on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity. aircraf on the movement area only. aircraf on the manoeuvring area only.
The criterion that determines the specific level occupied by an aircraf based on Mode C inormation (except where the appropriate ATC authority specifies a lesser criterion) is:
a. b. c. d. 32.
A/2000 + C. A/7500 + C. A/7600 + C. A/7700 + C.
Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:
a. b. c. d. 31.
Once it has descended through 100 f. Once it has descended through 200 f. Once it has descended through 300 f. Once it has descended through 500 f.
I you are intercepted by a military aircraf, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a. b. c. d. 30.
17
2 NM. 2.5 NM. 5 NM. 3 NM.
A radar controller can request an aircraf to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final approach phase, except in cer tain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change must not be more than:
a. b. c. d.
± 15 kt. ± 8 kt. ± 10 kt. ± 20 kt.
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17
Questions 35.
What does the ATC term “radar contact” mean?
a. b. c. d. 36.
The “land afer” procedure may only be applied during:
a. b. c. d. 37.
Q u e s t i o n s
39.
b. c. d.
the pilot must indicate the ailure in the fight plan, afer which ATC will approve the operation o the aircraf without SSR. i required by ATC, departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected will be approved. the pilot will not be allowed to commence the flight. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner.
Using SSR, a method by which a radar controller may identiy an aircraf is to ask the pilot to:
a. b. c. d.
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4 NM rom the threshold on final approach. 5 NM rom the threshold on final approach. 2 NM rom the threshold on final approach. 3 NM rom the threshold on final approach.
When an aircraf’s SSR transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and repair is not possible:
a.
40.
5 NM rom the touchdown. 1.5 NM rom the touchdown. 4 NM rom the touchdown. 2 NM rom the touchdown.
A radar controller cannot ask a pilot to change speed i the aircraf is within:
a. b. c. d.
1 7
daylight hours. night or day. VMC. IMC.
An aircraf making a radar approach must be told to make a missed approach, when no landing clearance has been received rom the non-radar traffic controller, when the aircraf is at a distance o:
a. b. c. d. 38.
The aircraf is identified and will receive separation rom all aircraf while you are communicating with this radar acility. ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning traffic, until you are notified that contact is lost. Your aircraf is seen and identified on the radar display and until urther advised a service will be provided. You will receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or radar service is terminated.
set a specific SSR Code. switch rom “off” to “on”. switch to “off”. switch to “on”.
Questions
17
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s n o i t s e u Q
347
17
Answers
Answers
1 7
A n s w e r s
348
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
d
d
c
a
c
d
a
b
b
b
a
d
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
b
a
b
b
d
b
d
b
a
c
c
b
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
d
b
b
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d
b
a
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b
d
a
a
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40
d
a
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a
Chapter
18 Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 351 General . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 351 The Integrated Aeronautical Inormation Package. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 352 The Aeronautical Inormation Publication (AIP) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 352 Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355 SNOWTAM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 356 ASHTAM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 358 Aeronautical Inormation Circulars (AICs) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 359 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
362
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
366
349
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
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A e r o n a u t i c a l I n f o r m a t i o n S e r v i c e ( A I S )
350
Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
18
Introduction 18.1 Objectives o the AIS. The saety, regularity and efficiency o international air navigation rely on an organized and efficient flow o inormation. Pilots and Operators must have inormation concerning the availability o aerodromes, navigation acilities and ATS routes to enable a scheduled flight to take place. Air Traffic Controllers require the same inormation but also need inormation rom pilots to ensure saety. The provision o this inormation, its handling and dissemination (publication) is the responsibility o the Aeronautical Inormation Service o the State. Whilst it has always been necessary or such inormation to be available, the role and importance o aeronautical inormation/data has changed significantly with the implementation o area navigation (RNAV), required navigation perormance (RNP) and airborne computer-based navigation systems. Corrupt or erroneous aeronautical inormation/ data can potentially affect the saety o air navigation. The introduction o precision RNAV approach systems, using GLS (GPS based landing systems) is another example o the need or precise inormation being available at all times to ensure the success o the system. 18.2 Annex 15. The ICAO document concerning the Standards and Recommended Practices or the provision o the AIS and which contains the material relevant to the learning objectives is Annex 15 to the Convention on Civil Aviation.
General 18.3 Functions. Each Contracting State is required to provide an aeronautical inormation service; or agree with one or more other Contracting State(s) or the provision o a joint service; or delegate the authority or the service to a non-governmental agency, provided the Standards and Recommended Practices o Annex 15 are adequately met. 18.4 Responsibilities. The State concerned shall remain responsible or the inormation published. Aeronautical inormation published or and on behal o a State shall clearly indicate that it is published under the authority o that State. Each Contracting State shall take all necessary measures to ensure that aeronautical inormation/data it provides relating to its own territory, as well as areas in which the State is responsible or air traffic services outside its territory, is adequate, o required quality and timely. This shall include arrangements or the timely provision o required inormation to the aeronautical inormation service by each o the State services associated with aircraf operations.
8 1
) S I A ( e c i v r e S n o i t a m r o f n I l a c i t u a n o r e A
18.5 Availability. Generally, the AIS will be available on a 24 hour a day basis. Where 24hour service is not provided, service shall be available during the whole period an aircraf is in flight in the area o responsibility o an AIS plus a period o at least two hours beore and afer such period. The service shall also be available at such other time as may be requested by an appropriate ground organization. 18.6 Sources o Inormation. An AIS is also required to provide a pre-flight inormation service as well as in-flight inormation rom the aeronautical inormation services o other States and rom other sources that may be available. 18.7 Requirements o the Service. Aeronautical inormation distributed by the AIS is to be verified by and attributable to the State o Origin. I this is not possible when distributed, the inormation must be clearly identified as such. The AIS is to make available any inormation necessary or the saety, regularity or efficiency o air navigation to any other State that requires the inormation. The inormation provided is to be in a orm suitable or the operational requirements o flight operations personnel including flight crews, flight planning and flight
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) simulator; and the ATSU responsible or the FIS within an FIR and the services responsible or pre-flight inormation. 18.8 Publication. The AIS is to receive and/or originate, collate or assemble, edit, ormat, publish/store and distribute aeronautical inormation/data concerning the entire territory o the State as well as areas in which the State is responsible or ATS outside its territory. Aeronautical inormation is published in the orm o an Integrated Aeronautical Inormation Package (IAIP). 18.9 World Geodetic System - 1984 (WGS - 84). Since 1 January 1998, published geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude used in aviation have been expressed in terms o the World Geodetic System - 1984 (WGS - 84). Since 5 November 1998, in addition to the elevation (reerenced to mean sea level) or the specific surveyed ground positions, geoid undulation (gravity variations caused by the varying radius o the Earth reerenced to the WGS84 ellipsoid) or those positions specified in the AIP AD section is also required to be published. This has implications or the orbits o satellites used in SatNav systems.
The Integrated Aeronautical Information Package 18.10 Definition and Contents. The Integrated Aeronautical Inormation Package is a system o dissemination o inormation essential to aviation operations and saety. It consists o the ollowing elements:
• • • • •
Aeronautical Inormation Publication (AIP - including amendment service) Supplements to the AIP NOTAM and pre-flight inormation bulletins (PIBs) Aeronautical Inormation Circulars (AICs) Checklists and Summaries
The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
1 8
A e r o n a u t i c a l I n f o r m a t i o n S e r v i c e ( A I S )
18.11 Use. The AIP (previously called the ‘Air Pilot’ in the UK) is designed to allow inormation o a generally ‘static’ nature to be published, i practicable, in a orm that can be used in flight (e.g. instrument approach plates or SID plates). The AIP is required to be the definitive reerence or permanent inormation and or inormation concerning long duration temporary changes. This means that aircrew and operators can rely on the inormation published to be accurate and up to date. The AIP does not contain aerodrome operating minima which are defined by the operator e.g. visual criteria to continue an instrument approach. 18.12
Contents. The AIP consists o three parts:
• Part 1 - General (GEN) • Part 2 - En route (ENR) • Part 3 - Aerodrome Data (AD) 18.13 Part 1 - GEN. Part 1 contains inormation o a regulatory and administrative nature. It consists o five sections. It is important to know that differences to the ICAO SARPs and PANS notified by the State publishing the AIP are detailed ully at GEN 1.7 (this is the usual method o reerral to the AIP contents). The complete content o part 1 (by headings) is as ollows but the learning objectives only require the student to recall the location o the inormation in bold italics:
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
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• GEN 0 Preace; Record o AIP amendments; Record o AIP Supplements; Checklist o AIP pages; List o hand amendments to Part 1; Table o Contents to Part 1; • GEN 1 National regulations and requirements - Designated authorities; Entry, transit and departure o aircraf; Entry, transit and departure o passengers, crew and cargo; Aircraf instruments, equipment and flight documents; Summary o national regulations and international agreements/conventions; Differences rom ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices. • GEN 2 Tables and Codes - Measuring system, aircraf markings, holidays; Abbreviations used in AIS publications; Chart symbols; ICAO 4 letter Location indicators; List o Radio Navigation Aids; Conversion tables; Sunrise/Sunset tables; Rate o Clim b Table. • GEN 3 Services - Aeronautical Inormation Services; Aeronautical Charts; Air Traffic Services; Communications Services; Meteorological Services; Search and Rescue. • GEN 4
Charges or aerodrome/heliport and air navigation services.
18.14 Part 2 - En Route (ENR). This part contains inormation or planning flights. It also contains inormation o a procedural administrative nature to allow notification o flights (submission o a Flight Plan) and compliance with ATC requirements. It consists o seven sections.
• ENR 0
Preace: List o hand amendments to Part 2; Table o Contents o Part 2.
• ENR 1 General rules and procedures - General rules; Visual flight rules; Instrument flight rules; ATS airspace classification; Holding, Approach and Departure procedures; Radar services and procedures; Altimeter setting procedures; Regional Supplementary procedures; Air Traffic flow management; Flight Planning; Addressing o flight plan messages; Interception o civil aircraf ; Unlawul intererence; Air traffic incidents; Offshore operations.
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Air traffic services airspace - Detailed description o Flight Inormation Regions • ENR 2 (FIR); Upper Flight Inormation Regions (UIR); Terminal Control Areas (TMA); other regulated airspace.
) S I A ( e c i v r e S n o i t a m r o f n I l a c i t u a n o r e A
ATS routes - Detailed description o Lower ATS routes; Upper ATS routes; Area • ENR 3 navigation routes; Helicopter routes; Other routes; En route holding; Minimum flight Altitude.
• ENR 4 Radio Navigation aids/systems - Radio navigation aids - en route; Special navigation systems; Name-code designators or significant points; Aeronautical ground lights - en route. Navigation warnings - Prohibited, restricted and danger areas; Military • ENR 5 exercise and training areas; Other activities o a dangerous nature; Air navigation obstacles - en route; Aerial sporting and recreational activities; Bird migration and areas o sensitive auna.
• ENR 6
En route charts - En route Chart ICAO and index charts.
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) 18.15 Part 3 - Aerodromes. This part consists o our sections containing inormation concerning aerodromes (and heliports). Each aerodrome entry contains specified inormation in accordance with a set schedule. For instance, AD2.3 or EGLL (Heathrow) contains details o operational hours o the aerodrome; AD2.3 or EGTK (Oxord) contains the same inormation applicable to that aerodrome. The contents are:
• AD 0 Preace; List o hand amendments to Part 3; Table o Contents to Part 3. • AD 1 Aerodrome/Heliports - Introduction - Aeronautical/helicopter availability; Rescue and fire fighting services and snow plan; Index to aerodromes and heliports; Grouping o aerodromes/heliports. • AD 2 Aerodromes - Detailed inormation about aerodromes (including helicopter landing areas i located at the aerodromes) listed under 24 sub-sections, including inormation concerning: Aprons, taxiways and check locations; surace movement guidance and control systems and markings; radio navigation and landing aids; charts relating to an aerodrome; reuelling acilities. • AD 3 Heliports - Detailed inormation about heliports (not located at aerodromes), listed under 23 sub-sections. 18.16 AIP Amendments. All changes to the AIP, or new inormation on a reprinted page, is identified by a distinctive symbol or annotation. In the UK this is a vertical black line in the page margin adjacent to the amended/new data. The AIP is amended or reissued at regular intervals as are necessary to keep the data up to date. The normal method o amendment is by replacement pages. Permanent changes to the AIP are pub lished as AIP amendments. Each AIP amendment is allocated a consecutive serial number and each amended page, including the cover sheet, shows the publication date. 18.17 AIRAC. Operationally significant changes to the AIP are published in accordance with Aeronautical Inormation Regulation and Control procedures, and shall be clearly identified by the acronym - AIRAC. Each AIRAC AIP amendment page, including the cover sheet, must display an effective date. AIRAC is based on a series o common effective dates at intervals o 28 days (started 10 Jan 91). AIRAC inormation is distributed by the AIS unit at least 42 days in advance o the effective date and the inormation notified must not be changed or at least another 28 days afer the effective date, unless the circumstance notified is o a temporary nature and would not persist or the ull period. Whenever major changes are planned and where additional notice is desirable, a publication date 56 days in advance o the effective date should be used.
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A e r o n a u t i c a l I n f o r m a t i o n S e r v i c e ( A I S )
18.18 AIP Supplements. Temporary changes o long duration (three months or longer) and inormation o short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics are published as AIP supplements. Each AIP supplement is allocated a serial number which shall be consecutive and based on the calendar year. AIP supplement pages are kept in the AIP as long as all or some o their contents remain valid. When an AIP supplement is sent in replacement o a NOTAM, it is to include a reerence to the serial number o the NOTAM. A checklist o AIP supplements currently in orce is issued at intervals o not more than one month (i.e. monthly or more requent). AIP supplement pages should be coloured in order to be conspicuous, preerably in yellow.
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Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) 18.19 Definition: NOTAM are notices distributed by means o telecommunications containing inormation concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical acility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge o which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations. 18.20 Origination. NOTAM are to be originated and issued promptly whenever the inormation to be distributed is o a temporary nature and o short duration, or when operationally significant permanent changes, or temporary changes o long duration, are made at short notice (except when extensive text and/or graphics is essentially included, in which case, the inormation is published as an AIP supplement). NOTAM are required whenever inormation is o direct operational significance. 18.21 AIRAC Notification. When an AIP amendment or an AIP Supplement is published in accordance with AIRAC procedures, NOTAM are to be originated giving a brie description o the contents, the effective date and the reerence number to the amendment or supplement. This NOTAM shall come into orce on the same effective date as the amendment or supplement. 18.22 Notice and Validity. NOTAM should remain in orce as a reminder in the pre-flight inormation bulletin until the next checklist/summary is issued. Whenever possible, at least 24 hours’ advance notice is desirable, to permit timely completion o the notification process and to acilitate airspace utilization planning. NOTAM notiying the unserviceability o aids to air navigation, acilities or communication services should give an estimate o the period o unserviceability or the time at which restoration o service is expected. 18.23 Excluded Matter. NOTAM should not include inormation o non-operational importance including partial ailures o lighting or ground systems, routine maintenance, any work in progress on runways not in use or i the equipment can be rapidly removed rom the duty runway, temporary obstructions, local area parachuting, and the lack o apron marshalling services and road traffic control.
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18.24 Distribution. NOTAM are to be distributed to addressees to whom the inormation is o direct operational significance, and who would not otherwise have at least seven days prior notification. The aeronautical fixed telecommunication network (AFTN - teleprinter) is, whenever practicable, employed or NOTAM distribution. When NOTAM are sent by means other than the AFTN a six digit date-time group indicating the date and time o filing the NOTAM and the identification o the originator is used, preceding the text. 18.25 NOTAM Checklists. A checklist o current NOTAM is issued at intervals o not more than one month. The checklist is to reer to the latest AIP amendment, AIP supplement and the internationally distributed AICs. 18.26 Errors. When errors occur in a NOTAM, a NOTAM with a new number to replace the erroneous NOTAM will be issued or the erroneous NOTAM cancelled and a new NOTAM issued. 18.27 Summary. A monthly printed plain language summary o NOTAM in orce, including the indications o the latest AIP amendments, checklist o AIP supplements and AIC issued, is to be sent by the most expeditious means to recipients o the IAIP.
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) SNOWTAM 18.28 Description. Inormation concerning snow, ice and standing water on aerodrome pavement areas is to be reported by SNOWTAM. Its validity is a maximum o 24 hours. 18.29 Contents o a SNOWTAM. Appendix 2 to Annex 15 details the requirements o a SNOWTAM. The inormation contained is as ollows (I a field is not applicable then it is lef blank and nothing is transmitted):
A. B. C. D. E. F. • • • • • • • • • • G. H.
The ICAO aerodrome locator code e.g. EGLL (Heathrow) The date/time o observation (UTC) Runway designators (e.g. 27R) Cleared runway length i less than published length (m) Cleared runway width i less than the published width (m; i off set: L or R) Deposits over total runway length: Nil - Clear and dry Damp Wet or water patches Rime or rost covered Dry snow Wet snow Slush Ice Compacted or rolled snow Frozen ruts or ridges Mean depth (mm) or each third o total runway length Friction measurement on each third o runway and riction measuring device
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A e r o n a u t i c a l I n f o r m a t i o n S e r v i c e ( A I S )
Friction Coefficient
Estimated sur ace riction
Code
0.4 and above
Good
5
0.39 – 0.36
Medium to good
4
0.35 – 0.3
Medium
3
0.29 – 0.26
Medium to poor
2
0.25 and below
Poor
1
Reading unreliable
Unreliable
9
Figure 18.1 Surace riction reporting codes
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) J. K. L. M. N. P. Q. S T.
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Critical snow banks (m) Runway lights (i obscured “yes” ollowed by L , R or LR) Further clearance (i planned inset length/width to be cleared or i to ull dimensions insert FULL) Further clearance expected to be completed by (UTC) Taxiway Taxiway snow banks (i > 60 cm insert “Yes” ollowed by distance apart (m)) Apron Next planned observation /measurement is or (month/day/hour (UTC)) Plain language remarks
18.30 SNOWCLO. A term used in a VOLMET broadcast to indicate that an aerodrome is closed due to snow or snow clearance in progress.
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Photo: Mercedes Benz Figure 18.2 Snow clearance
18.31 Wheel Braking On Wet Runways. The inherent riction characteristics o a runway surace deteriorate only slowly over a period o time, but the riction o a runway surace and thus the braking action can vary significantly over a short period in wet conditions depending on the actual depth o water on the runway. Also, long term (six monthly) seasonal variations in riction value may exist. The consequence o combination o these actors is that no meaningul operational benefit can be derived rom continually measuring the riction value o a runway in wet conditions. In the context o these paragraphs a ‘wet runway’ covers a range o conditions rom ‘Damp’ to ‘Flooded’ as described below. It does not include ice or runways contaminated with snow, slush, or water associated with slush. Paved runways o 1200 m and longer at civil aerodromes licensed or public use have been calibrated, to ensure that the riction characteristics o a runway surace are o a quality to provide good braking action in wet conditions. The presence o water on a runway will be reported on R/T using the ollowing descriptions:
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS)
Description
Meaning
Dry
The surace is dry
Damp
The surace shows a change o colour due to moisture
Wet
The surace is soaked but no significant patches o standing water are visible.
Water Patches
Significant patches o standing water are visible
Flooded
Extensive standing water is visible. Figure 18.3 Runway surace description
18.32 Interpretation. When a runway is reported as ‘DAMP’ or ‘WET’ pilots may assume that an acceptable level o runway wheel braking riction is available. When a runway is reported as having ‘WATER PATCHES’ or being ‘FLOODED’ braking may be affected by aquaplaning and appropriate operational adjustments should be considered. “Water patches” will be used i at least 25% o the runway length is covered with standing water. When a runway is notified as liable to be slippery when wet, take-offs or landings in wet conditions should only be considered when the distances available equal or exceed those required or a very slippery or icy runway as determined rom inormation in the aeroplane’s Flight Manual. At military aerodromes in the UK, runway surace conditions will be described in plain language, and, where a braking action measuring device has been used, braking action will be described as good, medium or poor. 1 8
ASHTAM
A e r o n a u t i c a l I n f o r m a t i o n S e r v i c e ( A I S )
18.33 Purpose. Volcanic ash cloud presents a significant hazard to turbine engine aeroplanes. Timely warning o the presence o ash clouds or the possibility o an ash cloud existing is vital to sae operations in areas where volcanic activity is common. Inormation concerning an operationally significant change in volcanic activity, a volcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud is reported by means o an ASHTAM. 18.34 Description. The ASHTAM provides inormation on the status o activity o a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be o operational significance. This inormation is provided using the volcano level o alert colour code. In the event o a volcanic eruption producing ash cloud o operational significance, the ASHTAM also provides inormation on the location, extent and movement o the ash cloud and the air routes and flight levels affected. The maximum period o validity o an ASHTAM is 24 hours. A new ASHTAM must be issued whenever there is a change in the alert level.
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18.35 ASHTAM Colour Code. The table below details the volcano alert code used in field E o an ASHTAM: Colour
Description o Volcanic Activity
Red
Volcanic eruption in progress. Pyroclastic ash plume/cloud reported above FL250, or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with pyroclastic ash plume/ cloud expected to rise above FL250
Orange
Volcanic eruption in progress. Pyroclastic ash plume/cloud not reaching nor expected to reach FL250, or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with pyroclastic ash plume/cloud not expected to reach FL250
Yellow
Volcano known to be active rom time to time and volcanic activity has recently increased significantly, volcano not currently considered dangerous but caution should be exercised, or afer a volcanic eruption (i.e. change in alert to yellow rom red or orange) volcanic activity has decreased significantly, volcano not currently considered dangerous but caution should be exercised.
Green
Volcanic activity considered to have ceased and volcano reverted to its normal state. Figure 18.4 ASHTAM colour code
Aeronautical Information Circulars (AICs)
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18.36 Description. AICs are a method whereby inormation that does not qualiy or inclusion in the AIP or is not suitable or NOTAM is disseminated to all interested parties. An AIC is originated whenever it is desirable to promulgate: a long-term orecast o any major change in legislation, regulations, procedures or acilities; inormation o a purely explanatory or advisory nature liable to affect flight saety; or inormation or notification o an explanatory or advisory nature concerning technical, legislative or purely administrative matters.
) S I A ( e c i v r e S n o i t a m r o f n I l a c i t u a n o r e A
18.37 General Specifications o AICs. AICs are issued in printed orm, and both text and diagrams may be included. The originating State can select the AICs that are to be given international distribution. AICs are allocated a serial number which should be consecutive and based on the calendar year. When AICs are distributed in more than one series, each series is separately identified by a letter. It is normal or differentiation and identification o AIC topics according to subjects to use a colour coding system (i.e. the paper on which the inormation is published is distinguished by topic by different colour). A checklist o AIC currently in orce is issued at least once a year, with distribution as or the AIC. AICs in the UK are published on Thursdays every 28 days.
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Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) 18.38 Colour Coding o UK AICs. Annex 15 recommends that AICs are colour-coded according to topics. In the UK the ollowing colour coding scheme or AICs is adopted.
Colour Pink
Meaning
Matters relating to saety
Yellow
Operational matters including ATS acilities and requirements
White
Administrative matters e.g. exam dates and ees
Mauve (Purple) Green
UK airspace reservations imposed in accordance with applicable regulations Maps and Charts Figure 18.5 Colour coding o AICs
Pre-flight and Post-flight Information 18.39 Pre-flight Inormation. At any aerodrome normally used or international air operations, aeronautical inormation essential or the saety, regularity and efficiency o air navigation and relative to the route stages originating at the aerodrome must be made available to flight operations personnel, including flight crews and ser vices responsible or pre-flight inormation. Aeronautical inormation provided or pre-flight planning purposes at the aerodromes must include: relevant elements o the Integrated Aeronautical Inormation Package; and maps and charts. The documentation may be limited to national publications and when practicable, those o immediately adjacent states, provided a complete library o aeronautical inormation is available at a central location and means o direct communications are available between the aerodrome AIS unit and that library.
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A e r o n a u t i c a l I n f o r m a t i o n S e r v i c e ( A I S )
18.40 Aerodrome Inormation. Additional current inormation relating to the aerodrome o departure shall be provided concerning the ollowing:
• Construction or maintenance work on or immediately adjacent to the manoeuvring area; • Rough portions o any part o the manoeuvring area, whether marked or not (For example: broken parts o the surace o runways and taxiways); • Presence and depth o snow, ice or water on runways and taxiways, including their effect on surace riction; • Snow drifed or piled on or adjacent to runways or taxiways; • Parked aircraf or other objects on or immediately adjacent to taxiways; • Presence o other temporary hazards including those created by birds;
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• Failure or irregular operation o part or all o the aerodrome lighting system including approach, threshold, runway, taxiway, obstruction and manoeuvring area unserviceability lights and aerodrome power supply; • Failure, irregular operation and changes in operation status o ILS (including markers) SRE, PAR, DME, SSR, VOR, NDB, VHF aeronautical mobile channels, RVR observing system, and secondary power supply; • Presence and operations o humanitarian relie missions, such as those undertaken under the auspices o the United Nations, together with any associated procedures, and/or limitations applied thereo. 18.41 PIBs. A recapitulation o current NOTAM and other inormation o urgent character shall be made available to flight crews in the orm o plain language pre-flight inormation bulletins (PIB). 18.42 Post-flight Inormation. States shall ensure that arrangements are made to receive at aerodromes/heliports inormation concerning the state and operation o air navigation acilities noted by aircrews, and shall ensure that such inormation is made available to the aeronautical inormation service or such distribution as the circumstances necessitate.
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Questions Questions 1.
What level o alert would be inserted in field E o an ASHTAM ollowing a volcanic eruption in which a pyroclastic ash cloud extends above FL250?
a. b. c. d. 2.
In which section o the AIP would you find inormation on holding, approach and departing procedures?
a. b. c. d. 3.
b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
5.
every 5 days. every 28 days. every 18 days. at intervals o not more than one month.
AIP approach charts do not give inormation or Instrument Approach Procedures or:
a. b. c. d.
362
GEN. COMMS. AD. AGA.
A check list or NOTAM is issued:
a. b. c. d. 7.
GEN. ENR. AD. COMMS.
Where in the AIP is a list o Location Indicators to be ound?
a. b. c. d. 6.
AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAM, Pre-flight Inormation Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries. AIP and amendment service, NOTAM, Pre-flight Inormation Bulletins (PIBs), and AICs, AIRAC, checklists and summaries. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAM, AIRAC, AICs, checklists and summaries. AIP & Supplements, AIRAC, NOTAM and pre-flight bulletins.
In what section o the AIP are details o SIGMET ound?
a. b. c. d.
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GEN. ENR. SAT. AD.
An integrated aeronautical inormation package consists o:
a.
4.
Red alert. Orange alert. Yellow alert. Green alert.
OCA/H. visibility minima. obstacles protruding above the obstacle ree zone. DME requencies.
Questions 8.
AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this respect?
a. b. c. d. 9.
ENR. SUPP. AD. GEN.
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s n o i t s e u Q
In what part o the AIP are the details o SIGMET ound?
a. b. c. d. 14.
ENR. SUPP. AD. GEN.
Where in the AIP would you find inormation concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas?
a. b. c. d. 13.
DME requency. OCA. Dominant obstacles. Operating minima i the aerodrome is being used as an alternative.
Where in the AIP is inormation concerning re-uelling acilities and services ound?
a. b. c. d. 12.
a breakdown service. operationally significant changes to the AIP. a medical evacuation flight. an Army Air Corps publication.
What inormation is not on an aerodrome approach plate?
a. b. c. d. 11.
1 yr. 2 months. 3 months. 6 months.
AIRAC is:
a. b. c. d. 10.
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GEN. ENR. AD. AIRAC.
What is the coefficient o braking, i the braking action is reported as medium?
a. b. c. d.
Between 1.0 and 0.25. Between 0.25 and 0.3. Between 0.30 and 0.35. Between 0.35 and 0.4.
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Questions 15.
Regarding the AIS what is the time limit or a checklist o current NOTAM to be issued?
a. b. c. d. 16.
A checklist o the active NOTAM must be published on the AFTN at intervals o:
a. b. c. d. 17.
Q u e s t i o n s
364
AICs. AIP Supplements. AIRAC procedures. trigger NOTAMS.
A notice containing inormation concerning flight saety, air navigation, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS o a state is called:
a. b. c. d.
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not more than 28 days. not more than 15 days. not more than 1 month. not more than 10 days.
Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
a. b. c. d. 18.
7 days. 14 days. 28 days. One month.
Aeronautical Inormation Publication (AIP). Aeronautical Inormation Circular (AIC). AIRAC. NOTAM.
Questions
18
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s n o i t s e u Q
365
18
Answers
Answers
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A n s w e r s
366
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
a
b
a
a
a
d
b
c
b
d
c
a
13
14
15
16
17
18
a
c
d
c
c
b
Chapter
19 Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 369 Aerodrome Reerence Code . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370 Glossary o Terms . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 372 Aerodrome Data . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 374 Runways . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 376 Taxiways . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 380 Aprons . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 385 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
386
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
390
367
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics
d n a a . e r s a g n g i n d i l i r v u u b e g o n n i a d u m l c e i n h , t a , n e r o a r p t y a i e r u h c t e s s e e d h u t l c e n d i i a s n e r i = A t t n r e . a p a l m e a e c v r i a t o l u a M i c a n e n o h h r t c e : e a e t t e e o h h N t T
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A e r o d r o m e s P h y s i c a l C h a r a c t e r i s t i c s
368
1 . 9 1 e r u g i F
Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics
19
Introduction 19.1 Aerodromes. The place on the surace o the Earth where aeroplanes (aircraf) take off and land is known as an aerodrome. Aerodromes may be nothing more than a field used or light private flying, a defined strip o open water (a water aerodrome) or the complex and ascinating areas o real estate we associate with places like Heathrow, Gatwick. Chicago O’Hare, JFK etc... The one thing they all have in common is that they are all provided especially or the use o aeroplanes. In this chapter o the notes discussion will be limited to the physical construction o land aerodromes with emphasis on the aerodromes used or international commercial aviation. There is widely differing terminology used with reerence to aerodromes, mostly colloquial and usually incorrect in interpretation. For instance, an airfield is exactly that: a field (usually unprepared) which is occasionally used as a landing ground or aeroplanes. An airport is a portal (entry) into a state or people and cargo which arrives by air, just as a sea port is the same or arrival by ship. The accepted and legally correct term is an aerodrome. 19.2 Annex 14. The annex to the Conerence on International Civil Aviation that is concerned with aerodromes is Annex 14. In common with other annexes, it contains standards and recommended practices (SARPs) and states can notiy d ifferences to Annex 14 under article 38 o the convention. In accordance with article 15 o the convention, Annex 14 is only concerned with aerodromes that are open to the public. Each contracting state is required to ensure that such aerodromes comply with the requirements o the annex. In the United Kingdom, the authority responsible or ensuring compliance is the CAA. In the UK there are 4 types o aerodrome:
• Public use licensed aerodrome (open or general use on an equal basis) • Ordinary (private) licensed aerodrome (use by licence holder and others with licence holder’s permission only) • Unlicensed aerodrome (limited use only) • Government owned (Military, DERA etc.) 19.3 Use by Commercial Air Transport. The learning objectives o the course are directed towards the use o aerodromes by commercial air transport (CAT). The differentiation between public and private (ordinary) is immaterial. I an aerodrome is to be used or CAT, the services, acilities, markings, lighting and aircraf handling capability must comply with the requirements o the state or the issue o a licence. The use o an unlicensed aerodrome is not precluded or CAT, but the absence o a licence means that any instrument procedures associated with instrument approaches have not been certified as sae or use or CAT. It is thereore implicit that the use o an unlicensed aerodrome or CAT is restricted to visual operations only.
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s c i t s i r e t c a r a h C l a c i s y h P s e m o r d o r e A
19.4 International Airports. Each state has the right to impose immigration, health and customs and excise controls on persons and cargo entering that state. An aerodrome at which such procedures and acilities or those controls are established and operated is known as an International Aerodrome. The place name o the aerodrome is usually suffixed with the word ‘international’ to denote the act. For instance ‘Los Angeles International’. In the UK such aerodromes are defined as ‘customs aerodromes’ although the term ‘international’ is becoming common place e.g. Birmingham International. As the student will recall, the Montreal Convention is only concerned with acts o unlawul intererence committed at an ‘international’ aerodrome.
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics 19.5 Basic Layout. All aerodromes complying with the SARPs o Annex 14 have a movement area, a manoeuvring area and an apron. The ‘real estate’ o an aerodrome is generally covered by the requirements o the licence but certain saety eatures associated with large aerodromes may all outside the control o the licensing authority and be devolved to the local civil planning authority. For instance the erection o a 30 storey block o flats hal a mile rom the end o runway 27R at Heathrow would not be permitted by the local planning authority. At a controlled aerodrome there must be an ATC control tower which has a visual control room (VCR). I the aerodrome accepts non-radio traffic, there must be a signals area laid out on the ground so that it is visible rom the air within a defined distance and height rom the aerodrome. The omission o a signal square implies that the aerodrome cannot accept nonradio traffic. The signals used have already been covered in the Rules o the Air. The physical construction o an aerodrome will depend upon the requirements o the aeroplanes using it and the required availability (utilization) o the aerodrome and its serv ices. 19.6 Movement Area. This is defined as: that part o an aerodrome intended or the surace movement o aircraf including the manoeuvring area, aprons and any part o the aerodrome provided or the maintenance o aircraf. Effectively, this is all the ‘real estate’ o the aerodrome. It may include grass areas where these are specified or aircraf use, but clearly does not include buildings and other constructed acilities. 19.7 Manoeuvring Area. This is defined as: that part o an aerodrome provided or the take-off and landing o aircraf and or the movement o aircraf on the surace, excluding the apron and any part o the aerodrome used or the maintenance o aircraf. The manoeuvring area will include runways (grass and paved), the taxiways (grass and paved) and any defined stop way or pre take-off areas beore the threshold o a runway. 19.8 Apron. The apron is a legally defined portion o the aerodrome where passengers, mail and cargo are loaded on to an aeroplane. It is commonly called the ‘ramp’ in the US. It is also the place where the pilot is required to check the accuracy o the altimeter(s). At busy commercial aerodromes, ATC delegates the sae movement o aircraf on the apron to the Apron Management Service. This is usually provided by an organization contracted to the aerodrome authority specializing in the provision o baggage handling, reuelling, and marshalling and associated transportation requirements.
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19.9 Aeronautical Part. This again is a legal definition o that portion o the aerodrome, this time including buildings and acilities, which are not accessible without security control. A commonly used term is ‘air-side’. 19.10 Failure or Irregularity o Systems and Equipment. ATCUs shall immediately report - in accordance with local instructions - any ailure o irregularity o communication, navigation and surveillance systems which could adversely affect the saety or efficiency o flight operations and/or the provision o air traffic control service.
Aerodrome Reference Code 19.11 Use. The reerence code, which is used or aerodrome planning and construction purposes, is a simple method o inter-relating the specifications concerning the characteristics o aerodromes, so as to provide aerodrome acilities that are suitable or the aeroplanes that are intended to operate at the aerodrome. It is not intended to be used or determining the runway length or pavement strength requirements or aeroplanes or to speciy a minimum or maximum length or a runway. In the discussion o aerodrome characteristics, reerence will be made to the code elements where the learning objectives require it. Historically, questions have been asked in the exam concerning the code elements.
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19.12 Elements. The code is composed o two elements which are related to aeroplane perormance characteristics and dimensions. Element 1 is a number based on the aeroplane reerence field length and element 2 is a letter based on the aeroplane wing span and the outer main gear wheel span (the distance between the outside wheels o the undercarriage). A particular specification is related to the more appropriate o the two elements o the code or to an appropriate combination o the two code elements. The code letter or number selected or design purposes is related to the critical aeroplane characteristics or which the acility is provided. In aerodrome design and operations, the aeroplanes which the aerodrome is intended to serve are first identified and then the two elements o the code. The ollowing table defines the aerodrome code. Aerodrome Reerence Code Code Element 1
Code Element 2
Code Number
Aeroplane Reerence Field Length
Code Letter
Wing Span
Outer Main Gear Wheel Span
1
Less than 800 m
A
Up to but not including 15 m
Up to but not including 4.5 m
2
800 m or more, but less than 1200 m
B
15 m or more, but less than 24 m
4.5 m up to but not including 6 m
3
1200 m or more, but less than 1800 m
C
24 m or more, but less than 36 m
6 m up to but not including 9 m
4
1800 m or more
D
36 m or more, but less than 52 m
9 m up to but not including 14 m
E
52 m or more, but less than 65 m
9 m up to but not including 14 m
F
65 m up to but not including 80 m
14 m up to but not including 16 m
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Figure 19.2 Aerodrome reerence code
19.13 Aeroplane Reerence Field Length. This is defined as the minimum field length (takeoff distance) required or take-off at max certificated take-off mass, at sea level, with standard atmospheric conditions, still air and runway slope, as shown in the appropriate AFM prescribed by the certiying authority or equivalent data rom the aeroplane manuacturer.
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics Glossary of Terms 19.14 Knowledge Requirement. The learning objectives require the student to be able to recall the definitions contained in the ollowing table. Most o them will already be amiliar and the remainder will be used in the ensuing discussions concerning aerodromes. Term
Definition
Aerodrome
Any area o land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used or affording acilities or the landing and departure o aircraf and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roo o a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart or affording acilities or the landing and departure o aircraf capable o descending or climbing vertically, but shall not include any area the use o which or affording acilities or the landing and departure o aircraf has been abandoned and has not been resumed.
Aerodrome elevation
The elevation o the highest point o the landing area.
Aerodrome Reerence Point (ARP) Aircraf stand taxi lane Apron taxiway
Clearway
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Crosswind component
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The geographical location o the aerodrome and the centre o its traffic zone where an ATZ is established. A portion o an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to provide access to aircraf stands only. A portion o a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron. An area at the end o the take-off run available and under the control o the aerodrome licensee, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aircraf may make a portion o its initial climb to a specified height. The velocity component o the wind measured at or corrected to a height o 33 eet above ground level at right angles to the direction o take-off or landing.
Instrument approach runway
A runway intended or the operation o aircraf using non-visual aids providing at least directional guidance in azimuth adequate or a straight-in approach.
Instrument approach strip
An area o specified dimensions which encloses an instrument runway.
Landing area
That part o the manoeuvring area primarily intended or the landing or take-off o aircraf.
Main runway
The runway most used or take-off and landing.
Non-instrument (visual) runway
A runway intended or the operation o aircraf using visual approach procedures.
Obstacle
All fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile objects, or parts thereo, that are located on an area intended or the surace movement o aircraf or that extend above a defined surace intended to protect aircraf in flight.
Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics
Obstacle ree zone
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A volume o airspace extending upwards and outwards rom an inner portion o the strip to specified upper limits which is kept clear o all obstructions except or minor specified items.
A runway intended or the operation o aircraf using visual and nonPrecision approach visual aids providing guidance in both pitch and azimuth adequate runway or a straight-in approach. These runways are divided into three categories. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed Rapid exit taxiway to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than (High speed turn-off) are achieved on other exit taxiways thereby minimizing runway occupancy times. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared or the Runway landing and take-off run o aircraf along its length. An area defined about the extended runway centre line and Runway End Saety adjacent to the end o the strip primarily intended to reduce the Area (RESA) risk o damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway. An area adjacent to the edge o a paved surace so prepared as Shoulder to provide a transition between the pavement and the adjacent surace or aircraf running off the pavement. Stopway
A defined rectangular area at the end o the take-off run available, prepared and designated as a suitable area in which an aircraf can be stopped in the case o a discontinued take-off.
Strip
An area o specified dimensions enclosing a runway and taxiway to provide or the saety o aircraf operations.
Take-off Runway
A runway equipped to allow take-offs in specified weather minima.
Taxiway Taxiway holding position
A defined path on a land aerodrome established or the taxiing o aircraf and intended to provide a link between one part o the aerodrome and another. A designated position at which taxiing aircraf and vehicles may be required to hold in order to provide adequate clearance rom a runway.
Taxiway intersection
A junction o two or more taxiways.
Threshold
The beginning o that portion o the runway usable or landing.
Usability
The percentage o occasions on which the crosswind component is below a specified value. The usability may be determined or any combination o take-off and landing directions available at an aerodrome.
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics Aerodrome Data 19.15 Aerodrome Reerence Point (ARP). An aerodrome reerence point must be established or an aerodrome. It is defined as the designated geographical (Lat and Long) location o the aerodrome and is to be reported to the aeronautical inormation services authority in degrees, minutes and seconds. The ARP should be located near the initial or planned geometric centre o the aerodrome and will normally remain where first established. In reality, it is usually the centre o the longest runway. 19.16 Pre-flight Altimeter Check Location. One or more pre-flight altimeter check locations are required or an aerodrome. These should be located on an apron to enable an altimeter check to be made prior to obtaining taxi clearance and thus eliminate the need or stopping or that purpose afer leaving the apron. Normally an entire apron can serve as a satisactory altimeter check location. The elevation o a pre-flight altimeter check location is given as the average elevation, rounded to the nearest metre or oot, o the area in which it is located. The elevation o any portion o a pre-flight altimeter check location must be within 3 m (10 f) o the average elevation or that location. 19.17 Aerodrome and Runway Elevations. The aerodrome elevation and geoid undulation at the aerodrome elevation position (the highest point o the landing area) is measured to the nearest hal metre or oot. For precision runways, it is to be measured to the nearest 0.25 m or oot. Note: The geoid is the gravitational level o mean sea level extending continuously through the continents. It is irregular due to local gravitational disturbances, hence geoid undulations. 19.18 Pavement Strengths. Where paved areas (runways, taxiways, aprons) are used by aircraf with maximum take-off mass greater than 5700 kg, the strength o the pavement is reported by the aircraf classification number - pavement classification number (ACN-PCN) system. An aircraf can saely use a paved area i the PCN is equal to or greater than the ACN. 19.19 PCN. The Pavement Classification Number (PCN) is used to indicate the strength o a runway, taxiway or apron. It is o primary impor tance or the apron as this is where the aircraf mass will be greatest. PCN is only used or paved areas.
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19.20 ACN. The Aircraf Classification Number (ACN) is a single unique number expressing the relative effect o an aircraf on a paved area relating to pavement type and thickness. It is a number on a continuous scale increasing rom 0 with no upper lim it. Each aircraf has an ACN. 19.21 Aircraf o 5700 kg or less. The strength o the pavement or use by aircraf with maximum mass equal to and less than 5700 kg is calculated rom the maximum allowable mass or the maximum tyre pressure. 19.22 Declared Distances. The ollowing distances must be calculated to the nearest metre or oot or a runway intended or the use by international commercial air transport:
• • • •
Take-off run available (TORA); Take-off distance available (TODA); Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA); Landing distance available (LDA).
19.23 TORA. Definition: The distance between the point at which an aeroplane can commence the take-off run to the nearest point in the direction o take-off at which the sur ace is incapable o bearing the mass o the aeroplane under normal operating conditions.
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19.24 TODA. Definition: The distance rom the start o TORA to the nearest obstacle in the direction o take-off projecting above the surace o the aerodrome and capable o affecting the saety o an aeroplane in flight (up to a maximum distance o 1.5 × TORA). Usually, TODA is TORA plus clearway i a clearway exists. 19.25 ASDA. Definition: The distance rom the start o the take-off run to the nearest point in the direction o take-off at which the aircraf cannot roll over the surace and be brought to rest in an emergency without risk o accident. ASDA used to be called EDA (Emergency Distance Available). Usually ASDA consists o TORA plus the stopway i available. 19.26 LDA. Definition: The distance rom the point where an aeroplane can commence its landing to the point where the surace is incapable o bearing the mass o the aircraf under normal operating conditions. Usually this is the ull length o the runway, but may include a paved stopway (i available) where the threshold is displaced.
2 6
8 0
TORA/TODA/ASDA/LDA
2 6
8 0
CLEARWAY
8 0
STOPWAY
TORA/ASDA/LDA TODA
2 6
TORA/TODA/LDA
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ASDA
2 6
8 0
LDA TORA/TODA/ASDA
Figure 19.3 Declared distances
19.27 Condition o the Movement Area and Related Facilities. Inormation on the condition o the movement area and the operational status o related acilities must be provided to the appropriate aeronautical inormation service units, and similar inormation o operational significance to the air traffic service units, to enable those units to provide the necessary inormation to arriving and departing aircraf. The inormation must be kept up to date and changes in conditions reported without delay. The condition o the movement area and the operational status o related acilities are to be m onitored and reports on matters o operational significance or affecting aircraf perormance given, particularly in respect o the ollowing:
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics • • • • • • • • •
Construction or maintenance work; Rough or broken suraces on a runway, a taxiway or an apron; Snow, slush or ice on a runway, a taxiway or an apron; Water on a runway, a taxiway or an apron; Snow banks or drifs adjacent to a runway, a taxiway or an apron; Anti-icing or de-icing liquid chemicals on a runway or a taxiway; Other temporary hazards, including parked aircraf; Failure or irregular operation o part or all o the aerodrome visual aids; and Failure o the normal or secondary power supply.
Note. The 3 defined states o rozen water on a runway are: snow, slush and ice.
Runways 19.28 General. Runways are the parts o the manoeuvring area used or take-off and landing o aircraf. Except in remote areas, runways will always be prepared and usually paved (concrete and tarmac). A runway should be straight and not have excessive slopes. It is usual to be able to use the ‘concrete strip’ in either direction hence one concrete strip will provide two runways. In all cases, runways require markings (painted on the surace) which will give the pilot indications about the use o the runway and also assist the pilot to land the aircraf. It is true to say that no two runways are identical, and part o the learning curve or a pilot new to an airline is to become amiliar with the aerodromes and the runways used during the operation. At a controlled aerodrome, the runway ‘belongs’ to the aerodrome controller. The pilot will be given permission to enter, backtrack, cross, take off rom and land on a specified runway. The ATCO will always speciy the runway and the pilot always reads back the runway designator in RTF communications. For instance: ATCO “G-AG clear take-off runway 01”; pilot “Clear take-off runway 01 G-AB”. In issuing this instruc tion, the ATCO is ‘lending’ the pilot the runway and afer use it is returned to the ATCO. 19.29 Usability. Many actors affect the orientation, position and number o runways at an aerodrome. One important consideration is the usability actor with regard to the wind, which could be affected by the alignment o the runway. The number and orientation o runways should be such that the usability actor o the aerodrome is not less than 95% or the aeroplanes that the aerodrome is intended to serve. It is normal practice to take off and land into wind.
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19.30 Types o Runway. Runways are defined by the use to which the runway is put, rather than by physical characteristics. An ‘airfield’ (a defined area o grass on which runways may be marked out or the direction o landing is indicated) may have several or no defined runways, whereas an ‘airport’ (a point o entry or exit rom a country by air) may have several defined paved runways. The types o operations carried out on or to a runway determine the runway type. The service provided, markings, signs, and physical characteristics o a runway are type dependent. 19.31 Visual Runway. A non-instrument (visual) runway is used where take-off and landing criteria are determined visually. The criteria are usually defined by reerence to ground visibility or RVR, cloud ceiling and day/night considerations. The markings o the runway will clearly indicate this act.
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19.32 Instrument Runway. An instrument runway is one to which instrument depar ture and approach procedures are applied. For departing traffic, the instrument departure procedure will be defined in the orm o a SID. For arriving traffic, instrument runways are sub-divided into:
• Precision runways (using ILS, MLS or PAR approaches) • Non-precision (using VOR, NDB, SRA or ILS in azimuth only approaches) 19.33 Take-off Runway. A take-off runway is a runway that can be used only or take offs. This is usually due to terrain preventing an instrument approach or precluding a missed approach. A take-off runway is usually only in one direction (the reciprocal not being used). 19.34 Location o Runway Threshold. The threshold o a runway should normally be located at the extremity o a runway unless operational considerations justiy the choice o another location. I the threshold is displaced rom the beginning o the paved strip, the location o the threshold is shown by a transverse white stripe across the runway surace and arrows leading to the position o the threshold. Reasons or displacing a threshold may include unserviceable runway conditions, RESA, radio altimeter operating area, glide path angle, obstacle clearance etc... 19.35 Length o Runways. The actual length o a runway should be adequate to meet the operational requirements o the aeroplanes or which the runway is intended and should be not less than the longest length calculated to correct or local conditions (elevation, temperature, runway slope, humidity and surace characteristics). There is no requirement to cater or the worst case aeroplane at critical mass. Where a secondary runway is constructed, the length criteria are applied in order to obtain a usability actor o 95%. Runway length is reported in metres, however, fixed distance markers (distance to go signs) along the edge o runways are in 1000s o f but are defined in terms o 300 m starting 300 m rom the threshold. For a ‘concrete strip’ to accommodate instrument approaches rom either end it must be at least 1800 m between thresholds. 19.36 Width o Runways. Clearly, the width o a runway should not be less than that required or the aeroplanes using the aerodrome. During the construction o an aerodrome this can be easily achieved but with the introduction o big aeroplanes (e.g. the A380) previously acceptable runways may be rendered inadequate. The primary actors in deciding the width o a runway are wing span and outer main gear wheel span. The table below specifies the width o runways in terms o the aerodrome reerence code:
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Width o Runways Code number
Code letter A
B
C
D
E
F
1(a)
18 m
18 m
23 m
-
-
-
2(a)
23 m
23 m
30 m
-
-
-
3
30 m
30 m
30 m
45 m
-
-
4
-
-
45 m
45 m
45 m
60 m
Note:(a): For a precision runway, w = 30 m where code is 1 and 2 Figure 19.4 Width o runways
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics 19.37 Runway Strips. A runway strip is defined as an area including the runway, and stopway i provided, in which obstacles are kept to a minimum. Any that are there must be constructed so as to present the minimum danger to aircraf, in other words, they must be rangible (collapse upon impact). The purpose o the runway strip is to reduce the risk o damage to aircraf running off a runway, and to protect aircraf flying over it during take-off or landing operations. 19.38 Length o Runway Strips. A runway strip should extend beore the threshold and beyond the end o the runway or stopway or a distance o at least:
• 60 m where the code number is 2, 3 or 4; • 60 m or a code 1 instrument runway; and • 30 m or a code 1 non-instrument runway. 19.39 Width o Runway Strips. A runway strip, wherever practicable, is to extend laterally on each side o the centre line o the runway and its extended centre line, throughout the length o the runway strip, to a distance defined in the table below. Width o Runway Strip Runway code number Type o Runway 1
2
3
4
Precision
75 m
75 m
150 m
150 m
Non-precision
75 m
75 m
150 m
150 m
Non-instrument
30 m
40 m
75 m
75 m
Figure 19.5 Width o runway strips
19.40 Grading o Runway Strips. That portion o a strip o an instrument runway within a distance o at least 75 m where the code number is 3 or 4, and 40 m where the code number is 1 or 2, rom the centre line o the runway and its extended centre line, should provide a graded area or aeroplanes which the runway is intended to serve in the event o an aeroplane running off the runway. The surace o that portion o a strip that abuts a runway, shoulder or stopway must be flush with the surace o the runway, shoulder or stopway.
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19.41 Objects on a Runway Strip. No fixed objects other than visual aids (PAPIs) are permitted on a runway strip within 77.5 m o the centre line or code 4F precision CAT I/II/III runways (60 m code 3 or 4 precision CAT I/II/III runways; or 45 m code 1 or 2 CAT I). No mobile objects are permitted on this part o a runway strip during landing or take-off. An object which is situated within the stated dimensions is to be regarded as an obstacle and, as ar as is practicable, removed. 19.42 Runway End Saety Area (RESA). This is an area o land usually at each end o a runway strip either side o the extended centre line which does not orm part o the runway or operational (perormance or planning) purposes, which is ree rom obstructions and set aside in case an aeroplane either overshoots or overruns the end o the runway. It is primarily intended to reduce the risk o damage to the aeroplane. RESAs should be provided or all code 3 and 4 runways and or code 1 and 2 instrument runways. The RESA should be at least twice the width o the runway and extend rom the end o the runway strip or a distance not less
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than 90 m. However, or a code 3 or 4 runway it is recommended to extend or 240 m, and or 120 m or code 1 and 2.
Figure 19.6 Runway strip - Code 4
19.43 Clearways. This is a defined rectangular area on the ground under the control o the appropriate authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion o its initial climb to a specified height. The origin o a clearway should be at the end o the take-off run available (TORA). The length should not exceed hal the length o TORA, and the width should extend laterally to a distance o at least 75 m on each side o the extended centre line o the runway.
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19.44 Stopways. A stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end o the take-off run available (TORA), prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraf can be stopped in the case o an abandoned/rejected take-off. It is to have the same width as the runway with which it is associated.
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics 19.45 Radio Altimeter Operating Area. The radio altimeter operating area should be established in the pre-threshold area o a precision approach runway. For CAT II/III operations the use o rad alt is mandatory to determine DH. For CAT II the minimum DH is 100 f (system minima) and or a 300 f/NM glide path this point would be at 600 m (1/3 NM) rom the aiming point. Usually the aiming point is 300 m down the runway beyond the threshold; thereore the DH point would be 300 m beore the threshold. For CAT III the DH is less than 50 f, so a rad alt operating area or CAT II would be suitable or C AT III also. The area should extend beore the threshold or a distance o at least 300 m. The area should extend laterally, on each side o the extended centre line o the runway, to a distance o 60 m, except that when special circumstances so warrant, the distance may be reduced to no less than 30 m i an aeronautical study indicates that such reduction would not affect the saety o operations o aircraf. The surace o the rad alt operating area should be level with no undulations o more than 7%.
Taxiways 19.46 Introduction. A major limitation to the use o an aerodrome is the capability o the taxiways to accommodate different sizes o aeroplanes. Clearly, a narrow taxiway cannot cope with a large aeroplane. However, width is not the only consideration. The strength o a taxiway needs to be equal to that o the runway and the surace o taxiways is more vulnerable to damage than a runway (constant loading and unloading, turning and stopping). Taxiways may include turns especially close to runways. Taxiways may cross, join, intersect and require signs and markings to enable pilots to reach their destination on the aerodrome. Taxiways, especially parallel to runways, must not be conused with runways. At some aerodromes, Gatwick or example, the parallel taxiway is also the secondary runway! Considerations have to be given to the points on taxiways where aeroplanes are held prior to entering the runway or take-off, and also portions o taxiways close to the runway where the presence o a large aeroplane (a large lump o electromagnetically riendly metal) may interere with ILS or MLS transmissions, or more undamentally, is an obstacle to operations. In basic terms according to Annex 14, taxiways should be provided to permit the sae and expeditious surace movement o aircraf. 19.47 General Layout. Sufficient entrance and exit taxiways or a runway are to be provided to expedite movement o aeroplanes to and rom the runway including the provision o rapid exit taxiways (ast turn-off lanes) where traffic volumes are high. Where the end o a runway is not served by a taxiway, it may be necessary to provide additional pavement at the end o the runway or turning aeroplanes. Such areas may be useully situated along the runway to reduce taxi times.
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19.48 Taxiing o Aeroplanes. Taxiways are required to have a painted centre line which may be lit i the aerodrome is to be used at night. When taxiing an aeroplane it is vitally important that the nose wheel o the aeroplane is kept on the centre line especially during turns. Pilots usually gain this skill by experience but special procedures may be used in extreme cases e.g. Concorde where the nose wheel was so ar af o the nose o the aeroplane that pilots used marks on the windscreens to ‘fix’ the taxiway edge thus keeping the nose wheel in position on the centre line.
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19.49 Rapid Exit Taxiways. Rapid exit taxiways, commonly called ‘ast turn-off lanes’, are provided where traffic density is high. They are used to allow aeroplanes to turn off o the duty runway at a speed higher than would be permitted at a right angle turn on to a normal taxiway. They are located along runways and are designed and constructed to cater or turnoff speeds o 93 km/h (50 kt) or code 3 or 4 runways and 65 km/h (35 kt) on code 1 and 2 runways, in wet conditions. Operators will speciy the maximum speed or dry runway/taxiway operations. The taxiway is to include a straight section afer the turn-off curve to allow an exiting aircraf to come to a ull stop clear o the intersecting taxiway. The intersecting angle with the runway should not be greater than 45°, not less than 25°, and preerably 30°. 19.50 Minimum Requirements. As previously mentioned, width is the most important actor in taxiway design and construction. The table below specifies the minimum requirements or clearance o the outermost main wheels when the nose wheel is on the centre line o the taxiway. The shoulders o taxiways which are used by turbine aeroplanes are to be prepared to prevent erosion by jet blast, and the ingestion o surace material into the jet engines. Taxiway strips, similar to runway strips, are provided primarily to delineate the area to be cleared o objects which may be obstacles. In the table, wheel base reers to the distance rom the ront o the nose wheel to the trailing edge o the main gear. Wheel to edge clearance reers to the distance rom the outer edge o the main gear tyres to the defined edge o the taxiway. Wheel to Taxiway Edge Clearance Code Letter
Clearance
A
1.5 m
B
2.25 m
C
3 m i the taxiway is intended to be used by aeroplanes with wheel base less than 18 m; otherwise 4.5 m
D
4.5 m
E
4.5 m
F
4.5 m
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Figure 19.7 Wheel to edge clearance
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics 19.51 Width o Taxiways. The straight portion o a taxiway should have a width o not less than that specified in the table below. Taxiway Width Code Letter A
7.5 m
B
10.5 m
C
15 m i the taxiway is intended to be used by aeroplanes with a wheel base less than 18 m; otherwise 18 m
D
18 m i the taxiway is intended to be used by aeroplanes with an outer main gear span o less than 9 m; otherwise 23 m
E
23 m
F
25 m Figure 19.8 Width o taxiways
Code C = 15 m if a/c has a wheel base less than 18 m otherwise width = 18 m
Taxiways
Wheel to taxiway edge clearance = Code D/E/F 4.5 m
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Code D = 18 m if a/c has outer main gear span less than 9 m otherwise D/E/F = 23 m Rapid exit taxiways/fast turn-off lanes: may be used at max speed determined by operator (not more than 50 kt in wet conditions – code 3 or 4) Figure 19.9: Taxiways
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19.52 Taxiway Curves. Changes in direction o taxiways should be as ew and small as possible. The radii o the curves should be compatible with the manoeuvring capability and normal taxiing speeds o the aeroplanes or which the taxiway is intended. An example o widening taxiways to achieve the wheel clearance specified is illustrated below.
Figure 19.10: Taxiway curves
19.53 Holding Bays and Runway Holding Positions. Inevitably, at a busy aerodrome, aeroplanes will be required to wait their turn or take-off. It is common to see a stream o traffic waiting along the taxiway or take-off, but at an international airport the queues or take-off can exceed the capability o the taxiway to accommodate all the aircraf waiting. In this situation or where environmental considerations exist, holding bays are provided adjacent to runway entrances which leave the taxiways clear. At some major aerodromes with particularly high traffic levels or intense peaks in traffic density, ‘sin bins’ are established to take aeroplanes out o the stream i something has gone wrong. Regardless o the position o holding bays, the entrance to the runway will be protected by a defined mandatory holding point set back rom the edge o the runway to accommodate all the traffic using the runway. A runway holding position must be established on a taxiway i the location or alignment o the taxiway is such that a taxiing aircraf or vehicle can inringe an obstacle limitation surace or interere with the operation o radio navigation aids (ILS or MLS). The method o indicating a runway holding position is covered later in the notes (under Signs and Markings). A runway holding position, or positions, must be established at the distances in the table on page 384 at an intersection o a taxiway with a runway; and an intersection o a runway with another runway when the ormer runway is part o a standard taxi-route.
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Aerodromes - Physical Characteristics
Figure 19.11 Holding points
Runway Holding Point Positions (Distance rom Centre Line o Runway) Runway code number Type o Runway 1
2
3
4
Take-off
30 m
40 m
75 m
75 m
Non-instrument (Visual)
30 m
40 m
75 m
75 m
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Non-precision Instrument
40 m
40 m
75 m
75 m
A e r o d r o m e s P h y s i c a l C h a r a c t e r i s t i c s
Precision CAT I
60 m(b)
60 m(b)
90 m(a,b)
90 m(a,b,c)
Precision CAT II/III
-
-
90 m(a,b)
90 m(a,b,c)
Notes: a. May be increased i holding elevation lower than runway b. May be increased to avoid intererence with radio navigation aids c. For code F this should be 107.5 m Figure 19.12 Minimum distances rom runway centre lines o holding positions
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© Stewart Andrew Figure 19.13 A “line-up” at Manchester or rwy 06L
19.54 Road Holding Position. This is a designated position at which vehicles may be required to stop and wait where the taxiway is also used as a road or aerodrome vehicular traffic. Normally, a road holding point will have traffic lights. A road holding position must be established at an intersection o a road with a runway. The distances in the table on page 384 apply to road holding points.
Aprons 19.55 Requirement. Aprons are provided where necessary to permit the embarking and disembarking o passengers and the loading and off loading o cargo and mail, as well as the servicing o aircraf, without intererence with aerodrome traffic. The total apron area should be adequate to permit the expeditious handling o the aerodrome traffic at its maximum anticipated density. Aprons are to be built to accommodate slow moving traffic and in any case to withstand higher stresses than runways. Aircraf parking areas on aprons (stands) are to be marked and are required to provide a minimum distance between parked aircraf. For code A the distance is 3 m, and or code D and above 7.5 m.
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19.56 Isolated Aircraf Parking Position. An isolated aircraf parking position is to be designated, or the control tower advised o an area or areas, suitable or the parking o an aircraf which is known or believed to be the subject o unlawul intererence, or which or other reasons needs isolation rom normal aerodrome traffic. Th is special area is not to be less than 100 m rom any other parking area, building, or public area, or over underground utilities (gas, aviation uel, electrical or communications cables).
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19
Questions Questions 1.
Aerodrome reerence code 4 reers to field length o:
a. b. c. d. 2.
The signal area should be located so that it is visible rom the air. A lack o a signal area denotes that:
a. b. c. d. 3.
5.
Q u e s t i o n s
Stopping afer landing distance. Extending the Landing Distance Available. Stopping afer a rejected take-off. A runway extension or big aircraf.
A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:
a. b. c. d.
386
6B. 4G. 7G. 2B.
What is a stopway or?
a. b. c. d. 7.
100 metres. 200 metres. 300 metres. 500 metres.
Which o the ollowing is a valid aerodrome reerence code?
a. b. c. d. 6.
Wing span and inner main gear wheel span. Fuselage width and inner main gear wheel span. Fuselage width and outer main gear wheel span. Wing span and outer main gear wheel span.
A radio altimeter operating area must extend beore the threshold o a precision approach runway or a distance o at least:
a. b. c. d. 1 9
non-radio traffic will not be accepted at the aerodrome other than emergency traffic. non-radio traffic will be accepted. non-radio traffic will be accepted in daylight hours only. non-radio traffic will not be accepted in daylight hours only.
The Aerodrome Reerence Code consists o Code Element 1 (aeroplane reerence field length) and Code Element 2. What does Code Element 2 define?
a. b. c. d. 4.
900 m. 1000 m. 1600 m. 1800 m or more.
closed runway. runway which is 2400 metres or longer. displaced threshold. runway available or circling to land approaches.
Questions 8.
Which “code letter” identifies a taxiway that has to be used by an aircraf with a wheel-base o 15 metres?
a. b. c. d. 9.
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10.5 m. 15 m. 18 m. 23 m.
s n o i t s e u Q
What is the minimum width o a code 4 runway?
a. b. c. d. 14.
clearway. runway strip extension. runway end saety area. altimeter operating area extension.
What is the width o a code letter D taxiway used by aircraf with an outer main gear wheel span o less than 9 m?
a. b. c. d. 13.
to stop an aircraf afer a rejected take-off. to stop a landing aircraf in case o an emergency. to stop a starting or landing aircraf. to stop a landing aircraf i it overshoots the runway.
An area defined about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end o the strip, primarily intended to reduce the risk o damage to an aircraf undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined as a:
a. b. c. d. 12.
15 m or more but less than 24 m. 36 m or more but less than 52 m. 52 m or more but less than 65 m. 24 m or more but less than 36 m.
The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end o the take-off run available which is prepared as a suitable area:
a. b. c. d. 11.
Code letter E . Code letter C. Code letter B. Code letter D.
According to the Aerodrome Reerence Code, the code letter E relates to an aircraf wingspan o:
a. b. c. d. 10.
19
18 m. 23 m. 30 m. 45 m.
When a fixed distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
a. b. c. d.
150 m rom the threshold. 300 m rom the threshold. 150 m rom the aiming point. 300 m rom the aiming point.
387
19
Questions 15.
TODA consists o:
a. b. c. d.
1 9
Q u e s t i o n s
388
TORA but excluding the clearway. TORA and includes the clearway. TORA but excluding the stopway. TORA only.
Questions
19
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s n o i t s e u Q
389
19
Answers
Answers
1 9
A n s w e r s
390
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
d
a
d
c
d
c
c
b
c
a
c
c
13
14
15
d
b
b
Chapter
20 Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs
Requirements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 393 Visual Aids or Navigation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 393 Runway Markings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 394 Taxiway Markings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 399 Signs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
404
Markers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
410
Visual Docking Guidance Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 412 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
414
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Requirements 20.1 Background. The complex nature o aerodromes coupled with the act than no two aerodromes have the same layout, operations and geographic position, makes standardization in the provision o visual inormation to pilots taxiing aircraf and preparing or landing or takeoff, essential. Annex 14 specifies the applicable SARPs and the learning objectives are specific in requiring the student to have more than just a theoretical understanding o the subject. The discussion is broken down into three sections dealing with visual aids or navigation, aerodrome markings, and aerodrome signage. It must be born in mind that whilst the SARPs are adopted by all Contracting States, there may be differences and there may some signs or instance, seen at oreign aerodromes that are not seen on a UK aerodrome and vice versa.
Visual Aids for Navigation 20.2 Indicators and Signalling Devices. Aerodromes are required to be equipped with a means o indicating the wind direction to pilots o non-radio aircraf. Remember, the Rules o the Air require a pilot to land and take off into wind, so there must be a method o indication. In order or a non-radio pilot to know what the landing direction is, a landing indicator is required. Also a means o communicating visual signals to non-radio aircraf is required to be positioned in the visual control room. 20.3 Wind Direction Indicators. An aerodrome must be equipped with at least one wind direction indicator (commonly called a ‘wind sock’). The wind direction indicator should be in the orm o a truncated cone made o abric and should have a length o not less than 3.6 m and a diameter, at the larger end, o not less than 0.9 m. It should be constructed so that it gives a clear indication o the direction o the surace wind and a general indication o the wind speed. The colour or colours should be so selected as to make the wind direction indicator clearly visible and understandable rom a height o at least 300 m, having regard to background. Where practicable, a single colour, preerably white or orange, should be used. The location o at least one wind direction indicator (the ‘master’ wind sock) should be marked by a circular white band 15 m in diameter and 1.2 m wide. Provisions should be made or illuminating at least one wind indicator at an aerodrome intended or use at night. 20.4 Landing Direction Indicator. When provided, a landing direction indicator shall be located in a conspicuous place on the aerodrome. I a signal square is provided, a landing “T” will always be included in the signs in the square. The landing direction indicator should be in the orm o a “T”. The colour o the “T” should be either white or orange, the choice being dependent on the colour that contrasts best with the background against which the indicator will be viewed. Where required or use at night the landing “T” is to be either illuminated or outlined by white lights.
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20.5 Signalling Lamp. A signalling lamp must be provided at a controlled aerodrome in the aerodrome control tower or the purpose o showing the light signals to aircraf either in the air or on the ground as defined in Chapter 6. The lamp, usually an Aldis lamp specially designed or signalling, must be capable o producing red, green and white light and o being aimed manually at any target as required; giving a signal in any one colour ollowed by a signal in either o the other two colours; and being operated to transmit a message in any one o the three colours by Morse code up to a speed o at least our words per minute.
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Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs 20.6 Signal Panels and Signal Area. The provision o a signals area (‘signals square’) at an aerodrome implies that non-radio traffic is accepted. A signals area is not required i an aerodrome authority has proscribed routine non-radio traffic (the aerodrome would still be required to provide a service to an aircraf suffering a communications ailure that has indicated the intention to land). The signals area should be located so as to be visible or all angles o azimuth above an angle o 10° above the horizontal when viewed rom a height o 300 m. The signals area shall be an even horizontal surace o at least 9 m square. The colour o the signal area should be chosen to contrast with the colours o the signal panels used, and it should be surrounded by a white border not less than 0.3 m wide. It is normal or the signals area to be positioned in ront (on the aerodrome side) o the control tower/VCR. The signals that may be displayed in the signals area are covered in Chapter 6.
Runway Markings 20.7 General. Markings are characters, numbers and shapes painted on the concrete suraces o the aerodrome. Markings are ound on runways, taxiways and aprons. Markings may either give location or directional inormation or indicate a mandatory requirement e.g. to stop. The colour o a marking is dependent upon where it is used and the size must be sufficient or it to be read or understood easily rom the flight deck o an aeroplane. The IC AO standard is or runway markings to be white and taxiway markings to be yellow. 20.8 Runway Markings. Runway markings are white. It has been ound that, on runway suraces o light colour, the conspicuity o white markings can be improved by outlining them in black. Large areas o paint can create a riction problem; thereore this should be reduced, as ar as practicable, by the use o a suitable kind o paint. Markings may consist o numbers and letters, solid areas, or a series o longitudinal stripes providing an effect equivalent to the solid areas. Generally, runway markings assist the pilot with locating the threshold, identiying the runway, defining the centre line and locating the aiming point. Additionally or an instrument runway, as well as the aiming point, it will have touchdown zone markings.
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© K. Boxall Figure 20.1 Runway markings at RAF Brize Norton
20.9 Runway Designation Marking. A runway designation marking is to be provided at the threshold o paved runways, and as ar as is practicable at the threshold o unpaved (grass) runways. I the runway threshold is displaced rom the extremity o the runway, a sign showing the designation o the runway may be provided or aeroplanes taking off.
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Figure 20.2 Runway designation markings
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Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs 20.10 Characteristics. A runway designation marking should consist o a two digit number and on parallel runways shall be supplemented with a letter. On a single runway, dual parallel runways and triple parallel runways the two digit number shall be the whole number nearest the magnetic bearing (QDM) divided by 10 (094 ÷ 10 = 09.4 rounded down to 09) o the runway when viewed rom the direction o approach. On our or more parallel runways, one set o adjacent runways shall be numbered to the nearest one tenth QDM and the other set o adjacent runways numbered to the next nearest one tenth o the QDM. When the above rule would give a single digit number, it shall be preceded by a zero. In some states the ‘0’ is omitted e.g. at New York JFK the south to north runways are ‘4R’ and ‘4L’. In the case o parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented by a letter as ollows, in the order shown rom lef to right when viewed rom the direction o approach:
• For two parallel runways “09L” “09R”; • For three parallel runways “09L” “09C” “09R”; • For our parallel runways “09L” “09R” “10L” “10R” (in this case the QDM or one pair will be increased to differentiate that pair rom the other).
20.11 Runway Centre Line Marking. A runway centre line marking is required on a paved runway. The centre line marking is painted along the centre line o the runway between the runway designation markings. 20.12 Characteristics. A runway centre line marking consists o a line o uniormly spaced stripes and gaps. The length o a stripe plus a gap shall be not less than 50 m or more than 75 m. The length o each stripe shall be at least equal to the length o the gap or 30 m, whichever is greater. 20.13 Threshold Marking. The threshold o a runway is either the beginning o the marked out grass area, or the star t o the concrete strip. A threshold marking is required to be provided at the thresholds o paved instrument runways, and o paved non-instrument code 3 and 4 runways and the runway is intended or use by international commercial air transport. A threshold marking should be provided, as ar as is practicable, at the threshold o an unpaved runway.
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20.14 Location. The stripes (commonly known as ‘piano keys’) o the threshold marking, should start 6 m rom the threshold. 20.15 Characteristics. A runway threshold marking is a pattern o longitudinal stripes o uniorm dimensions disposed symmetrically about the centre line o the runway. For a runway width o 45 m (or non-precision approach and non-instrument runways 45 m or greater in width) they may be placed either side o the runway designation number. The stripes should extend laterally to within 3 m o the edge o the runway or to a distance o 27 m on either side o a runway centre line, whichever results in the smaller lateral distance. Where a runway designation marking is placed within a threshold marking there will be a minimum o three stripes on each side o the centre line o the runway. Where a runway designation marking is placed above a threshold marking the stripes shall be continued across the runway. The stripes shall be at least 30 m long and approximately 1.80 m between them except where the stripes are continued across a runway, in which case a double spacing shall be used to separate the two stripes nearest the centre line o the runway. In the case where the designation marking is included within the threshold marking this spacing shall be 22.5 m. The number o stripes shall be in accordance with the runway width as ollows:
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Runway Threshold Markings Runway Width
Number o Stripes
18 m
4
23 m
6
30 m
8
45 m
12
60 m or more
16
© Qin Wei Figure 20.4 Runway threshold markings
20.16 Transverse Stripe. Where a threshold is displaced rom the extremity o a runway (the end o the concrete) or where the end is not at right angles to the runway centre line, a transverse stripe should be added to the threshold marking. When a runway threshold is permanently displaced, arrows shall be provided on the portion o the runway beore the displaced threshold. The reasons why a threshold may be displaced have been discussed in Chapter 19.
03 Transverse Stripe
0 2
20.17 Aiming Point Marking. The aiming point marking indicates the position o the origin o the visual glide slope (PAPI) and the ILS GP transmitter. An aiming point Figure 20.3 marking is to be provided at each approach end o code 2, 3 or 4 paved instrument runways. It is recommended that an aiming point marking is provided on code 1 paved instrument runways and code 3 or 4 paved non-instrument runways when additional conspicuity o the aiming point is desirable. An ICAO specification aiming point marking consists o two conspicuous stripes.
s n g i S d n a s g n i k r a M , s d i A l a u s i V s e m o r d o r e A
20.18 Location. The aiming point marking shall commence no closer to the threshold than the distance indicated in the appropriate column o Figure 20.5, except that on a runway equipped with a visual approach slope indicator system (PAPI or VASI), the beginning o the marking shall be coincident with the visual approach slope origin. For a code 4 runway less than 2400 m long, the aiming point is positioned 300 m rom the threshold. For a normal 3° glide path (300 f/NM), the aircraf on glide path will cross the threshold at a height o 50 f. Bigger aircraf require longer LDA so or runways 2400 m or more in length have the aiming point 400 m rom the threshold so the aircraf crosses the threshold at 67 f thus giving additional gear to concrete clearance.
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Aiming Point Marking Location Landing Distance Available (LDA)
Threshold to Beginning o Marking
Less than 800 m
150 m
800 m up to but not including 1200 m
250 m
1200 m up to but not including 2400 m
300 m
2400 m or more
400 m
Figure 20.5 Location o aiming point marking
20.19 Touchdown Zone Markings. Touchdown zone (TDZ) markings indicate the area o the runway where the aeroplane should be landed. Landing Distance Available is an operational consideration or the use o a runway, but it is not common practice to land the aeroplane on the threshold marking. The TDZ markings give the pilot an indication o extent o the usable touchdown area and i distance coded, the length o the touchdown zone remaining. Markings are required or code 2, 3 and 4 paved precision approach runways, and recommended or code 3 or 4 paved non-precision or non-instrument runways, where additional conspicuity is required. 20.20 Location. TDZ markings consist o pairs o rectangular markings symmetrically placed about the runway centre line with the number o pair s related to the landing distance available. For code 4 runways (2400 m or more in length) the TDZ markings have 6 pairs. 20.21 Characteristics. Touchdown zone markings conorm to either o the two patterns shown below. Pattern “A” is the basic marking system whereas pattern “B” is distance coded. The choice o patterns is not runway length dependent. The pairs o markings have longitudinal spacing o 150 m beginning rom the threshold. I a p air o TDZ markings is coincident with or located within 50 m o an aiming point marking, the TDZ marking at that position is deleted rom the pattern.
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Figure 20.6 Pattern “A”, basic plain markings
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Figure 20.7 Pattern “B”, distance coded
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20.22 Runway Side Stripe Markings. Runway side stripe markings are to be provided between the thresholds o precision runways, and paved runways where there is a lack o contrast between the runway edges and the shoulders or the surrounding terrain. It is recommended that side stripes are marked on all precision runways regardless o the contrast with the surrounding ground. The picture o the runway at Gran Canaria, Figure 20.7 on the previous page, shows the use o side stripes.
Taxiway Markings 20.23 Requirements. Taxiway markings and aircraf stand markings are yellow. I there is a need to enhance conspicuity, the lines may be outlined in black.
© Paul Spijkars
Figure 20.8 Taxiway markings 0 2
20.24 Apron Saety Lines. Although not strictly taxiway markings, in the apron areas the sae movement o aircraf into and out o parking stands can be enhanced by the use o apron saety lines. I all ground equipment and vehicles are parked or positioned behind the apron saety lines, a pilot or a marshaller can ignore the presence o those obstacles when parking aircraf. Apron saety lines are to be o a conspicuous colour which shall contrast with that used or aircraf stand markings.
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Figure 20.9 Example o aircraf stand markings
20.25 Taxiway Centre Line Markings. Taxiway centre line markings are to be provided on a paved taxiway, de/anti-icing acility and the apron areas where the code number is 3 or 4 (and recommended or code 1 and 2). Centre line markings are to give guidance rom the runway centre line, to the point on the apron where aircraf stand markings commence. Taxiway centre line markings are also provided on a paved runway when the runway is part o a standard taxi-route and there is no runway centre line marking; or where the taxiway centre line is not coincident with the runway centre line. Taxiway centre line marking is a continuous yellow line. Should there be yellow side stripes, these mark non-load-bearing suraces. 20.26 Runway Holding Position Marking. Holding points are established at the entrance to all runways. It is not uncommon or there to be more than one holding point at the entrance to a runway. A runway holding position marking is to be displayed at a runway holding point. The actual holding position is indicated by the mandatory sign (see signs later in this chapter) which will be displayed on at least the lef hand side o the taxiway as the aeroplane approaches the runway. Ideally the sign should be on both sides o the taxiway. The marking is to extend all the way across the taxiway. The position may be augmented by stop bars or runway guard lights, see paragraph 21.38. The distance between a runway holding position and the centre line o the associated runway is specified in the picture afer paragraph 19.53 and in the case o a precision approach runway, will be such that a holding aircraf (or vehicle) will not interere with the operation o radio navigation aids, specifically ILS. A runway holding point may also be established where the approach to a runway passes over a taxiway to another runway. In this case, the associated sign will speciy what the holding point is or.
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20.27 Patterns. There are two distinct patterns or runway holding markings. These are defined as ‘Pattern A’ and ‘Pattern B’. 20.28 Pattern A. The closest holding point to a runway will always be marked with a Pattern A marking, and it will be positioned at an intersection o a taxiway and a non-instrument (visual) runway, a non-precision approach runway or a take-off runway. Where a single taxiholding position is provided at an intersection o a taxiway and a precision approach category I II or III runway, the taxi-holding position marking shall be Pattern A. For a code 4 runway, the Pattern A holding point will be no closer than 75 m to the centre line o the runway. It is also the visual holding point.
Figure 20.10 Runway holding markings, pattern A
20.29 Pattern B. Where two or three taxi-holding positions are provided at such an intersection, the taxi-holding position marking closer (closest) to the runway shall be as shown in pattern A and the markings urther rom the runway shall be pattern B. Any other holding point associated with a runway required on a taxiway will also be Pattern B. 0 2
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Figure 20.11 Runway holding markings, pattern B
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Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs 20.30 Intermediate Holding Position Marking. Where two (or more) taxiways cross, holding points are established at suitable distances rom the crossing taxiway. It may be that one taxiway has priority and the holding point marking may be augmented by a mandatory marking. It should be coincident with a stop bar or clearance bar, where provided. A taxiway intersection marking consists o a single broken yellow line.
Figure 20.12 Intermediate holding position marking
20.31 Aircraf Stand Markings. Aircraf stand markings should be provided or designated parking positions on a paved apron and on de/anti-icing acilities. They should include such elements as stand identification, lead-in line, turn bar, turning line, alignment bar, stop line and lead-out line, as are required by the parking configuration and to complement other parking aids. The stand identification letter and/or number should be included a short distance afer the beginning o the lead-in line. The height o the identification should be adequate to be readable rom the cockpit o aircraf using the stand. Lead-in, turning and lead-out lines should normally be continuous in length. Where one or more sets o stand markings are superimposed on a stand, the lines should be continuous or the most demanding aircraf and broken or other aircraf. The curved portions o lead-in, turning and lead-out lines should have radii appropriate to the most demanding aircraf type or which the markings are intended. Where it is intended that aircraf proceed in one direction only, arrows pointing in the direction to be ollowed should be added as part o the lead-in and lead-out lines. A turn bar should be located at right angles to the lead-in line, abeam the lef pilot position at the point o initiation o any intended turn. The distances to be maintained between the turn bar and the lead-in line may vary according to different aircraf types, taking into account the pilot’s field o view. An alignment bar should be placed so as to be coincident with the extended centre line o the aircraf in the specified marking position and visible to the pilot during the final part o the parking manoeuvre. A stop line should be located at right angles to the alignment bar, abeam the lef pilot position at the intended point o stop.
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© K. Boxall Figure 20.13 Aircraf stand markings
20.32 Road holding Position Markings. Road holding position markings are to be provided at all road entrances to a runway. The markings are to be located across the road at the holding position, and will be marked in accordance with the local road traffic regulations. 20.33 Mandatory Inormation Marking. Where it is impracticable to install a mandatory sign, a mandatory instruction marking is to be marked on the surace o the taxiway pavement. Mandatory markings are holding point signs (runway designator in white on a red background) and no entry signs. Pilots are not to pass any mandatory marking unless specifically cleared by ATC. 20.34 Inormation Markings. Where an inormation sign would normally be installed but it is physically impracticable, the inormation is to be displayed on the surace o the pavement. Where operationally required, an inormation sign should be supplemented by inormation markings. The inormation markings should be displayed across the surace o the taxiway or apron where necessary and positioned so as to be legible rom the cockpit o an approaching aircraf. Inormation markings shall consist o an inscription in yellow, when it replaces or supplements a location sign; and an inscription in black, when it replaces or supplements a direction or destination sign. Where there is insufficient contrast between the marking and the pavement surace, the marking shall include a black background where the inscriptions are in yellow; and a yellow background where the inscriptions are in black. Markings will be combinations o characters and symbols. Markings containing numbers only are only used or runways and runway designators.
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Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs Signs 20.35 General Specification. Signs are provided on aerodromes to convey a mandatory instruction, inormation on a specific location or destination on a movement area, or to provide other inormation as required. 20.36 Characteristics. Signs shall be rangible. Those located near a runway or taxiway shall be sufficiently low to preserve clearance or propellers and the engine pods o jet aircraf. Signs shall be rectangular, with the longer side horizontal. The only signs on the movement area utilizing red shall be mandatory instruction signs. Signs showing numbers only reer to runways. Signs shall be reflective and/or illuminated when intended or use at night. Signs shall be illuminated when intended or use:
• In runway visual range conditions less than a value o 800 m, or • At night in association with instrument runways, or • At night in association with non-instrument runways where the code number is 3 or 4. 20.37 Mandatory Instruction Signs. A mandatory instruction sign is provided to identiy the location beyond which an aircraf taxiing or vehicle shall not proceed unless authorized by the aerodrome control tower. Mandatory instruction signs include runway designation signs, category I, II and III holding position signs, taxi-holding position signs, road-holding position signs and NO ENTRY signs. A pattern “A” taxi- holding position marking shall be supplemented at a taxiway/runway intersection or a runway/taxiway intersection with a runway designation sign. A pattern “B” taxi-holding position marking shall be supplemented with a category I, II or III holding position sign. A runway designation sign at a taxiway/runway intersection should be supplemented with a location sign in the outboard (arthest rom the taxiway) position as appropriate. A NO ENTRY sign shall be provided when entry into an area is prohibited. 20.38 Locations o Signs. Signs are to be located in positions such that pilots (or vehicle drivers) are able to see the sign. Signs are not to be positioned so as to create hazards to aircraf. Signs are positioned as ollows:
• A runway designation sign at a taxiway/runway intersection shall be located at least on the lef side o a taxiway acing the direction o approach to the runway. Where practicable, a runway designation sign shall be located on each side o the taxiway.
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• A NO ENTRY sign shall be located at the beginning o the area to which the entrance is prohibited at least on the lef hand side o the taxiway as viewed by the pilot. Where practicable, a NO ENTRY sign shall be located on each side o the taxiway. • A Category I, II or III holding position sign shall be located on each side o the holding position marking acing the direction o the approach to the critical area. • A taxi-holding position is to be located on the lef-side o the taxi- holding position acing the approach to the runway or ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area, as appropriate, and where practicable, on each side o the taxi-holding position.
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20.39 Characteristics. A mandatory instruction sign consists o white letters/numbers on a red background. The inscription on a runway designation sign consists o the runway designator. The inscription on a category I, II or III or joint II/III instrument approach holding position sign consists o the runway designator ollowed by CAT I, CAT II, C AT III, or CAT II/III, as appropriate. The inscription on a taxi-holding position sign shall consist o the taxiway designation and number.
27
09-27
27 CAT I
9
ILS B2
Visual holding point with single digit alternative (010 – 090)
CAT I Instrument holding point
27 CAT I II III 15-APCH
9-27
CAT I/II/III Instrument holding point
Taxi-holding point where approach to Runway 15 passes over the taxiway
May be used at a holding point instead of the CAT I II III signs
Intermediate taxi-holding point
No Entry
Figure 20.14 Sign characteristics
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Figure 20.15 Inormation signs
20.40 Inormation Signs. Inormation signs are provided where there is an operational need to identiy a specific location, or routing (direction or destination). Inormation signs include: direction signs, location signs, destination signs, runway exit signs and runway vacated signs. Wherever practicable, they are located on the lef-hand side o the taxiway. At a taxiway intersection, inormation signs are located beore the intersection and in line with the taxiway intersection marking. Runway exit signs are located on the same side o the runway as the exit is located (i.e. lef or right). A runway vacated sign is located at least on one side o the taxiway to indicate when the aircraf is clear o the sensitive area. Where a runway vacated sign and a taxiway location sign are sited, the taxiway location sign is outboard o the runway vacated sign. A taxiway location sign installed in conjunction with a runway designation sign shall be positioned outboard o the runway designation sign. An inormation sign other than a location sign shall not be collocated with a mandatory instruction sign.
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20.41 Characteristics. The colour and symbology o inormation signs is as ollows:
• Inormation Signs (except location signs), consist o an inscription in black on a yellow background. • Location Signs consist o an inscription in yellow on a black background and where it is a stand alone sign, has a yellow border. • The inscription on a runway exit sign consists o the designator o the exit taxiway and an arrow indicating the direction to ollow. • The inscription on a runway vacated sign depicts the pattern ‘A’ taxi-holding position marking.
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Figure 20.16 Runway vacated taxiway F
Note. A runway vacated sign also indicates that the aircraf is leaving the perimeter o the ILS/ MLS critical/sensitive area.
• The inscription on a destination sign identifies the destination with an arrow indicating the direction to proceed.
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Figure 20.17 Runway 02 straight ahead: holding point D3 to the right
• The inscription on a direction sign identifies the taxiway(s) with an arrow (or arrows) appropriately orientated. • The inscription on a location sign is the designation o the location taxiway, runway or other pavement the aircraf is on or is entering. Note: Where it is necessary to identiy each o a series o taxi-holding positions on the same taxiway, the location sign should consist o the taxiway designation and number.
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Figure 20.18
20.42 Combination Signs. Where a location sign and direction signs are used in combination, signs related to lef turns are placed on the lef side o the location sign and all direction signs related to right turns are placed on the right side o the location sign.
Exception: Where the junction consists o one intersecting taxiway, the location sign may be placed on the lef hand side. Adjacent signs are delineated by a vertical black line.
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Figure 20.19 Combination signs
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20.43 Taxiway Designators. Taxiways are identified by a designator comprising a letter(s) or a combination o a letter(s) ollowed by a number. When designating taxiways, the use o the letters I, O or X and the use o words such as inner and outer should be avoided wherever possible to avoid conusion with the numerals 1, 0 and closed marking. The use o numbers alone on the manoeuvring area is reserved or the designation o runways.
Figure 20.20
20.44 Aircraf Stand Identification Signs. An aircraf stand identification marking (see paragraph 20.55) should be supplemented with a sign where easible. The sign should be located so as to be clearly visible rom the cockpit o an aircraf prior to entering the stand. The sign consists o an inscription in black on a yellow background. Alternatively in Europe this may be white on a blue background. 20.45 Road-Holding Position Signs. Road-holding position signs are provided at all road entrances to runways. The road-holding position sign is to be located 1.5 m rom the edge o the road (lef or right as appropriate to the local traffic regulations) at the holding position. A road-holding position marking sign consists o an inscription in white on a red background. I the sign is intended or night use, it is to be reflective or illuminated. The inscription on a road-holding position sign is to be in the national language, must conorm to the local traffic regulations and include a requirement to stop; a requirement to obtain an ATC clearance; and the location designator.
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20.46 Illumination o Signs. Signs must be illuminated when intended or use:
a. b. c.
in RVR conditions less than 800 metres at night in association with instrument runways at night in association with non-instrument runways where the code number is 3 or 4
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Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs Markers 20.47 Definition. A marker is an object which is displayed above ground level in order to indicate an obstacle or delineate a boundary. Markers are used where lights are not provided or where lighting (or ground markings) does not serve the purpose. Typically, edge markers may be used to indicate the extremity o a taxiway where snow has allen, or to mark areas o bad ground on a grass aerodrome. Their height shall be sufficiently low to preserve clearance or propellers and or the engine pods o jet aircraf. At Oxord, the reuelling area is marked by reflective green markers. 20.48 Unpaved Runway Edge Markers. Markers should be provided when the extent o an unpaved runway is not clearly indicated by the appearance o its surace compared with that o the surrounding ground. Where runway lights are provided, the markers should be incorporated in the light fixtures. Where there are no lights, markers o flat rectangular or conical shape should be placed so as to delimit the runway clearly. The flat rectangular markers should have a minimum size o 1 m by 3 m and should be placed with their long dimension parallel to the runway centre line. The conical markers should have a height not exceeding 50 cm. 20.49 Taxiway Edge Markers. Taxiway edge markers should be provided on a taxiway where centre line or edge lights or taxiway centre line markers are not provided. The markers should be installed at least at the same locations as would the taxiway edge lights had they been used. Markers are required to be reflective blue. Taxiway edge markers shall be rangible. 20.50 Taxiway Centre Line Markers. Taxiway centre line markers should be provided on a taxiway where edge lights or taxiway edge markers are not provided. The markers should be installed at least at the same location as would taxiway centre line lights had they been used. The markers should normally be located on the taxiway centre line marking, except that they may be offset by not more than 30 cm where it is not practicable to locate them on the marking. Taxiway centre line markers are reflective green. The markers shall be so designed and fitted to withstand being run over by the wheels o an aircraf without damage either to the aircraf or to the markers themselves. 20.51 Unpaved Taxiway Edge Markers. Where the extent o an unpaved taxiway is not clearly indicated by its appearance compared with that o the surrounding ground, markers should be provided. Where taxiway lights are provided, the markers should be incorporated in the light fixtures. Where there are no lights, markers o conical shape should be placed so as to delimit the taxiway clearly.
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20.52 Stopway Edge Markers. The stopway edge markers shall be sufficiently different rom any runway marker used to ensure that the two types cannot be conused. Note: Markers consisting o small vertical boards camouflaged on the reverse side, as viewed rom the runway, have proved operationally acceptable.
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20.53 Boundary Markers. Boundary markers shall be provided at an aerodrome where the landing area has no runway. Boundary markers shall be spaced along the boundary o the landing area at intervals o not more than 200 m, i the type shown below is used, or approximately 90 m, i the conical type is used with a marker at any corner. Boundary markers should be o a orm similar to those shown below, or in the orm o a cone not less than 50 cm high and not less than 75 cm in diameter at the base. The markers should be coloured to contrast with the background against which they will be seen. A single colour, orange or red, or two contrasting colours, orange and white or alternatively red and white, should be used, except where such colours merge with the background.
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Figure 20.21 Boundary markers
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Aerodromes - Visual Aids, Markings and Signs 20.54 Fixed Distance Markers. Fixed distance markers are used to indicate the length o runway remaining. They consist o white numbers on a black background and are positioned on the side o the runway at intervals o 1000 f counting down as the end o the runway approaches. The first marker is positioned 1000 f (300 m) rom the threshold o the landing runway. These are commonly called ‘distance to go’ markers and are mainly used at military aerodromes. 20.55 Parking Stand Markers. These are positioned as markings at the entrance to a parking stand or as a sign positioned on a building at the end o the stand. The marker consists o white inscriptions on a blue background.
Figure 20.22 Fixed distance and parking stand markers 2 0
Visual Docking Guidance Systems
A e r o d r o m e s V i s u a l A i d s , M a r k i n g s a n d S i g n s
20.56 Overview. Visual Docking Guidance systems (sometimes reerred to as Nose-in Docking Guidance systems or Stand Entry Guidance systems) provide guidance where pilot interpreted alignment and stopping inormation is required or accurate parking, particularly at a ir-bridges. ICAO states that aircraf stand manoeuvring guidance lights should be provided to acilitate the positioning o an aircraf on an aircraf stand on a paved apron, or on a de/anti-icing acility intended or use in poor visibility conditions, unless adequate guidance is provided by other means. There are no learning objectives concerning Visual Docking Systems, but students are advised to read Chapter 4 o CAP 637, just in case a question comes up in the examination.
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Questions Questions 1.
How are the runways designated at an aerodrome where there are three parallel runways?
a. b. c. d. 2.
Runway threshold marking consists o a number o stripes. How many stripes are there or a runway width o 60 metres?
a. b. c. d. 3.
Q u e s t i o n s
6.
50 m. 35 m. 40 m. 75 m.
Which o the ollowing statements are correct?
a. b. c. d.
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Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow. Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved or runways. A clearway has the same unction as a RESA. The pairs o touchdown zone markings are separated rom each other by 120 metres.
I a runway is 2000 m in length, how close to the runway centre line is the nearest taxiway holding point?
a. b. c. d. 7.
a closed runway. a runway which is 2400 metres or longer. a displaced threshold. a runway available or circling to land approaches.
Which o the ollowing statements is correct?
a. b. c. d.
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A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with:
a. b. c. d. 5.
6 8 12 16
Touchdown zone markings are set out in pairs. How many such pairs are required or a runway o 2400 m or more?
a. b. c. d. 4.
02; 03; and 04. The QDM or the third runway will be increased by 10°. The L and R runways will have different QDM. The QDM with ‘L’; ‘C’ and ‘R’ added.
Runway markings are white and taxiway markings are yellow. Runway and taxiway markings are white. Runway and taxiway markings are yellow. Runway markings are yellow and taxiway markings are white.
Questions 8.
On an instrument approach runway which is more than 2400 m long there will be:
a. b. c. d. 9.
an aiming point marking and centre line markings only. touchdown zone markings and centre line markings only. aiming point markings and touchdown zone markings. an aiming point marking 150 m rom the threshold.
Which o the ollowing concerning aerodrome signs is correct?
a. b. c. d. 10.
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Mandatory signs: Black background with red inscription. Inormation signs: Black or yellow background with black or yellow inscription. Mandatory signs: Red background with black inscription. Inormation signs: Orange background with black inscription.
Where fixed distance marking is provided, this shall commence:
a. b. c. d.
at 100 m rom the ar end threshold. at 150 m rom the ar end threshold. at 300 m rom the ar end threshold. at 500 m rom the ar end threshold.
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Chapter
21 Aerodrome Lighting
Aerodrome Lights. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 419 Approach Lighting Systems. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 420 Taxiway Lighting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 429 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Aerodrome Lights 21.1 Introduction. The prousion o lights on an aerodrome can be both conusing and disorientating, but each light or lighting system has a purp ose and most are to do with aircraf saety. In this chapter the various lighting systems are described and their uses explained. The learning objectives state that knowledge o lighting systems is required, but the spacing o lights or groups o lights (excluding approach lighting systems) is outside the scope o the course. The design o lighting systems is also beyond this course. It is an unortunate act o lie that there is no standard system o lighting in use although ICAO has laid down the standards and recommended practices in Annex 14. 21.2 Aircraf Saety. A non-aeronautical light near an aerodrome which might endanger the saety o an aircraf is to be extinguished, screened or otherwise modified so as to eliminate the source o danger. 21.3 Elevated Lights. Elevated runway, stopway and taxiway lights shall be rangible. Their height shall be sufficiently low to preserve clearance or propellers and or the engine p ods o jet aircraf. Where not sufficiently conspicuous, they are to be suitably marked. 21.4 Light Intensity. In poor visibility conditions by day, lights can be more effective than markings. For lights to be effective in such conditions or in poor visibility by night, they must be o adequate intensity. To obtain the required intensity, it will usually be necessary to make the light directional, in which case the arcs over which the light show will have to be adequate and so orientated as to meet the operational requirements. The runway lighting system will have to be considered as a whole, to ensure that the relative light intensities are suitably matched to the same end. The intensity o runway lighting shall be adequate or the minimum conditions o visibility in ambient light in which use o the runway is intended, and compatible with that o the nearest section o the approach lighting system when provided. While the lights o an approach lighting system may be o higher intensity than the runway lighting, it is good practice to avoid abrupt changes in intensity as these could give a pilot a alse impression that the visibility is changing during approach. 21.5 Intensity Control. Where a high intensity lighting system is p rovided, a suitable intensity control shall be incorporated to allow or adjustment o the light intensity to meet the prevailing conditions. Separate intensity controls or other suitable methods shall be provided to ensure that the ollowing systems, when installed, can be operated at compatible intensities:
• • • • • • •
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approach lighting system runway edge lights runway threshold lights runway end lights runway centre line lights runway touchdown zone lights taxiway centre line lights
21.6 Availability. Lights may be turned off providing that they can be turned on again within a period o 1 hour. 21.7 Emergency Lights. Normally, an aerodrome will have an alternate power supply to cope with general power ailures. Where no such back-up supply exists, emergency lights are to be available or at least the primary runway.
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Aerodrome Lighting 21.8 Aeronautical Beacons. Where operationally necessary an aerodrome beacon or an identification beacon is to be provided where the aerodrome is intended or use at night. The need or a beacon is to be determined having regard to the requirements o the air traffic using the aerodrome, the conspicuity o the aerodrome eatures in relation to its surroundings and the installation o other visual and non-visual aids useul in locating the aerodrome. 21.9 Aerodrome Beacon. An aerodrome beacon shows ‘flashes’ o light. For land aerodromes the colours are white or white and green and or water aerodromes, white or white and yellow. Beacons are to be provided at an aerodrome intended or use at night i one or more o the ollowing conditions exist:
• Aircraf navigate predominantly by visual means; • Reduced visibilities are requent; or • It is difficult to locate the aerodrome rom the air due to surrounding lights or terrain. 21.10 Identification Beacon. An identification beacon is provided at an aerodrome which is intended or use at night and cannot be easily identified rom the air by any other means. An identification beacon will show Morse code identification o the aerodrome in flashing green at a land aerodrome (red at a UK military aerodrome) and flashing yellow at a water aerodrome.
Approach Lighting Systems 21.11 General. Approach lighting systems are patterns o fixed lights o variable intensity, showing white, designed to give the pilot guidance to the threshold (or aiming point) o a runway, in poor visibility or at night. The light patterns may include distance coding and give an indication o aircraf attitude. The arrangement may also give an indication o aircraf height above the approach plane. Systems can range in complexity rom a simple centre line and crossbar, to the highly intricate layouts associated with Cat III precision instrument approach systems. The determination o the visual criteria or landing can be met by the visual acquisition o the approach light system and the design must cater or the requirement o the most restrictive decision heights and minimum descent heights. The primary unit o design is the length o the segments, set by ICAO at 300 m. Any ILS or MLS azimuth antenna protruding through the plane o the lights shall be treated as an obstacle and marked and lit accordingly. 2 1
21.12 Calver t Systems. Generally used in the UK and occasionally in other par ts o the world, Calvert systems (named afer the inventor) consist o 5 bars and a distance coded centre line. A NATO system is similar but does not have the distance coding o the centre line.
A e r o d r o m e L i g h t i n g
21.13 Barrettes. The individual lights that make up the lighting systems may be arranged either as single light units (as in the Calvert method) or in the orm o groups o three or more lights arranged as a bar (the ICAO method). For instance the centre line o a system may consist o either single point source lights or a bar o 5 lights close together. The arrangement o 3 lights or more close together is called a ‘barrette’ (pronounced barre - et meaning small bar). They are called barrettes so that they are not conused with the bar constituent parts o any approach lighting system.
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Aerodrome Lighting
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21.14 Simple Approach Lighting System. A simple approach lighting system consists o a row o lights on the extended centre line o the runway extending, whenever possible, over a distance o not less than 420 m rom the threshold with a row o lights orming a crossbar 18 m or 30 m in length at a distance o 300 m rom the threshold. The lights orming the crossbar shall be as nearly as practicable in a horizontal straight line at right angles to, and bisected by, the line o the centre line lights. This type o system is used on a non-instrument runway and may be used on a non-precision instrument runway.
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Figure 21.1 Simple approach lighting system
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Aerodrome Lighting 21.15 Precision Approach CAT I Lighting System. A precision approach category I lighting system consists o a row o lights on the extended centre line o the runway extending, wherever possible, over a distance o 900 m rom the runway threshold. I the length is less than 900 m (which on a 3° glide path coincides with CAT I system minima - 200 f) it is possible that an aircraf may not be over the approach lighting at DH. The 5 crossbars are 150 m apart and orm three segments: the inner segment (0 - 300 m); the middle segment (300 - 600 m); and the outer segment (600 - 900 m). Any ILS or MLS azimuth antenna protruding through the plane o the lights will be treated as an obstacle and marked and lit accordingly.
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Figure 21.2 CAT I Calvert 5 bar and centre line system
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21.16 ICAO Precision Approach CAT I Lighting System. In this arrangement, the centre line is in the orm o barrettes with only one crossbar at 300 m rom the threshold. Again, the centre line should be 900 m in length. The centre line may be augmented with strobe lights that ‘ripple’ towards the threshold rom the start o the centre line. The visibility o the threshold may be enhanced by the use o wing strobes (rotating).
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Figure 21.3 ICAO CAT I approach lighting system
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Aerodrome Lighting 21.17 Precision Approach Category II/III Lighting System. At those aerodromes where Cat II and III approaches are conducted more complex approach lighting system are installed to enhance the possibility o the pilot achieving the visual criteria at DH to complete the landing. The systems used are various but all are based on either the Calvert 5 bar and centre line system, or the ICAO barrette system. Both systems should be 900 m long and provide some element o attitude inormation. In both the Calvert and the ICAO systems the inner segment (0 - 300 m rom the threshold) is augmented by the supplementary approach lighting. This consists o replacing the centre line o the Calvert system with barrettes and adding red wing barrettes to both systems. The effect is to enhance the visibility and conspicuity o the inner segment. DH or Cat II is not lower than 100 f which equates to 300 m rom the threshold (assuming the pilot crosses the threshold at 50 f).
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Figure 21.4 Approach & runway Cat II/III lighting system
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Figure 21.5 ICAO Cat II/III approach lighting system
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© L ten Hoopen Figure 21.6 Calvert Cat II/III system at Cork
21.18 Precision Approach Path Indicators (PAPI). As an additional aid to a precision approach, glide path guidance is provided during the visual p hase (afer DH) by the PAPI lighting system. This consists o 4 light units showing either red or white light through precision defined angles. Each light unit is set to a different mid angle and below that angle shows red and above shows white. The overall effect is to give a reerence to the median angle which is set to the required glide path (e.g. 3°). ICAO define PAPI as “A wing bar o 4 lights uniormally spaced”.
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Installation by: Godrey Systems International, Inc Figure 21.7 Precision approach path indicators (PAPI)
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21.19 PAPI Indications. The possible combinations o the 4 light sets give 5 di fferent indications relating to the aircraf position (correctly, the pilot’s eye) with respect to the defined glide path.
PAPIs Well above
On or close to the glide path
Slightly above
Slightly below
Well below
Figure 21.8 PAPI indications
21.20 Circling Approach. Where the runway is used or circling approaches (visual manoeuvring circling) a PAPI set is placed on either side o the runway. Normally there would only be one set on the lef hand side. This allows the pilot to use the PAPI wing bars as a horizontal reerence or aircraf attitude during the later part o the circling manoeuvre. 21.21 Minimum Eye Height (MEHT). I the PAPI system was located exactly at the threshold o the runway, and the pilot flew a visual approach keeping the aircraf exactly at the ‘on glide path’ position, the wheels o the aircraf would hit the ground beore the aircraf reached the threshold. The distance beore the threshold where the wheels hit the ground would be a unction o the distance rom the pilot’s eye to the bottom o the undercarriage. To overcome this, the visual aiming point (coincident with the PAPI location) is set a distance down the runway. On code 4 instrument runways at least 2400 m in length, the aiming point is set 400 m rom the threshold in which case, or a normal 3° glide path, the pilot’s eye would be 65 f above the surace on crossing the threshold. This assumes that the ‘on glide path’ indication is the ‘mid angle’, when in act it is encompassed in a bandwidth o angles within which the ‘on glide path’ indication is visible. I the height o the pilot’s eye can be established when the aircraf is over the threshold with the lowest possible ‘on glide path’ indication, this could be used to determine i an aircraf can use the PAPI system as set up or that runway. The figure quoted on the ICAO aerodrome chart is the MEHT (minimum eye height) and is printed alongside the location o the PAPI on the chart. During type rating instruction, you will be made aware o the ‘eye to undercarriage’ requirement o the type, so that you can assess the usability o the PAPIs.
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Aerodrome Lighting 21.22 VASI. Standard Visual Approach Slope Indicator. This consists o 2 sets o 3 lights positioned as wing bars. Each set o lights is designed so that the lights appear as either white or red, depending on the angle at which the lights are viewed. When the pilot is approaching the lights on the glide slope the first set o lights appears white and the second set appears red. When both sets appear white, the pilot is flying too high, and when both appear red the approach is too low. VASIs
TOO HIGH
ON GLIDEPATH
TOO LOW
Figure 21.9 VASIs
Runway Lighting 21.23 Runway Edge Lights. Runway edge lights are provided or a runway intended or use at night or or a precision approach runway intended or use by day or night, and should be provided on a runway intended or take-off with an operating minimum below an RVR o the order o 800 m by day. Runway edge lights are placed along the ull length o the runway in two parallel rows equidistant rom the centre line. The lights shall be uniormly spaced. At intersections o runways, lights may be spaced irregularly or omitted, provided that adequate guidance remains available to the pilot. Runway edge lights are fixed, variable intensity white showing in the direction rom which approaches are made. In the case o a displaced threshold, the lights between the beginning o the runway and the displaced threshold show red in the approach direction. A caution zone may be established over the last 600 m (or 1/3 o the runway whichever is least) where the lights are yellow. When the runway edge lights are intended to provide circling guidance, they shall show all round (omni-directional).
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21.24 Runway Threshold and Wing Bar Lights. Runway threshold lights are provided or a runway equipped with runway edge lights (except on a non-instrument or non-precision approach runway where the threshold is displaced and wing bar lights are provided). When the threshold is at the extremity o a runway, the threshold lights are placed in a row at right angles to the runway axis as near to the extremity o the runway as possible. For a displaced threshold, the lights are in the orm o a barrette (wing bar) either side o the displaced threshold. Runway threshold and wing bar lights are to be fixed, unidirectional lights showing green in the direction o approach to the runway. 21.25 Runway Threshold Identification Lights. Used at the threshold o a non-precision runway when additional threshold conspicuity is necessary or where the threshold is permanently displaced. They are flashing white lights unidirectional in the direction o the approach to the runway.
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Aerodrome Lighting
21
21.26 Runway End Lights. Runway end lights are provided or a runway equipped with runway edge lights. Runway end lights are fixed, unidirectional lights showing red in the direction o the runway. Runway end lights are placed in a line at right angles to the runway axis as near to the end o the runway as possible, and should consist o at least six lights. The lights should be either equally spaced between the rows o runway edge lights, or symm etrically disposed about the runway centre line. 21.27 Runway Centre Line Lights. Runway centre line lights are provided on Cat II/III precision approach runways. They should be provided on a Cat I precision approach runway where the width between the runway edge lights is greater than 50 m. Runway centre line lights are to be provided on a runway intended to be used or take-off with an operating minimum below an RVR o the order o 400 m. Runway centre line lights are fixed, variable intensity white. Over the last 900 m rom the runway end, the lights show alternate red and white rom 900 m to 300 m rom the runway end; and all red rom 300 m to the runway end. 21.28 Runway Touchdown Zone Lights. Touchdown zone lights are provided in the touchdown zone o a Cat II/III precision approach runway. Touchdown zone lights extend rom the threshold or a distance o 900 m where the runway is 1800 m or more in length. The lights are arranged in the orm o strips either side o the centre line, the width o the strips is to be the same width as the touchdown zone markings. Touchdown zone lights are fixed, variable intensity, unidirectional showing white. 21.29 Stopway Lights. Stopway lights are provided or a stopway intended or use at night with the lights placed along the ull length o the stopway. Stopway lights shall be fixed, variable intensity, unidirectional lights showing red in the direc tion o the runway. 21.30 Runway Lead-in Lights. Runway lead-in lights provide visual guidance along a specific approach path to aircraf onto where the runway approach lighting is in view. The system may be curved, straight or a combination o both. They consist o groups o at least 3 flashing white lights and, where practical, each group should flash in sequence towards the runway. 21.31 Circling Guidance Lights. Circling guidance lights are provided when existing approach and runway lighting do not permit identification o the runway to an aircraf undertaking a circling approach to land. They may be fixed or flashing white.
Taxiway Lighting
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21.32 Application. Taxiway lighting provides pilots with guidance and inormation during the taxi to and rom the runway. It consists o centre line lights, edge lights, guard lights, and stop lights at holding points. 21.33 Taxiway Edge Lighting. Taxiway edge lighting is provided along the edges o holding bays, de/anti-icing acilities, aprons etc. It is intended or use at night on taxiways not provided with taxiway centre line lighting. I, however, sufficient alternative illumination is available (e.g. stadium lighting) then the edge lights may be dispensed with. Where a runway orms part o a standard taxi route intended or use at night and no taxiway centre line lighting exists, edge lights are to be provided. Taxiway edge lights are fixed, variable intensity omni-directional blue.
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Aerodrome Lighting
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Figure 21.10 Arrangements o runway and taxiway lighting
430
Aerodrome Lighting
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21.34 Taxiway Centre Line Lights. Taxiway centre line lights are provided on an exit taxiway, taxiway and apron intended or use in runway visual range conditions less than a value o 350 m, in such a manner as to provide continuous guidance rom the runway centre line to the point on the apron where aircraf commence manoeuvring or parking. These lights need not be provided where there is a low volume o traffic and taxiway edge lights and centre line marking provide adequate guidance. Taxiway centre line lights shall be provided on a runway orming part o a standard taxiway route and intended or taxiing in runway visual range conditions less than a value o 350 m. Taxiway centre line lights are fixed, variable intensity showing green such that the light is visible only rom the aeroplanes on or in the vicinity o the taxiway. Within the ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area, the centre line lights are alternating green and yellow. This is the same or a high-speed exit. Where aircraf may ollow the same centre line in both directions, all the centre line lights shall show green to aircraf approaching the runway. 21.35 Stop Bars. Stop bars are a row o red lights showing in the direction o taxiing aircraf and when illuminated require the aircraf to stop and not proceed until cleared by ATC. One or more stop bars, as appropriate, should be provided at a taxiway intersection or taxi-holding position when it is desired to supplement markings with lights and to provide traffic control by visual means. A stop bar shall be provided at every taxi-holding position serving a ru nway when it is intended that the runway will be used in runway visual range conditions less than a value o 350 m. Where the normal stop bar lights might be obscured (rom a pilot’s view), or example, by snow or rain, or where a pilot may be required to stop the aircraf in a position close to the lights that they are blocked rom view by the structure o the a ircraf, a pair o elevated lights should be added to each end o the stop bar. 21.36 Intermediate Holding Position Lights. Intermediate Holding Position lights consist o 3 fixed unidirectional lights showing yellow in the direction o approach and at right angles to the taxiway. 21.37 Road-holding Position Lights. Comprise o either : a. a controllable red (stop) / green (go) or b. a flashing red light 21.38 Runway Guard Lights. These are used to warn pilots and drivers o vehicles that they are about to enter an active runway. They are installed at the entrance to runways used in RVR conditions less than 550 m where a stop bar is not fitted, and in RVR conditions o 550 - 1200 m where traffic density is high. There are two configurations o runway guard lights known as Configuration A and Configuration B. The lights are flashing yellow and show in the direction o taxiing aircraf.
A pair of unidirectional, flashing yellow lights.
Configuration A
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Unidirectional flashing yellow lights spaced at intervals of 3 m.
Configuration B Figure 21.11 Runway and guard lights
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Questions Questions 1.
How many bars are there on a ull Calvert approach light system?
a. b. c. d. 2.
What length should the approach lighting system or a CAT I Calvert design be?
a. b. c. d. 3.
6.
Q u e s t i o n s
White or yellow White Red Blue
An aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is:
a. b. c. d.
432
150 m 200 m 250 m 300 m
What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or predisplaced thresholds?
a. b. c. d. 7.
Omni-directional green Unidirectional green, showing in the direction o the approach Unidirectional white, showing in the direction o the approach Red unidirectional
On a Cat I lighting system, what is the length o the single, double and treble light segments on the centre line o the approach lighting system?
a. b. c. d. 2 1
Unidirectional red Unidirectional white Omni-directional red Omni-directional white
What is the colour o threshold lighting?
a. b. c. d. 5.
900 m 600 m 1200 m 400 m
What colour are runway end lights?
a. b. c. d. 4.
5 4 3 2
blue white green red
Questions 8.
What colour is an aerodrome beacon or a land aerodrome?
a. b. c. d. 9.
b. c. d.
not more than 1 hour beore the ETA o an arriving flight not more than 30 minutes beore the ETA o an arriving flight not more than 5 minutes beore the ETA o an arriving flight not more than 15 minutes beore the ETA o an arriving flight
Taxiway edge lights are:
a. b. c. d. 14.
3 or more single lights close together which appear at a distance to be a short bar Frangible approach lights Lead-in lights Frangible lights
When the lights o an aerodrome are required to be on (night-time etc.) they can only be switched off providing it is possible to switch them on:
a. b. c. d. 13.
300 m 600 m 900 m 1200 m
What is a barrette?
a.
12.
Steady white Flashing white Steady green Flashing green
What is the length o the approach lighting or a CAT I system?
a. b. c. d. 11.
Flashing green Flashing green and white Steady green Flashing red
What is the colour o threshold lights?
a. b. c. d. 10.
21
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fixed showing blue fixed showing green fixed showing yellow flashing showing blue
s n o i t s e u Q
A precision approach Category I lighting system, the centre line and the barrette lights have to be:
a. b. c. d.
flashing green lights or which the intensity o the light is adjustable fixed white lights or which the intensity o the light is adjustable flashing white lights or which the intensity o the light is adjustable fixed green lights or which the intensity o the light is adjustable
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21
Questions 15.
What defines a Calvert type runway approach lighting system?
a. b. c. d. 16.
On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights urthest rom the runway and two red lights closest to the runway. The aircraf is:
a. b. c. d. 17.
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21.
2 sets o 3 lights 3 sets o 3 lights 3 sets o 2 lights 2 sets o 2 lights
What are the characteristics o intermediate holding position lights?
a. b. c. d.
434
Unidirectional flashing green Omni-directional flashing alternate green and red Unidirectional flashing white Omni-directional flashing white
A VASI consists o:
a. b. c. d. 22.
flashing red flashing yellow flashing green steady red
What are the characteristics o runway threshold identification lights?
a. b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only White flashes only Green flashes only Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon
Runway guard lights are:
a. b. c. d. 20.
Precision Approach Path Index Precision Approach Power Indicator Precision Approach Path Indicator Precision Approach Power Index
What is the light indication o a land-based aerodrome beacon?
a. b. c. d. 19.
under the approach glide path above the approach glide path precisely on the glide path on or close to the approach glide path
The abbreviation “PAPI” stands or:
a. b. c. d. 18.
3 crossbars with 3 lighting segments providing centre line lighting 3 crossbars with 2 lighting segments providing centre line lighting 5 crossbars with 2 lighting segments providing centre line lighting 5 crossbars with 3 lighting segments providing centre line lighting
5 fixed unidirectional lights showing yellow 3 fixed unidirectional lights showing yellow Continuous fixed unidirectional lights showing yellow 5 fixed unidirectional lights showing yellow and green
Questions 23.
What are the characteristics o runway lead-in lights?
a. b. c. d. 24.
Groups o at least 3 flashing red lights which flash in sequence towards the runway Groups o at least 5 flashing red lights which flash in sequence towards the runway Groups o at least 3 flashing white lights which flash in sequence towards the runway Groups o at least 5 flashing green lights which flash in sequence towards the runway
What are the characteristics o circling guidance lights?
a. b. c. d. 25.
21
Fixed or flashing red Fixed or flashing white Fixed or flashing green Fixed or flashing blue
What are the characteristics o runway touchdown zone lights?
a. b. c. d.
Fixed variable unidirectional showing alternating white and red Flashing variable unidirectional showing green Fixed variable unidirectional showing red Fixed variable unidirectional showing white
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s n o i t s e u Q
435
21
Answers
Answers 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
a
a
a
b
d
b
c
b
c
c
a
a
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
a
b
d
d
c
a
b
c
a
b
c
b
25 d
2 1
A n s w e r s
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Chapter
22 Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 439 Visual Aids or Denoting Obstacles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 440 Visual Aids or Denoting Restricted Use Areas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 443 Emergency and Other Services . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 444 Other Aerodrome Services . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 445 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
447
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
450
437
22
Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services
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Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services
22
Introduction 22.1 Obstacles. The marking and/or lighting o obstacles is intended to reduce hazards to aircraf by indicating the presence o obstacles. It does not necessarily reduce operating limitations which may be imposed by obstacles. The responsibility or marking/lighting o obstacles on or near aerodromes must be determined between the aerodrome licensee and the owners o the structures. Licensees are responsible or the marking and lighting o all obstacles on the movement area irrespective o ownership. During the establishment o instrument approach and departure procedures, obstacles are identified to allow the calculation o operating minima and obstacle clearance height/altitude. The treatment o obstacles in this chapter is concerned with the identification and marking o obstacles on and in the vicinity o aerodromes, which may be collision hazards to local flying and en route operations. Obstacles inside and outside the aerodrome boundary may result in lim itations on the distance available or take-off and landing and on the range o meteorological conditions in which operations can be undertaken. For these reasons certain areas o local airspace must be regarded as integral parts o the aerodrome environment. The degree o reedom rom obstacles in these areas is as important in the granting and retention o an aerodrome licence as the more obvious physical requirements o the runways and their associated runway strips. 22.2 Obstacle Identification Surace (OIS). Aerodrome obstacles are those obstacles that protrude through the OIS out to a distance o 15 km rom the aerodrome. The obstacles are determined by survey and are detailed in the aerodrome entry in the AIP. The OIS is a complex plane starting with the cleared strip either side o the runway. From the cleared strip, the inner transition plane extends rom surace to 45 m, and extends out to 3000 m rom the edges o the strip. Beyond this, the outer transition plane lifs the OIS to 150 m and extends to the ull 15 km.
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Figure 22.1 Obstacle identification surace (OIS)
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22
Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services Visual Aids for Denoting Obstacles 22.3 Requirement or Marking/Lighting. The marking and/or lighting o obstacles is intended to reduce hazards to aircraf by indicating the presence o the obstacles. Fixed obstacles should be marked and, i the aerodrome is used at night, lit. The marking may be omitted when the obstacle is lit by high intensity obstacle lights by day. 22.4 Obstacle on the Movement Area. Vehicles and other mobile objects excluding aircraf on the movement area o an aerodrome are obstacles and shall be marked and, i the vehicles and aerodrome are used at night or in conditions o low visibilit y, lit. Aircraf servicing equipment and vehicles used only on aprons may be exempt. Elevated aeronautical ground lights within the movement area shall be marked so as to be conspicuous by day. 22.5 Marking o Objects. All fixed objects to be marked shall, whenever practicable, be coloured, but i this is not practicable, markers or flags shall be displayed on or above them. Orange or red colours should be used, except where such colours merge with the background. Against some backgrounds it may be ound necessary to use a different colour rom orange or red to obtain sufficient contrast.
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Figure 22.2 Marking o objects
22.6 Vehicles and Mobile Objects. When mobile objects are marked by colour, a single conspicuous colour, preerably red or yellowish green or emergency vehicles and yellow or service vehicles should be used. Aerodrome operators are responsible or ensuring that vehicles on the movement area o an aerodrome are lit and/or marked as required irrespective o ownership. These include maintenance vehicles, ATC vehicles, ‘Follow Me’ vehicles, aircraf towing vehicles, reuellers etc. Whenever a permitted vehicle is on the movement area the lights are to be switched on. Vehicle obstacle lights are low intensity flashing yellow. The lights specified are to be fitted at the highest point o the p rime mover. Trailers are to be lit with low intensity steady red lights at the highest point. Objects with limited mobility (air bridges etc.) are to be lit with low intensity steady red lights.
440
Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services
22
Figure 22.3 Emergency vehicles
22.7 Emergency Vehicles. Aerodrome ambulances, police/security, fire and rescue appliances should in addition to the requirements o paragraph 22.6 also carry blue flashing lights or use whilst responding to an emergency. Vehicles which are not normally based on the aerodrome (civilian fire/rescue vehicles) when called upon or assistance, are to show flashing blue lights and are to be escorted by vehicles with radio communication with ATC. 22.8 Lighting o Objects. The presence o objects which must be lit shall be indicated by low, medium or high intensity obstacle lights, or a combination o such lights. Note: High- intensity obstacle lights are intended or day use as well as night use.
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Figure 22.4 Methods o obstacle lighting
441
22
Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services 22.9 Low Intensity Lights. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be fixed red lights and have intensity sufficient to ensure conspicuity considering the intensity o the adjacent lights and the general level o illumination against which they would normally be viewed. Low intensity obstacle lights on objects with limited mobility such as aerobridges shall be steady-red. The intensity o the lights shall be sufficient to ensure conspicuity considering the intensity o the adjacent lights and the general levels o illumination against which they would normally be viewed. Where the use o low intensity obstacle lights would be inadequate or an early special warning is required, then medium or high intensity obstacle lights should be used. 22.10 Medium Intensity Lights. Medium intensity obstacle lights shall be flashing red lights, except that when used in conjunction with high intensity obstacle lights they shall be flashing white lights. The flash requency shall be between 20 and 60 per minute. Medium intensity obstacle lights located on an object should flash simultaneously. Medium intensity obstacle lights should be used, either alone or in combination with low intensity obstacle lights, where the object is an extensive one or its height above the level o the surrounding ground is greater than 45 m. 22.11 High Intensity Lights. High intensity obstacle lights shall be flashing white lights. High intensity obstacle lights located on an object shoul d flash simultaneously at a rate between 40 and 60 per minute. High intensity obstacle lights located on a tower should flash sequentially; first the middle light, second the top light and last the bottom light. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence o an object i its height above the level o the surrounding ground exceeds 150 m and an aeronautical study indicates such lights to be essential or the recognition o the object by day. 22.12 Tall Objects. Where an object is indicated by low or medium intensity obstacle lights, and the top o the object is more than 45 m above the level o the surrounding ground or the elevation o tops o nearby buildings (when the object to be marked is surrounded by buildings) additional lights shall be provided at intermediate levels. These additional intermediate lights shall be spaced as equally as practicable, between the top lights and ground level or the level o tops o nearby buildings, as appropriate, with the spacing not exceeding 45 m.
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22.13 Lighting o Aircraf. The lighting o aircraf is detailed at Chapter 6 Rules o the Air. This subject is covered in detail in the OP syllabus. It should be noted that aircraf parked on the manoeuvring area are obstacles and should be lit either by the aircraf navigation lights or by ancillary lighting (anticollision) that determines the extremities o the aeroplane. Figure 22.5 Tall objects
442
Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services
22
22.14 En route Obstacles. Objects located beyond 15 km radius o the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacles to aircraf in flight only i they exceed 150 m in height. Prominent objects o less height may be regarded as obstacles i they are on or adjacent to routes regularly used by helicopters. En route obstacles are usually lit by steady red lights at night and high intensity flashing white lights by day. Environmental considerations may preclude the use o high intensity lights. 22.15 Marking o Overhead Wires or Cables. Overhead wires or cables are marked by coloured spheres.
Visual Aids for Denoting Restricted Use Areas 22.16 Closed Runways and Taxiways. A ‘closed’ marking shall be displayed on a runway or taxiway, or portion thereo, which is permanently closed to the use o all aircraf. A closed marking should be displayed on a temporarily closed runway or taxiway or portion thereo, except when the closing is o short duration and adequate warning by air traffic services is provided. On a runway a ‘closed’ marking shall be placed at each end o the runway, or por tion thereo, declared closed, and additional markings shall be so placed that the maximum interval between markings does not exceed 300 m. On a taxiway a closed marking shall be placed at least at each end o the taxiway or portion thereo closed. The marking shall be white when displayed on a runway and shall be yellow when displayed on a taxiway. (Note: When an area is temporarily closed, rangible barriers or markings utilizing materials other than paint or other suitable means may be used to identiy the closed area). When a runway or taxiway or portion thereo is permanently closed, all normal runway and taxiway markings shall be obliterated. Lightings on a closed runway or taxiway or portion thereo shall not be operated, except as required or maintenance purposes.
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© Susumu Tokunaga Figure 22.6 Closed runway
22.17 Non-load-bearing Suraces. Shoulders or taxiways, holding bays and aprons and other non-load-bearing suraces which cannot readily be distinguished rom load-bearing suraces and which, i used by aircraf, might result in damage to the aircraf shall have the boundary between such areas and the load-bearing sur ace marked by a taxi side stripe marking.
443
22
Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services 22.18 Pre-threshold Area. When the surace beore a threshold is paved and exceeds 60 m in length and is not suitable or normal use by aircraf, the entire length beore the threshold should be marked with a chevron marking. The chevron marking should point in the direction o the runway.
Emergency and Other Services 22.19 Rescue and Fire Fighting (RFF). The principal objective o a RFF service is to save lives. For this reason, the provision o means o dealing with an aircraf accident or incident occurring at, or in the immediate vicinity o, an aerodrome assumes primary importance because it is within this area that there are the greatest opportunities o saving lives. This must assume at all times the possibility o, and need or, extinguishing a fire which may occur either immediately ollowing an aircraf accident or incident, or at any time during rescue operations. The most important actors bearing on effective rescue in a survivable aircraf accident are: the training received, the effectiveness o the equipment and the speed with which personnel and equipment designated or rescue and fire fighting purposes can be put into use. Requirements to combat building and uel arm fires, or to deal with oaming o runways, are not taken into account. Public or private organizations, suitably located and equipped, may be designated to provide the RFF service. It is intended that the fire station housing these organizations be normally located on the aerodrome, although an off-aerodrome location is not precluded provided the response time can be met. 22.20 Level o Protection to be Provided. The level o protection provided at an aerodrome or RFF shall be appropriate to the aerodrome category. Exceptionally, where the number o movements o the aeroplanes in the highest category normally using the aerodrome is less than 700 in the busiest consecutive three months, the level o protection provided may be (rom 1 January 2000) not less than one category below the determined category. The aerodrome category shall be determined rom the table below, based on the longest aeroplanes normally using the aerodrome and uselage width. I, afer selecting the category appropriate to the longest aeroplane’s over-all length that aeroplane’s uselage width is greater than the maximum width or that category then one category higher is used. During anticipated periods o reduced activity, the level o protection available must be no less than that needed or the highest category o aeroplane planned to use the aerodrome during that time irrespective o the number o movements.
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Category
Aeroplane Overall Length
Maximum Fuselage Width
Number o rescue/ fire fighting vehicles
1
0 m up to but not including 9 m
2m
1
2
9 m up to but not including 12 m
2m
1
3
12 m up to but not including 18 m
3m
1
4
18 m up to but not including 24 m
4m
1
5
24 m up to but not including 28 m
4m
1
6
28 m up to but not including 39 m
5m
2
7
39 m up to but not including 49 m
5m
2
8
49 m up to but not including 61 m
7m
3
9
61 m up to but not including 76 m
7m
3
10
76 m up to but not including 90 m
8m
3
Figure 22.7 RFF categories
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22.21 Response Time. The operational objective o the RFF service should be to achieve a response time o not exceeding 3 minutes to the end o each runway, as well as to any other part o the movement area, in optimum conditions o visibility and surace conditions. Response time is considered to be the time between the initial call to the RFF service, and the time when the first responding vehicle is in position to apply oam at a rate o at least 50% o the discharge rate specified. To meet the operational objective as nearly as possible in less than optimum conditions o visibility it may be necessary to provide guidance or RFF vehicles. 22.22 Emergency Access Roads. Emergency access roads should be provided on an aerodrome where terrain conditions permit their construction, so as to acilitate achieving minimum response times. Particular attention should be given to the provision o ready access to approach areas up to 1000 m rom the threshold, or at least within the aerodrome boundary. Where a ence is provided, the need or convenient access to outside areas should be taken into account. Note: Aerodrome service roads may serve as emergency access roads when they are suitably located and constructed. 22.23 Fire Stations. All RFF vehicles should normally be housed in a fire station. Satellite fire stations should be provided whenever the response time cannot be achieved rom a single fire station. The fire station should be located so that the access or RFF vehicles into the runway area is direct and clear, requiring a minimum number o turns. Providing the response time (22.20) can be met, the fire station need not be within the aerodrome confines.
Other Aerodrome Services 22.24 Apron Management Service. When warranted by the volume o traffic and operating conditions, an appropriate Apron Management Service (not to be conused with Ground Control), should be provided on an apron by an aerodrome ATS unit, by the aerodrome operating authority, or by a co-operative combination o these. Commercial operations providing the Apron Management Service also provide reuelling, de-icing, baggage and cargo handling and passenger transportation where busses are used. When the aerodrome control tower does not participate in the apron management service, procedures should be established to acilitate the orderly transition o aircraf between the apron management unit and the aerodrome control tower. Typically, when the flight is ready to depar t, the pilot will call Ground Control and request engine start. This serves not only as a request to actually start the engines, but also to notiy ATC that administratively and rom an engineering point o view, the flight is ready to commence. At this point the tug would be coupled to the aeroplane and the ‘crew chie’ would be on external intercom. The pilot would then request “push back” and when approved the aircraf will move out on to the taxiway. At the same time the engines will be started and when the flight deck crew is satisfied that all is well, the tug will be disconnected and the nose-wheel steering reconnected. When this has been completed the crew chie will confirm that all panels are secure and that he is now unplugging his intercom lead. An apron management service shall be provided with radiotelephony communications acilities. Where low visibility procedures are in effect, persons and vehicles operating on an apron shall be restricted to the essential minimum. An aircraf stand shall be visually monitored to ensure that the recommended clearance distances are provided to an aircraf using the stand. The purpose o the apron management service is to:
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• Regulate movement with the objective o preventing collisions between aircraf, and between aircraf and obstacles; • Regulate entry o aircraf into, and co-ordinate exit o aircraf rom, the apron with the aerodrome control tower, and
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Obstacle Marking and Aerodrome Services • Ensure sae and expeditious movement o vehicles and appropriate regulation o other activities. 22.25 Emergency Vehicles. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency shall be given priority over all other surace movement traffic. A vehicle operating on an apron shall:
• Give way to an emergency vehicle; an aircraf taxiing, about to taxi, or being pushed or towed, and • Give way to other vehicles in accordance with local regulations.
22.26 Ground Servicing to Aircraf. Fire extinguishing equipment suitable or at least initial intervention in the event o a uel fire and personnel trained in its use shall be readily available during the ground servicing o an aircraf, and there shall be a means o quickly summoning the rescue and fire fighting service in the event o a fire or major uel spill. When aircraf reuelling operations take place while passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking, ground equipment shall be positioned so as to allow:
• The use o sufficient number o exits or expeditious evacuation, and • A ready escape route rom each o the exits to be used in an emergency.
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Questions 1.
What is the colour o a low intensity obstacle light?
a. b. c. d. 2.
Low intensity obstruction lights on fixed objects and slow moving objects are:
a. b. c. d. 3.
Flashing yellow. Flashing red. Flashing blue. Steady red.
What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area o an aerodrome?
a. b. c. d. 7.
Obstacle Intererence Slope. Obstacle Identification Surace. Obstacle Inner Surace. Obstacle Identification Slope.
What colour lights are vehicles moving routinely on the aerodrome required to show?
a. b. c. d. 6.
in conjunction with high intensity obstacle lighting. in conjunction with low intensity obstacle lighting. in conjunction with runway obstacle lighting. in conjunction with the approach path obstacle lighting.
OIS stands or:
a. b. c. d. 5.
flashing green. flashing yellow. steady red. steady blue.
Medium intensity obstacle lighting will normally consist o flashing red lights except that they may be flashing white when used:
a. b. c. d. 4.
Blue. Steady red. Yellow. Flashing red.
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Green. Dayglo orange. A single conspicuous colour, preerably red or yellowish green. White and red chequered.
An en route obstacle is located:
a. b. c. d.
within 15 km radius o an aerodrome. outside 5 NM rom the boundary o any controlled airspace. beyond 15 km radius o an aerodrome. in any location that might be encountered during the cruise phase o a flight.
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Questions 8.
An object o limited mobility (an air bridge or example) is lit by:
a. b. c. d. 9.
Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confines o an aerodrome?
a. b. c. d. 10.
b. c. d.
d.
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the overall length o the longest aeroplane. the longest aeroplane maximum width only. the overall length o the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum uselage width. the overall length o the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum uselage weight.
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a. b. c. d.
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Aeroplane reerence field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span o the largest aircraf using that aerodrome. The length o the longest runway and the area to be covered. The overall length and the uselage width o the longest aircraf normally using that aerodrome. The length o the longest runway and total area o hard standings (including access roads).
The aerodrome category or RFF is based on:
a. b. c.
12.
No, providing the response time can be met. Yes. No. No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time o the aerodrome.
The level o rescue and fire fighting (RFF) acilities is dependent upon the category o the aerodrome. What actors determine this category?
a.
11.
low intensity steady red lights. low intensity flashing red lights. medium intensity steady red lights. medium intensity flashing red lights.
flashing white. flashing red. fixed red. fixed orange.
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Chapter
23 Facilitation
Aim. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 453 Entry and Departure o Aircraf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 453 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Aim 23.1 Article 37. The Standards and Recommended Practices on Facilitation contained in Annex 9 are the outcome o Article 37 o the Convention, which provides that the “International Civil Aviation Organization shall adopt and amend rom time to time, as may be necessary, international standards and recommended practices and procedures dealing with customs and immigration procedures and other matters concerned with the saety, regularity and efficiency o air navigation as may rom time to time appear appropriate”. The policy with respect to the implementation by States o the Standards and Recommended Practices on Facilitation is strengthened by Article 22 o the Convention, which expresses the obligation accepted by each Contracting State “to adopt all practicable measures, through the issuance o special regulations or otherwise, to acilitate and expedite navigation by aircraf between the territories o Contracting States, and to prevent unnecessary delays to aircraf, crews, passengers, and cargo, especially in the administration o the laws relating to immigration, quarantine, customs and clearance”, and by Article 23 o the Convention, which expresses the undertaking o each Contracting State “so ar as it may find practicable, to establish customs and immigration procedures affecting international air navigation in accordance with the practices which may be established or recommended rom time to time pursuant to this Convention”. 23.2 Documentation. The documentation required by States or the entry and departure o aircraf, crew and passengers have evolved rom the same documentation required or shipping and much o the terminology has been retained. The rapid movement o aircraf and the philosophy o expediting the movement o aircraf has led to procedures where the old documents are now out o date and, where still necessary, have been replaced by electronic data systems and digital transmission systems.
Entry and Departure of Aircraft 23.3 General. Government regulations and procedures applicable to the clearance o aircraf shall be no less avourable than those applied to other orms o transportation. Contracting States shall adopt procedures or the clearance o aircraf, including those normally applied or aviation security purposes, as well as those appropriate or narcotics control, which will be applied and carried out in such a manner as to retain the advantage o speed inherent in air transport. 23.4 Documents. No documents other than those provided or in Annex 9 shall be required by the public authorities rom operators or the entry and departure o aircraf. Where a Contracting State introduces electronic data interchange (EDI) techniques or a clearance unction, authorities should also execute a plan or migration to complete reliance on the electronic system or the exchange o required inormation with a view towards phasing out the requirement or preparation and exchange o paper documents. I a State permits a traveller to enter that State without a visa (e.g. under the US visa waiver scheme) the State o departure will not require the traveller to obtain any other document relating to the traveller’s identity other than the passport.
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23.5 General Declaration. A general declaration is an internationally recognized orm which contains details o the aircraf (Registration Mark and nationality), the flight number, date and place o departure, and destination. It also contains details o the flight routing and the number o crew and passengers boarding and disembarking at the various locations. It contains a health declaration and a certificate signed by the PIC or an authorized agent. It is the eventual aim to eliminate rom the general declaration, any reerence to passengers.
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Figure 23.1 General declaration
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Contracting States will not require the presentation o the General Declaration when this inormation can be readily obtained in an alternative and acceptable manner. A Contracting State which continues to require the presentation o the General Declaration shall accept it when signed by either the authorized agent or the pilot-in-command, but may, when necessary, require the health section thereo to be signed by a crew member when the General Declaration itsel has been signed by a non-crew member. Where Contracting States require the presentation on entry and departure o aircraf o inormation relating to crew members, such inormation shall be limited to the number o crew on board. Where the General Declaration continues to be required, this inormation shall be provided in the column headed “Total number o crew”. 23.6 Maniests. In addition to the General Declaration, Passenger and Cargo maniests are additional internationally recognized documents that detail names o passengers and the nature o goods and number o packages embarked on the aeroplane. When a Contracting State has eliminated the Passenger Maniest and no longer requires the General Declaration (except or purposes o attestation) it shall accept, at the option o the operator, either a General Declaration or an appropriate attestation, signed by the authorized agent or pilot-incommand, on one page only o the Cargo Maniest. The attestation on the Cargo Maniest can be provided by means o a rubber stamp. The inormation contained in the Cargo Maniest are details o: The Airway Bill number, the number o packages and the nature o the goods.
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Figure 23.2
23.7 Passenger Baggage. Contracting States shall not require the presentation o a list o the number o pieces o accompanied baggage. Operators carrying baggage shall, upon request rom the authorities, provide them with any available inormation where it has not otherwise been provided or customs clearance purposes by the passenger. Unaccompanied baggage may be cleared using a simplified procedure.
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Facilitation 23.8 Stores List. This details the goods (whether or not sold) intended or the consumption o passengers and crew as well as goods necessary or the operation and maintenance o the aircraf, including uel and lubricants. 23.9 Unaccompanied Baggage. Unaccompanied baggage is cleared under procedures applicable to cargo but in accordance with a simplified procedure. 23.10 Oral Declaration. An oral (spoken) declaration is acceptable concerning the content o crew and passenger baggage. A random inspection o baggage is acceptable. 23.11 Completion o Documents. Documents may be typewritten, produced in electronic data orm or handwritten in ink or indelible pencil, providing it is in a legible orm (block capitals). 23.12 Number and type o documents required. States are not to require rom Operators more than 3 copies o the General Declaration, 3 copies o the Cargo Maniest and 3 copies o the General Stores List 23.13 Advanced Notification o Arrival. Where non-scheduled flights are made by an aircraf registered in an ICAO Contracting State which wishes to land in another Contracting State or non traffic purposes (2nd reedom flight), the submission o a flight plan is considered sufficient advanced notification to the State o Landing that the flight is to be conducted. However, the authority o State o Landing will accept that flight providing the flight plan is received at least two hours in advance o the arrival and that landing occurs at a previously designated international airport. Where such addressees are required to be notified (customs, immigration, police etc.) the flight plan is to be add ressed to the appropriate authorities o the State concerned. 23.14 Crew and Other Operators’ Personnel. Contracting States shall ensure that when inspection o crew members and their baggage is required on arrival or departure, such inspection shall be carried out as expeditiously as possible. Contracting States shall provide acilities which will enable crew members o their airlines to obtain without delay and without charge, crew members’ certificates (CMC), valid or the crew members’ term o employment. Note: The CMC was developed as a card or use or identification purposes by both flight crew and cabin attendants, leaving the crew licences to serve their primary purpose o attesting to the proessional qualifications o the flight crew.
In the case o airline flight crew and cabin attendants who retain their crew member cer tificates in their possession when embarking and disembarking, remain at the airport where the aircraf has stopped or within the confines o cities adjacent thereto, and depart on the same aircraf or their next regularly scheduled flight, each Contracting State shall accept a crew member certificate or temporary admission to the State and shall not require a passport or visa, (see Notes).
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Note 1: It is the intent o this provision that a crew member cer tificate shall be recognized as a satisactory identity document even i the holder is not a national o the State o Registry o the aircraf on which he serves. It is not desired to discourage Contracting States rom issuing such crew member certificates to resident alien crew members i they are willing to do so. Note 2: The implementation o this permits rapid and efficient disposition o personnel by airlines. The ull benefit cannot be derived rom these provisions while some States withhold acceptance o them.
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23.15 Non-scheduled Operations. Each Contracting State shall extend privileges o temporary admission to flight crew and cabin attendants o an aircraf operated or remuneration or hire but not engaged in scheduled international air services, subject to the requirement that such flight crew and cabin attendants must depart on the aircraf on its first flight out o the territory o the State. 23.16 Transit Passengers. Passengers may remain in a transit lounge or a maximum o 2 days. 23.17 Freedom rom Duty. An aircraf which is not engaged in international scheduled air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport in a Contracting State, and is admitted temporarily ree o duty, shall be allowed to remain in that State or a period o time as established by the State. 23.18 Responsibility o the Operator or Custody and Care o Passengers. The responsibility o the Operator or custody and care o passengers and crew members shall terminate rom the moment such persons have been admitted into that State.
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Questions Questions 1.
The documents which allow an aircraf entry to a country:
a. b. c. d. 2.
Can an oral declaration concerning the passenger or crew baggage be acceptable?
a. b. c. d. 3.
6.
Q u e s t i o n s
Annex 6. Annex 15. Annex 9. Annex 8.
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required o him, Contracting States:
a. b. c. d.
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at least 2 hours in advance o arrival. at least 4 hours in advance o arrival. at least 1 hour in advance o arrival. at least 12 hours in advance o the planned ETA.
The ICAO annex which deals with the entry and departure o persons and their baggage or international flights is:
a. b. c. d. 2 3
the pilot-in-command only. the pilot-in-command or the Agent. any flight crew member. the Operator.
Where an aircraf registered in a Contracting State is making a flight over oreign territory or non-commercial purposes or is landing or non-traffic purposes, advanced notification is to be given to the oreign State. The inormation is to be received:
a. b. c. d. 5.
Never. Yes. Only crew baggage. Only passenger baggage.
The General Declaration is signed by the:
a. b. c. d. 4.
must be typewritten. can be hand-written in block capitals in ink or indelible pencil. are accepted at the discretion o the State o arrival. must be typewritten or sent in electronic data ormat.
shall not require the traveller to obtain any other identity document beore boarding the aeroplane. may require the traveller to obtain any other identity document beore boarding the aeroplane. in certain cases may require additional identification documents. none o the above answers is correct.
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Chapter
24 Search and Rescue
Definitions and Abbreviations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 463 Establishment and Provision o SAR Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 463 Co-operation between States . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 464 Operating Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 464 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Definitions and Abbreviations 24.1
Definitions. The ollowing definitions are required knowledge. Item
Definition
Alert phase
A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the saety o an aircraf and its occupants.
Distress phase
A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aircraf and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
Emergency phase
A generic term meaning, as the case may be, uncertainty phase, alert phase or distress phase. ATS shall immediately notiy the RCC ollowing activation o the Emergency phase.
Operator
A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraf operation.
Pilot-in-command (PIC)
The pilot responsible or the operation and saety o the aircraf during flight time.
Rescue co-ordination centre (RCC)
A unit responsible or promoting efficient organization o SAR service and or co-ordinating the conduct o SAR operations within a SAR region.
State o Registry Uncertainty phase
The State on whose register the aircraf is entered. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the saety o an aircraf and its occupants.
Establishment and Provision of SAR Service 24.2 Basis o Establishment. Contracting States shall arrange or the establishment and provision o SAR services within their territories. Such services shall be provided on a 24 hour basis. In providing assistance to aircraf in distress and to survivors o aircraf accidents, Contracting States shall do so regardless o the nationality o such aircraf or survi vors. 24.3 Establishment o SAR Regions. Contracting States shall delineate the SAR regions within which they will provide SAR service. Such regions shall not overlap. Boundaries o SAR regions should, in so ar as is reasonably practicable, be coincident with the boundaries o corresponding flight inormation regions.
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24.4 Establishment and Designation o SAR Service Units. Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC) in each SAR region. Contracting States should establish rescue sub-centres whenever this would improve the efficiency o SAR services. The organization o SAR services is the responsibility o the RCC and any subcentres established. In areas where public telecommunications acilities would not permit persons observing an aircraf in emergency to notiy the rescue co-ordination centre concerned directly and promptly, Contracting States should designate suitable units o public or private services as alerting posts.
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Search and Rescue Co-operation between States 24.5 Requirement. Contracting States shall co-ordinate their SAR organizations with those o neighbouring Contracting States. Contracting States should, in so ar as practicable, develop common SAR procedures to acilitate co-ordination o SAR operations with those o neighbouring States. Subject to such conditions as may be prescribed by its own authorities, a Contracting State shall permit immediate entry into its territory o rescue units o other States or the purpose o searching or the site o aircraf incidents and rescuing survivors o such accidents. The authorities o a Contracting State which wishes its rescue units to enter the territory o another Contracting State or SAR purposes shall transmit a request, giving ull details o the projected mission and the need or it, to the rescue co-ordination centre o the State concerned or to such other authority as has been designated by that State. The authorities o Contracting States shall:
• Immediately acknowledge the receipt o such a request, and • As soon as possible indicate the conditions, i any, under which the projected mission may be undertaken; 24.6 Agreement with Other States. Contracting States should enter into agreements with neighbouring States setting orth the conditions or entry o each other’s rescue units into their respective territories. These agreements should also provide or expediting entry o such units with the least possible ormalities. Each Contracting State should authorize its rescue coordination centres to:
• request rom other rescue co-ordination centres such assistance, including aircraf, vessels, personnel or equipment, as may be needed; • grant any necessary permission or the entry o such aircraf, vessels, personnel or equipment into its territory; and • make the necessary arrangements with the appropriate customs, immigration or other authorities with a view to expediting such entry. 24.7 Assistance to Other States. Each Contracting State should authorize its rescue coordination centres to provide, when requested, assistance to other rescue co-ordination centres, including assistance in the orm o aircraf, vessels, personnel or equipment.
Operating Procedures 24.8 Inormation Concerning Emergencies. Contracting States should encourage any person observing an accident or having reason to believe that an aircraf is in an emergency to give immediately all available inormation to the appropriate alerting post or to the rescue co-ordination centre concerned. Any authority or any element o the SAR organization having reason to believe that an aircraf is in an emergency shall give immediately all available inormation to the rescue co-ordination centre concerned. Rescue co-ordination centres shall, immediately upon receipt o inormation concerning aircraf in emergency, evaluate such inormation and determine the extent o the operation required. When inormation concerning aircraf in emergency is received rom other sources than air traffic service units, the rescue coordination centre shall determine to which emergency phase the situation corresponds and shall apply the procedures applicable to that phase.
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24.9 First Aircraf on Scene. I the first aircraf to reach the scene o an accident is not a SAR aircraf the PIC o that aircraf shall take charge o on-scene activities o all other aircraf subsequently arriving until the first dedicated SAR aircraf reaches the scene o the accident. I, in the meantime, the aircraf is unable to establish communication with the appropriate rescue co-ordination centre or air traffic services unit, it shall, by mutual agreement, hand over to an aircraf capable o establishing and maintaining such communications until the arrival o the first SAR aircraf.
© Ian Older Figure 24.1 RAF Nimrod MR2A used or long range SAR
24.10 Direction o Surace Craf. When it is necessary or an aircraf to direct a surace craf to the place where an aircraf or surace craf is in distress, the aircraf shall do so by transmitting precise instructions by any means at its disposal. All ships at sea maintain a radio watch on the HF Maritime Distress and calling requency 2182 kHz (2.182 MHz). In coastal waters, all shipping maintains a watch on VHF FM Chan 16. Aircraf do not normally carry VHF FM transmitters but may be able to relay through Coast Guard units or coastal radio stations. I no radio communication can be established, the aircraf shall use the appropriate signal to attract the attention o the vessel. I the PIC can identiy the vessel by name and port o registration (painted on the stern), the RCC can pass messages to the vessel through the maritime communications system. 24.11 Communication with Survivors. When it is necessary or an aircraf to convey inormation to survivors or sur ace rescue units, and two way communication is not available, it shall, i practicable, drop communication equipment that would enable direct contact to be established, or convey the inormation by dropping the message. When a ground signal has been displayed, the aircraf shall indicate whether the signal has been understood or not. 4 2 e u c s e R d n a h c r a e S
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Search and Rescue 24.12 Signals with Surace Aircraf. The ollowing manoeuvres perormed in sequence by an aircraf mean that the aircraf wishes to direct a surace craf towards an aircraf or a surace craf in distress (repetition o such manoeuvres has the same meaning):
• Circling the surace craf at least once • Crossing the projected course o the surace craf close ahead at low altitude and: • Rocking the wings; or • Opening and closing the throttle; or • Changing the propeller pitch. • Heading in the direction in which the surace craf is to be directed. 24.13 Assistance No Longer Required. I assistance is no longer required by an aircraf, the aircraf should indicate the act by crossing the wake o the surace craf close astern at a low altitude and rocking the wings; or opening and closing the throttle; or changing the propeller pitch. 24.14 SAR Signals. The signals detailed below shall, when used, have the meaning indicated therein. They shall be used only or the purpose indicated and no other signals likely to be conused with them shall be used. Upon observing any o the signals, aircraf shall take such action as may be required by the interpretation o the signal. 24.15 Ground/Air Visual Signal Code. In order to communicate basic messages and instructions rom ground parties to aircraf, an internationally agreed system o signals has been established. There are two sets: signals rom crash survivors; signals rom search teams. 24.16 Ground/Air Visual Signal Code or Use by Survivors. The ollowing signals may be set out in some orm (marked in snow, oil on sand, burned grass in open areas) to ask or help.
2 4
Message
Symbol
1
Require assistance
V
2
Require medical assistance
X
3
No (negative)
N
4
Yes (affirm)
Y
5
Proceeding in this direction
Figure 24.2 Ground/Air signals rom survivors
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24.17 Ground/Air rom Search Parties. No.
Message
Code Symbol
1
Operation completed
LLL
2
We have ound all personnel
LL
3
We have ound only some personnel
++
4
We are not able to continue. Returning to base
xx
5
Have divided into two groups. Each proceeding in direction indicated
6
Inormation received that aircraf is in this direction
7
Nothing ound. Will continue to search
NN
Figure 24.3
24.18 Air to Ground Signals. To indicate that the ground signals have been understood during the hours o daylight rock the aircraf’s wings; during the normal hours o darkness, flashing on and off twice the aircraf’s landing lights, or i not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights. A lack o this signal rom the aircraf indicates to the ground that their signal has not been understood by the pilot. 24.19 Marking o Droppable Supplies. Packages o supplies to survivors may be dropped rom aircraf. In such circumstances the content o the packages is to be indicated by the attachment o colour coded streamers. Doc 7333 specifies the ollowing:
a. b. c. d.
Red Blue Yellow Black
Medical supplies and first aid equipment. Food and water. Blankets and protective clothing. Miscellaneous equipment such as stoves, axes, cooking utensils, etc.
24.20 Emergency Frequencies. The ollowing are dedicated radio requencies used to communicate Distress, Urgency and Saety messages. You are required to know these.
• • • •
VHF UHF HF SARSAT
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121.500 MHz (Aeronautical mobile emergency VHF) 243.000 MHz (Aeronautical mobile emergency UHF) 2182 kHz (International maritime distress and calling HF) 406 MHz (SAR beacon requency (also radiates on 121.5))
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Questions Questions 1.
I you observe a distress light on the ground at night, you should:
a. b. c. d. 2.
What does the SAR signal “X” on the ground mean?
a. b. c. d. 3.
d.
6
Q u e s t i o n s
Aircraf 1 and 2 wait or aircraf 3 to arrive. Aircraf 2 because he has good communications with ATC. Aircraf 2 until aircraf 3 arrives. Aircraf 1 until aircraf 2 arrives who then passes control to aircraf 3.
Which o the ollowing means ‘Require assistance’?
a. b. c. d.
468
During the hours o operation o an FIR. On a 24 hour basis. 2 hours beore until 2 hours afer the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR. During the hours o both commercial and military air operations within the FIR.
Three aircraf are at the scene o an accident. Aircraf 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraf 2 arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraf 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraf. Who assumes responsibility?
a. b. c. d. 2 4
No 1 assumes command throughout. No 1, ollowed by No 2, ollowed by No 3. No 1, then by discretion (or handover to) No 2, finally No 3 on arrival. No 3 only.
For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State?
a. b. c.
5.
We need help. We are OK. We need medical assistance. We have gone away.
Aircraf No 1 is the first aircraf at the scene o a SAR incident but has no means o contacting the RCC, but No 2 aircraf does and arrives shortly aferwards. Finally No 3 aircraf (a specialist SAR aircraf) arrives on the scene. What is the transer o command sequence?
a. b. c. d. 4.
flash landing lights or navigation lights twice. fly over as low as possible then flash lights. fly in circles above then flash lights. fly a triangular pattern.
Y X R V
Questions 7.
When sighting a distress flare during daytime, you should:
a. b. c. d. 8.
circle once. flash landing lights or navigation lights. rock wings. send the letter ‘R’ in Morse by lights to the downed aircraf.
Who is responsible or the organization o an efficient SAR service?
a. b. c. d. 9.
24
FIC and RCC. RCC and rescue sub-centres. FIC, RCC and ACC. ICAO through regional navigation plans.
What does the SAR ground signal “>” mean?
a. b. c. d.
We have gone south. We need assistance. We need medical assistance. Yes.
4 2
s n o i t s e u Q
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Chapter
25 Security
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 473 Objectives . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
473
Organization . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 474 Preventative Security Measures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 474 Management o Response to Acts o Unlawul Intererence . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 475 Further Security Inormation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 476 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
480
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
484
471
25
Security
2 5 S e c u r i t y
472
Security
25
Introduction Definitions. The ollowing definitions are examinable: Item
Definition
Airside
The movement area o an airport, adjacent terrain and buildings or portions thereo, access to which is controlled (used to be called ‘the aeronautical part’).
Screening
The application o technical or other means which are intended to identiy and/or detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles or substances which may be used to commit an act o unlawul intererence.
Security
Saeguarding civil aviation against acts o unlawul intererence. This objective is achieved by a combination o measures and human and material resources.
Security restricted area
Those areas o the airside o an airport which are identified as priority risk areas where in addition to access control, other security controls are applied. Such areas will normally include all commercial aviation passenger departure areas between the screening point and the aircraf, the ramp, baggage make-up areas, including those where aircraf are being brought into service and screened baggage and cargo are present, cargo sheds, mail centres, airside catering and aircraf cleaning premises.
Unidentified baggage
Baggage at an airport with or without a baggage tag, which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger.
25.1 Annex 17. The annex to the Chicago which contains the SARPs or Security is Annex 17. Inormation applicable to the implementation o security policy is also contained in other ICAO publications.
Objectives 25.2 General. The aim o aviation security shall be to saeguard civil aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence. Saety o passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public shall be the primary objective o each Contracting State in all matters related to saeguarding against acts o unlawul intererence with civil aviation. 25.3 Organization. Each Contracting State shall establish an organization, develop plans and implement procedures, which together provide a standardized level o security or the operation o international flights in normal operating conditions and which are capable o rapid expansion to meet any increased security threat.
5 2 y t i r u c e S
25.4 Facilitation. Each Contracting State should whenever possible arrange or the security measures and procedures to cause a minimum o intererence with, or delay to the activities o, international civil aviation.
473
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Security Organization 25.5 National Organization. Each Contracting State shall establish a national civil aviation security programme the objective o which will be to saeguard civil aviation operations against unlawul intererence, through regulations, practices and procedures which take account o the saety, regularity and efficiency o flights. This will include the designation o an appropriate authority to co-ordinate all security activities, to implement the security programme, to ensure the programme meets the needs o international traffic, to establish airport security committees, to ensure that contingency plans are in place or acts o unlawul intererence, and to ensure training programmes are implemented. The programme may be extended to cover domestic air service. A copy o the programme is to be given to ICAO. 25.6 Airport Design. The State is required to ensure that airport design requirements, including architectural and inrastructure related requirements necessary or the i mplementation o security measures are integrated into the design and construction o new acilities and alterations to existing acilities at airports. 25.7 International Co-operation. The most effective means o combating international terrorism is to act within a co-ordinated ramework and to common standards. Each Contracting State is thereore required to co-operate with other States in order to adapt their respective national civil aviation security programmes as necessary; to make available to other States on request a written version o the appropriate parts o its national civil aviation security programme; to include in its bilateral agreements on air transport, a clause related to aviation security; to ensure that requests rom other States or special security measures in respect o a specific flight or specified flights by operators o such other States, as ar as may be practicable, are met; to co-operate with each other in the development and exchange o inormation concerning training programmes; and to co-operate with other States in the field o research and development o new security equipment whi ch will better satisy international civil aviation security objectives.
Preventative Security Measures 25.8 Prohibited Objects. Each Contracting State shall establish measures to prevent weapons, explosives or any other dangerous devices which may be used to commit an act o unlawul intererence, the carriage or bearing o which is not authorized, rom being introduced, by any means whatsoever, on board an aircraf engaged in international civil aviation. Note: In applying this standard, special attention must be paid to the threat posed by explosive devices concealed in, or using electric, electronic or battery operated items carried as hand baggage and/or in checked baggage. 25.9 Protection o Cargo, Mail and Other Goods. States must protect cargo, mail and other goods by taking the ollowing security controls: 2 5
a. b. c.
S e c u r i t y
Screening prior to being loaded onto the aircraf Approval and security screening o Agents or known consignors Access Control (entry o only authorized personnel)
25.10 Law Enorcement Officers. Contracting States should ensure that the carriage o weapons on board aircraf, by law enorcement officers and other authorized persons, acting in the perormance o their duties, requires special authorization in accordance with the laws o the States involved. The pilot-in-command is notified as to the number o armed persons and their seat location. Additionally, all en route States as well as the departure and destination States and the aerodrome authorities, must approve the transit o armed security personnel.
474
Security
25
25.11 Passengers and Their Baggage. Each Contracting State is required to ensure that adequate measures exist to control the transer and transit o passengers and their cabin baggage to prevent unauthorized articles being taken on board aircraf engaged in international civil aviation. States are also to ensure that there is no possibility o mixing or contact between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to security control, afer the security screening at airports has been applied. I mixing does occur, the passengers and their baggage will be re-screened beore boarding an aeroplane. 25.12 Deportees and Persons in Custody. States are required to establish procedures to ensure that the operator and the PIC are inormed when deportees and persons in custody are travelling so that the appropriate security measures can be enorced. It is normal practice that deportees and persons in custody are embarked first and beore any passengers. Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed or the carriage o deportees and persons in custody. This includes ‘potentially disruptive’ passengers who are obliged to travel because they have been subject o judicial or administrative proceedings. 25.13 Checked Baggage and Other Goods. States are required to establish measures to ensure that operators do not transport the baggage o passengers who are not on board the aeroplane unless the baggage is stowed in separate compartments rom the passengers, and it has been the subject o other security control measures. 25.14 Access. States are required to establish procedures and identification systems to prevent unauthorized access by persons or vehicles to the airside o an aerodrome serving international civil aviation, and other areas o importance to the security o the aerodrome (e.g. ATC etc.).
Management of Response to Acts of Unlawful Interference 25.15 Saety o Passengers and Crew. Each Contracting State shall take adequate measures or the saety o passengers and crew o an aircraf which is subjected to an act o unlawul intererence until their journey can be continued. 25.16 Air Traffic Control. Each Contracting State responsible or providing air traffic services or an aircraf which is the subject o an act o unlawul intererence shall collect all pertinent inormation on the flight o that aircraf and transmit that inormation to all other State responsible or the Air Traffic Services units concerned, including those at the airport o known or presumed destination, so that timely and appropriate saeguarding action may be taken en route and at the aircraf’s known, likely or possible destination. Each Contracting State should ensure that inormation received as a consequence o action taken is distributed lo cally to the Air Traffic Services units concerned, the appropriate airport administrations, the operator and others concerned as soon as practicable. 25.17 Provision o Assistance. Each Contracting State shall provide such assistance to an aircraf subjected to an act o unlawul seizure, including the provision o navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land as may be necessitated by the circumstances.
5 2 y t i r u c e S
25.18 Detention on the Ground. Each Contracting State shall take measures, as it may find practicable, to ensure that an aircraf subjected to an act o unlawul seizure which has landed in its territory is detained on the ground unless its departure is necessitated by the overriding duty to protect human lie, recognizing the impor tance o consultations, wherever practicable, between the State where that aircraf has landed and the State o the operator o the aircraf, and notification by the State where the aircraf has landed to the States o assumed or stated destination. The State is required to make provision or the comort and saety o the crew and passengers until they can continue their journey. 475
25
Security 25.19 Operator Security Programme. Each Contracting State is required to ensure that air transport operators have established, implemented and maintain a written security programme that meets the requirements o the national aviation security programme or that State. Where code sharing is implemented the operator is to ensure/confirm that its par tner airline complies with the operator security programme.
Further Security Information 25.20 Other Annexes and Documents. The content o other ICAO Annexes and Documents relates directly to security. The student is required to revise the ollowing. 25.21 Extracts rom Annex 2 - Rules o the Air
• Unlawul intererence. An aircraf which is being subjected to unlawul intererence shall endeavour to notiy the appropriate ATS unit o this act, any significant circumstances associated therewith and any deviation rom the current flight plan necessitated by the circumstances, in order to enable the ATS unit to give priority to the aircraf and to minimize conflict with other aircraf. The ollowing procedures are intended as guidance or use by aircraf when unlawul intererence occurs and the aircraf is unable to notiy an ATS unit o this act. • Action by PIC. Unless considerations aboard the aircraf dictate otherwise, the pilot-incommand should attempt to continue flying on the assigned track and at the assigned cruising level at least until able to notiy an ATS unit or within radar coverage. • Departure rom assigned track. When an aircraf subjected to an act o unlawul intererence must depart rom its assigned track or its assigned cruising level without being able to make radiotelephony contact with ATS, the pilot-in-command should, wherever possible: • Attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF emergency requency and other appropriate requencies, unless considerations aboard the aircraf dictate otherwise. Other equipment such as on-board transponders, data links, etc should also be used when it is advantageous to do so and circumstances permit; and • Proceed in accordance with applicable special procedures or in-flight contingencies, where such procedures have been established and promulgated. • I no applicable regional procedures have been established, proceed at a level which differs rom the cruising levels normally used or IFR flight in the area by 300 m (1000 f) i above FL290 or by 150 m (500 f) i below FL290.
25.22 Extracts rom Annex 6 - Operation o Aircraf (Part I - International Commercial Air Transport).
2 5 S e c u r i t y
• Security o the flight crew compartment. In all aeroplanes which are equipped with a flight crew compartment door, this door shall be capable o being locked. It shall be lockable rom within the compartment only. • Aeroplane search procedure checklist. An operator shall ensure that there is on board a checklist o the procedures to be ollowed in searching or a bomb in case o suspected sabotage. The checklist shall be supported by guidance on the course o action to be taken should a bomb or suspicious object be ound and inormation on the least-risk bomb location specific to the aeroplane. 476
Security
25
• Training programmes. An operator shall establish and maintain a training programme which enables crew members to act in the most appropriate manner to minimize the consequences o acts o unlawul intererence. An operator shall also establish and maintain a training programme to acquaint appropriate employees with preventive measures and techniques in relation to passengers, baggage, cargo, mail, equipment, stores and supplies, intended or carriage on an aeroplane so that they contribute to the prevention o acts o sabotage or other orms o unlawul intererence. • Reporting acts o unlawul intererence. Following an act o unlawul intererence the pilot-in-command shall submit, without delay, a report o such an act to the designated local authority. • Least-risk bomb location. Specialized means o attenuating and directing the blast should be provided or use at the least-risk bomb location. • Carriage o weapons. Where an operator accepts the carriage o weapons removed rom passengers, the aeroplane should have provision or stowing such weapons in a place so that they are inaccessible to any person during flight time.
25.23 Extracts rom Annex 9 - Facilitation
• Transit and transer o passengers and crew. Contracting States should ensure that physical acilities at airports are provided, where the volume and nature o the traffic so require, whereby crew and passengers in direct transit on the same aircraf, or transerring to other flights, may remain temporarily without being subject to inspection ormalities, except or aviation security measures, or in special circumstances. Note: This provision is not intended to prevent the application o appropriate narcotics control measures. • Inadmissible persons. Where a person is returned to the operator or repatriation to the State o Departure or any other State to which the person is admissible, i that person is inadmissible to the State o Destination, nothing will prevent the operator rom seeking compensation rom the passenger in the State o Departure. • Deportees. Contracting States removing deportees rom their territory are to assume all obligations and costs associated with the removal. • Unruly passengers. Contracting States should ensure that airport and aircraf operators and public authorities provide training to the relevant personnel concerning the identification and management o unruly passengers including recognition and deusing o escalating situations, and crisis containment. 5 2
25.24 Extracts rom the Procedures or Air Navigation Services - Rules o the Air and Air Traffic Services (DOC 4444)
y t i r u c e S
• Emergency procedures. The various circumstances surrounding each emergency situation preclude the establishment o exact detailed procedures to be ollowed. The procedures outlined herein are intended as a general guide to air traffic services personnel. Air traffic control units shall maintain ull and complete co-ordination, and personnel shall use their best judgement in handling emergency situations. To indicate that it is in a state o emergency, an aircraf equipped with an SSR transponder might operate the equipment as ollows:
477
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Security •
Mode A, Code 7700; or Mode A, Code 7500, to indicate specifically that it is being subjected to unlawul intererence.
•
• Priority. An aircraf known or believed to be in a state o emergency, including being subjected to unlawul intererence shall be given priority over other aircraf. • Unlawul intererence. Air traffic services personnel shall be prepared to recognize any indication o the occurrence o unlawul intererence with an aircraf. • Verification o special SSR codes. Whenever unlawul intererence with an aircraf is suspected, and where automatic distinct display o SSR Mode A Code 7500 and Code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to veriy his suspicion by setting the SSR decoder to Mode A Code 7500 and thereafer to Code 7700. An aircraf equipped with an SSR transponder is expected to operate the transponder on Mode A Code 7500 to indicate specifically that it is the subject o unlawul intererence. The aircraf may operate the transponder on Mode A Code 7700, to indicate that it is threatened by grave and imminent danger, and requires immediate assistance. • ATC response. Whenever unlawul intererence with an aircraf is known or suspected, ATS units shall promptly attend to requests by or to anticipated needs o the aircraf, including requests or relevant inormation relating to air navigation acilities, procedures and services along the route o flight and at any aerodrome o intended landing, and shall take such action as is necessary to expedite the conduct o all phases o the flight. ATS units shall also: • Transmit, and continue to transmit, inormation pertinent to the sae conduct o the flight, without expecting a reply rom the aircraf. • Monitor and plot the progress o the flight with the means available, and co-ordinate transer o control with adjacent ATS units without requiring transmissions or other responses rom the aircraf, unless communication with the aircraf remains normal. • Inorm, and continue to keep inormed, appropriate ATS units, including those in adjacent flight inormation regions, which may be concerned with the progress o the flight. Note: In applying this provision, account must be taken o all the actors which may affect the progress o the flight, including uel endurance and the possibility o sudden changes in route and destination. The objective is to provide, as ar in advance as is practicable in the circumstances, each ATS unit with appropriate inormation as to the expected or possible penetration o the aircraf into its area o responsibility.
• Notiy:
2 5 S e c u r i t y
◦
The operator or his designated representative.
◦
The appropriate RCC in accordance with appropriate alerting procedures.
◦
The designated security authority. It is assumed that the designated security authority and/or the operator will in turn notiy other parties concerned in accordance with pre-established procedures.
• Relay appropriate messages, relating to the circumstances associated with the unlawul intererence, between the aircraf and designated authorities.
478
Security
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25.25 Extracts rom Annex 14 - Aerodromes
• Isolated aircraf parking position. An isolated aircraf parking position is to be designated or the parking o aircraf subject to unlawul intererence. The position shall be never less then 100 m rom other parking positions. It is not to be over underground utilities such as gas and aviation uel and where easible electrical or communications cables. 25.26 Taxi Instruction Considerations. When issuing taxiing instructions, ATC must abide by the ollowing considerations:
a.
The aircraf is to remain as ar away rom other aircraf and installations as possible
b.
The taxi route must be specified to the pilot
c.
The taxi route shall be selected with a view to minimizing any security risks to the public, other aircraf and installations
5 2 y t i r u c e S
479
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Questions Questions 1.
When taking firearms on board an aeroplane, carried by an authorized person, who needs to be inormed?
a. b. c. d. 2.
In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean?
a. b. c. d. 3.
Q u e s t i o n s
7.
civil aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence”. international civil aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence”. international aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence”. aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence”.
Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed or the carriage o:
a. b. c. d.
480
the PIC must be inormed. the state o departure must notiy the state o arrival. the state o departure must notiy the airport o arrival. all o the above.
According to Annex 17, security is defined as “a combination o measures and human resources intended to saeguard:
a. b. c. d.
2 5
passengers, cargo and crews or international flights. passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public. crews only or international flights. passengers, cargo and crews or international flights and, at their discretion, all o these or domestic flights.
I armed personnel are to be carried to ensure the saety o an aircraf, then:
a. b. c. d. 6.
all aerial locations within the FIR. at each aerodrome serving international civil aviation. all international airports. all international and commercial airports.
Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to unlawul intererence, to saeguard:
a. b. c. d. 5.
To saeguard civil aviation operations against unlawul intererence. To saeguard civil aviation operations. To saeguard civil aviation operations against hijacking. To saeguard civil aviation operations against terrorism.
ICAO Annex 17 states that each State is responsible or establishing security at:
a. b. c. d. 4.
The commander. The commander and the authority o the state o destination. The authority o the state o destination. The operator.
deportees and people under lawul custody. deportees, people under lawul custody and inadmissibles. only people under lawul custody when physically restrained. only deportees and inadmissibles.
Questions 8.
Airlines are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers which include:
a. b. c. d. 9.
ICAO and other organizations including the Contracting States concerned. ICAO. all Contracting States. ECAC.
Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport o potentially disruptive passengers. These are seen as:
a. b. c. d. 14.
1000. 2500. 3000. 100.
A national civil aviation security programme must be established by:
a. b. c. d. 13.
ICAO and ECAC. ICAO. ECAC. Other States.
An isolated parking area is to be provided or an aircraf subjected to unlawul intererence which is never less than ............ metres rom other parking positions:
a. b. c. d. 12.
permission to land and uel. Air Traffic Services, permission to land and the use o navigational aids. ood and water or the occupants o the aircraf. Air Traffic Services and uel.
To whom does the National Security organization o a state have to make available a written version o its national security programme or civil aviation?
a. b. c. d. 11.
inadmissibles, deportees, persons in custody. persons in custody. inadmissibles, deportees. deportees, persons in custody.
An aircraf subjected to unlawul intererence cannot be denied:
a. b. c. d. 10.
25
none o the answers are correct. deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody. deportees and inadmissible passengers only. deportees and persons in custody. 5 2
The State shall take adequate measures or the saety o passengers and crew o an aircraf subjected to an act o unlawul intererence until:
a. b. c. d.
s n o i t s e u Q
the end o the subsequent investigation. as such time as requested by the passengers and crew. their journey can be continued. they are returned to their country o origin.
481
25
Questions 15.
A person ound to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody o the operator who shall be responsible or:
a. b.
c. d.
2 5
Q u e s t i o n s
482
transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person is admissible at the expense o the operator without redress. transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person is admissible at the expense o the operator. However, nothing precludes the operator rom recovering rom such a person any transportation costs arising rom his/her inadmissibility. returning such a person to their country o origin. returning such a person to their normal residence.
Questions
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Chapter
26 Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 487 Objective o Investigation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 489 Investigations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 489 Serious Incidents . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 490 EU Considerations. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 491 Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
492
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
A i r c r a f t A c c i d e n t a n d I n c i d e n t I n v e s t i g a t i o n
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486
Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
26
Introduction 26.1 Annex 13. The ICAO SARPs or the investigation o aircraf accidents and incidents are contained in Annex 13. 26.2 Applicability. Unless otherwise stated, the specifications or investigations apply to activities ollowing accidents and incidents wherever they occurred. In Annex 13 the specifications concerning the State o the Operator apply only when the aircraf is leased, chartered or interchanged and when that State is not the State o Registry and i it discharges, in respect o the annex, in part or in whole, the unctions and obligations o the State o Registry. 26.3 Accident. An accident is defined as an occurrence associated with the operation o an aircraf which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraf with the intention o flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, in which:
• A person is atally or seriously injured as a result o: • Being in the aircraf, or • Direct contact with any part o the aircraf, including parts which have become detached rom the aircraf, or • Direct exposure to jet blast. Except when the injuries are rom natural causes, sel inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to a stowaway hiding outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew, or • The aircraf sustains damage or structural ailure which: • Adversely affects the structural strength, perormance or flight characteristics o the aircraf, and • Would normally require major repair or replacement o the affected component. Except or engine ailure or damage, when the damage is lim ited to the engine, its cowlings or accessories; or or damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes, airings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraf skin, or
n o i t a g i t s e v n I t n e d i c n I d n a t n e d i c c A t f a r c r i A
• The aircraf is missing or completely inaccessible. Note: The difference between an accident and a serious incident lies only in the result.
6 2
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Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation Definitions. The ollowing additional definitions are required knowledge. Item
Definition
Incident
An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation o an aircraf which affects or could affect the saety o operation.
Investigation
A process conducted or the purpose o accident prevention which includes the gathering and analysis o inormation, the drawing o conclusions, including the determination o causes and, when appropriate, the making o saety recommendations.
Serious incident
An incident involving circumstances indicating that an accident nearly occurred. (Examples given at para 26.9).
An injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which: • Requires hospitalization or more than 48 hours commencing within seven days rom the date the injury was received, and • Results in a racture o any bone (except simple ractures o fingers, toes, or nose), or Serious injury
• Involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon damage, or • Involves injury to an internal organ, or • Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% o the body surace, or • Involves verified exposure to inectious substances or injurious radiation.
A i r c r a f t A c c i d e n t a n d I n c i d e n t I n v e s t i g a t i o n
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488
State o design
The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible or the type design.
State o manuacture
The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible or the final assembly o the aircraf.
State o occurrence
The State in the territory o which an accident or incident occurs.
Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
26
Objective of Investigation 26.4 Objective. The objective o the investigation o an accident or incident shall be the prevention o accidents and incidents. It is not the purpose o this activity to apportion blame or liability.
Investigations 26.5 Responsibility or Instigating an Investigation. Where an accident or serious incident occurs in the territory o a contracting state, the State o Occurrence is to instigate the investigation. I the accident or incident occurred in a non-contracting state, the state o registry should endeavour to instigate an investigation. I the accident or incident occurred outside the territory o any state or the location o the occurrence cannot be determined, the State o Registry is to instigate the investigation. I the State o Occurrence declines to investigate the incident, the State o Registry (or the State o the Operator) may investigate. 26.6 Participation. The State o Registry, the State o the Operator, the State o Design and the State o Manuacture are entitled to be represented at any investigation. Any state, which when requested provides inormation, acilities, or experts to the state conducting the investigation, is entitled to be represented at the investigation. Where the citizens o a state have suffered atalities or serious injuries, that state, i a request has been made, will be permitted to appoint an expert who should be entitled to:
• • • • •
Visit the scene o the accident Have access to the relevant actual inormation Participate in the identification o the victims Assist in questioning survivors who are citizens o that state Receive a copy o the final report
26.7 Final Report. The final report o an investigation o an accident is to be sent with the minimum delay, by the State conducting the investigation to:
• • • • • • •
n o i t a g i t s e v n I t n e d i c n I d n a t n e d i c c A t f a r c r i A
The state that instigated the investigation The state o Registry The state o the Operator The state o Design The state o Manuacture Any state whose citizens have suffer atalities or injuries, and Any state which provided relevant inormation, significant acilities or experts
26.8 ICAO. ICAO is to be notified o any accident or serious incident involving an aircraf with a maximum mass o over 2250 kg. A final report must be sent to ICAO or an aircraf with a maximum mass o more than 5700 kg.
6 2
489
26
Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation Serious Incidents 26.9 Examples. The incidents listed are typical examples o incidents that are likely to be serious incidents. The list is not exhaustive and only serves as guidance to the definition o serious incident.
• Near collisions requiring an avoidance manoeuvre to avoid a collision or an unsae situation or when an avoidance action would have been appropriate. • Controlled flight into terrain only marginally avoided. • Aborted take-offs on a closed or engaged runway. • Take-offs rom a closed or engaged runway with marginal separation rom obstacle(s). • Landings or attempted landings on a closed or engaged runway. • Gross ailures to achieve predicted perormance during take-off or initial climb. • Fires and smoke in the passenger compartment, in cargo compartments or engine fires, even though such fires were extinguished by the use o extinguishing agents. • Events requiring the emergency use o oxygen by the flight crew. • Aircraf structural ailures or engine disintegrations not classified as an accident. • Multiple malunctions o one or more aircraf systems seriously affecting the operation o the aircraf. • Flight crew incapacitation in flight. • Fuel quantity requiring the declaration o an emergency by the pilot. A i r c r a f t A c c i d e n t a n d I n c i d e n t I n v e s t i g a t i o n
• Take-off or landing incidents including undershooting, overrunning or running off the sides o runways. • Systems ailures, weather phenomena, operations outside the approved flight envelope or other occurrences which could have caused difficulties controlling the aircraf. • Failures o more than one system in a redundancy system mandatory or flight guidance and navigation.
2 6
490
Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation
26
EU Considerations 26.10 EU Directive 94/56. This Directive is the EU modification o ICAO Annex 13 with regards to the investigation o accidents. Objective. The Directive aims to improve air saety by acilitating the expeditious holding o investigations, the sole objective o which is the prevention o uture accidents and incidents. It applies to investigations into civil aviation accidents and incidents which have occurred in the territory o the EC or involving aircraf registered in a Member State. Summary. Member States are obliged to investigate every accident or serious incident with the aim o preventing any reoccurrence thereo. Investigation o incidents, other than serious, is also encouraged. The Directive makes clear distinction between liability and technical investigation. The investigations shall in no case be concerned with apportioning blame or liability.
Each Member State shall ensure that technical investigations are conducted or supervised by a permanent and independent Air Accident Investigation Body. The investigators-in-charge shall be able to carry out their task in the most efficient way and within the shortest time. They shall be granted ree access to: • the site o the accident and to the aircraf; • the listing o evidence; • the flight recorders; • the results o examination o the bodies o victims or o tests made on samples taken rom the bodies o victims. Report. Any investigation into an accident shall be the subject o a report which shall contain saety recommendations. The investigating body shall make public the final accident report in the shortest possible time, and i possible within 12 months o the date o the accident.
Member States shall take the necessary measures to ensure that the saety recommendations made by the investigating bodies or entities are duly taken into consideration and acted upon. 26.11
n o i t a g i t s e v n I t n e d i c n I d n a t n e d i c c A t f a r c r i A
EU Directive 2003/42. This Directive concerns itsel with the reporting o occurrences.
Objective. The objective o this Directive is to contribute to the improvement o air saety by ensuring that relevant inormation on saety is reported, collected, stored, protected and disseminated. The sole objective o occurrence reporting is the prevention o accidents and incidents and not to attribute blame or liability. Definition o an occurrence. ‘occurrence’ means an operational interruption, deect, ault or other irregular circumstance that has or may have influenced flight saety and that has not resulted in an accident or serious incident.
6 2
Summary • Member States shall require that occurrences are reported to the competent authorities. • Member States shall designate one or more competent authorities to put in place a mechanism to collect, evaluate, process and store reported occurrences. • Member States shall participate in an exchange o inormation by making all relevant saetyrelated inormation available to the competent authorities o the other Member States and the Commission. • The Directive lists in detail examples o the occurrences that must be reported.
491
26
Questions Questions 1.
An aircraf wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway or take-off and sustains damage. Is this:
a. b. c. d. 2.
Who is responsible or the investigation o an accident?
a. b. c. d. 3.
b. c. d.
Q u e s t i o n s
492
considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to be taken is merely confined to notification o the insurance company, the mechanic, the operator and persons who are in charge o runways and taxiways. this is an accident and the crew should ollow the appropriate procedures. this is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours. this is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inorm the operator about the delay caused by necessary repairs.
Who is entitled to be represented at any investigation?
a. b. c. d.
2 6
apportion blame. to improve manuacturing design. to help judicial proceedings. nothing more.
Just beore arrival at the apron, the aircraf unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride into a pothole. The aircraf has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is orced to delay the departure:
a.
5.
State o Occurrence. State or Registry. ICAO. Combination o A and B.
The purpose o Accident Investigations is the prevention o uture accidents and:
a. b. c. d. 4.
an incident. an accident. a serious incident. a normal operating hazard.
The State o Registry. The State o Design. The State o Manuacture. All the above.
Questions
26
6 2
s n o i t s e u Q
493
26
Answers
Answers
2 6
A n s w e r s
494
1
2
3
4
5
b
d
d
b
d
Chapter
27 Revision Questions
Revision Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 497 Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
522
EASA Specimen Examination. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 523 Answers to Specimen EASA Examination . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 536
495
27
Revision Questions
2 7
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
496
Revision Questions
27
Revision Questions 1.
ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures or passengers with regard to:
a. b. c. d. 2.
Except in special cases, the establishment o change-over points shall be limited to route segments o:
a. b. c. d. 3.
d.
arms repeatedly crossed over the head. arms placed down and crossed in ront o the body moving horizontally. raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in ront o the body. Then clench fist. arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.
When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken rom the beginning o the turn or Cat A and Cat B aircraf is:
a. b. c. d. 6.
1000 f and less than 8 km visibility. 2000 f and less than 5 km visibility. 1500 f or less than 5 km visibility. 1000 f and less than 5 km visibility.
When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the ollowing signal:
a. b. c.
5.
100 NM or more. 75 NM or more. 60 NM or more. 50 NM or more.
Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than:
a. b. c. d. 4.
cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design. cabin baggage and checked baggage. passenger baggage. cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control.
1 minute 30 seconds. 1 minute. 1 minute 15 seconds. 2 minutes.
Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:
a. b. c. d.
heading. track. course. bearing.
7 2
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
497
27
Revision Questions 7.
When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:
a. b. c. d. 8.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment where the aircraf is lined up with the runway centre line and when the decent is commenced is called:
a. b. c. d. 9.
d.
13.
498
250 kt or IFR and VFR, below FL100. 250 kt or IFR only, below FL195. 250 kt or IFR and VFR, at all altitudes. 250 kt or IFR only, below FL100.
Who has the final authority as to the disposition o the aircraf?
a. b. c. d.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
Airspace E. Airspace B. Airspace A. Airspace D.
The speed limit (IAS) in airspace E is:
a. b. c. d.
2 7
Return to the aerodrome rom which you departed. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible. Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions. Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA.
An ATS airspace, in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights receive air traffic control service; IFR flights are separated rom other IFR flights and receive traffic inormation concerning VFR flights and VFR flights receive traffic inormation concerning all other flights, is classified as:
a. b. c. d. 12.
distance end o route. departure end o runway. distance end o runway. departure end o route.
What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio ailure?
a. b. c.
11.
intermediate approach segment. initial approach segment. arrival segment. final approach segment.
What does DER mean?
a. b. c. d. 10.
only use the word “wilco”. only read back the code. only use the word “roger”. read back mode and code.
The State. The Operator. The Commander. The owner.
Revision Questions 14.
Who is responsible or the saety o an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance?
a. b. c. d. 15.
15 seconds o UTC. 10 seconds o UTC. 30 seconds o UTC. 1 minute o UTC.
In order to satisy lateral track separation between aircraf using the same fix and Dead Reckoning, the aircraf:
a. b. c. d. 20.
the last 2 NM o the approach. the last 5 NM o the approach. the last 4 NM o the approach. the last 3 NM o the approach.
Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to give the time within plus or minus:
a. b. c. d. 19.
50 minutes beore off-block time. 60 minutes beore departure. 10 minutes beore departure. 30 minutes beore off-block time.
An aircraf, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraf is not visible on the radar screen or a significant period o time and when it is within:
a. b. c. d. 18.
3 NM between aircraf on the same localizer course. 2 NM between aircraf on the same localizer course. 3 NM between aircraf on adjacent localizer courses. 5 NM between aircraf on the same localizer course.
For a controlled flight beore departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a. b. c. d. 17.
The ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan. The Captain. The Operator o the aircraf. ATC.
In Mode 2 Parallel Runway operations, a minimum radar separation can be provided o:
a. b. c. d. 16.
27
have to fly 45° separated at a distance o 15 miles or more rom the fix. have to fly 45° separated at a distance o 15 NM or more rom the fix. have to fly 30° separated at a distance o 15 NM or more rom the fix. have to fly 30° separated at a distance o 15 miles or more rom the fix.
An aircraf making an approach must be told to make a missed approach, when no landing clearance has been received rom the non-radar traffic controller, when the aircraf is at a distance o:
a. b. c. d.
7 2
5 NM rom the touchdown. 1.5 NM rom the touchdown. 4 NM rom the touchdown. 2 NM rom the touchdown.
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
499
27
Revision Questions 21.
Temporary changes o long duration in specifications or AIP supplements and inormation o short duration, which contains extensive text and / or graphical representation, has to be published as AIP supplements. Long duration is considered to be:
a. b. c. d 22.
How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, whose aircraf on final approach ollows a normal PAPI defined glide-path?
a. b. c. d. 23.
b. c. d.
2 7
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
the operator will not take any transportation costs rom the passenger which arise rom his/her inadmissibility. the operator is not responsible or that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is reused. the operator and state o the operator are both responsible or the reused person. the operator will not be prevented rom taking any transport costs rom a person which arises out o his/her inadmissibility.
An aircraf which is not concerned with regular international flights and which makes a flight to or via a dedicated aerodrome o a member State and is temporarily ree o taxes is admitted and will s tay within that State without paying customs:
a. b. c. d.
500
40 m. 45 m. 50 m. 35 m.
When someone’s admittance to a country is reused and he/she is brought back to the operator or transportation away rom the territory o the state:
a.
26.
protect aircraf during take-off and landing. enable the aircraf to stop in the case o an aborted take-off. enable the aircraf to make a part o the initial climb to a specified altitude. decrease the risk o damage to aircraf which run off the end o the runway.
It says in the annex o the ICAO convention that the sizes o airfields are specified by codes or different runways. What is the minimum width o a runway with runway code 4?
a. b. c. d. 25.
2 none 3 1
A clearway is a squared area that is established to:
a. b. c. d. 24.
3 months or longer. 2 months or longer. 1 year or longer. 6 months or longer.
during a period which is determined by the State. during a period o 24 hours. during a period o 12 hours. during a period o 48 hours.
Revision Questions 27.
An aircraf flies over mountainous terrain at which a search and rescue operation is conducted to find survivors o a plane crash. The pilot sees a ground sign in the orm o an “X”. This indicates:
a. b. c. d. 28.
c. d.
2000 f above the highest obstacle within 8 km o the heading. 1000 f above the highest obstacle within 8 km o the estimated position o the aircraf. 1000 f above the highest obstacle within 8 NM o the planned track. 2000 f above the highest obstacle within 8 NM o the planned track.
An aircraf is expected to overtake another aircraf i it is closing rom behind in a sector o:
a. b. c. d. 32.
codes which are used or identification o ICAO documents. letter combinations beginning with XXX. 3 letter combinations which are used by international code o signals. 5 letter combinations which are used by international code o signals.
What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraf should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed?
a. b.
31.
10%. 3%. 5%. 2%.
Concerning aircraf registration markings, no combinations can be used i they can be mistaken or:
a. b. c. d. 30.
we have ound all personnel. engineering assistance required. landing impossible. require medical assistance.
A controlled flight is required to inorm the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus:
a. b. c. d. 29.
27
50° both sides o the longitudinal axis. 60° both sides o the longitudinal axis. 80° both sides o the longitudinal axis. 70° both sides o the longitudinal axis.
Aircraf A flies in VMC with an ATC clearance within a control area. Aircraf B without ATC clearance approaches at roughly the same height on a converging heading. Who has right o way?
a. b. c. d.
Aircraf A, regardless o the direction rom which B approaches. Aircraf B, regardless o the direction rom which A approaches. Aircraf A, i B is to the right o him. Aircraf B, i A is to the lef o him.
7 2
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
501
27
Revision Questions 33.
The person having overall responsibility o an aircraf during flight is the:
a. b. c. d. 34.
Pilots are not allowed to use the ident unction on their SSR, unless:
a. b. c. d. 35.
c. d.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
502
altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude. flight level on or under the transition altitude. flight level on or under the transition level. altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude.
A manoeuvre where a turn is made rom a “designated track” ollowed by a turn in the opposite direction to enable the aircraf to fly the prescribed track is called a:
a. b. c. d.
2 7
correct or the known wind so as to maintain the published track. ask ATC or another heading to steer correcting or wind. ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track. ask ATC or permission to correct heading or wind.
Close to an aerodrome that will be used or landing by aircraf, the vertical position shall be expressed as:
a. b. c. d. 39.
circling is only permitted in VMC. recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is situated. prohibit a circling approach or the concerned runway. orbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located.
I the track on an instrument departure is published, the pilot is expected to:
a. b. c. d. 38.
will be given by NOTAM. is published on every approach and landing chart or every airfield. will be calculated by the pilot-in-command. will be calculated by the ATC service o an ATS unit.
It is permitted in a particular sector, i there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual manoeuvring area outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the published procedure shall be:
a. b.
37
they operate outside controlled airspace. i asked by ATC. they are within controlled airspace. they operate a transponder with mode C.
Transition Level:
a. b. c. d. 36.
pilot-in-command. operator. ATC Controller i the aircraf is in controlled airspace. owner o the aircraf.
base turn. reverse track. race track. procedure turn.
Revision Questions 40.
The transition rom altitude to flight level and visa versa is made:
a. b. c. d. 41.
d.
b. c. d.
the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan. he/she may request an amended clearance and, i executable, he/she will accept that clearance. he/she may ask or a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/ her that clearance. he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC.
The transition rom IFR to VFR is done:
a. b. c. d. 46.
When the other aircraf has reported to be descending through FL130. When the other aircraf has reported to have lef FL120. When the other aircraf has reported to have lef FL140. When the other aircraf has reached FL70.
When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:
a.
45.
Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Inormation Centres. Flight Inormation Centres and Air Services Reporting offices. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Inormation Centres and Air Traffic Services Reporting offices. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units.
An aircraf is maintaining FL150 in Class C Airspace. Another aircraf below at FL140 receives a clearance to descend to FL70. There is severe turbulence in the area. When at earliest can a clearance be expected to descend to FL140 or lower?
a. b. c. d. 44.
at least 5 minutes beore the ETA o the aircraf. at least 15 minutes beore the ETA o the aircraf. at least 30 minutes beore the ETA o the aircraf. at least 60 minutes beore the ETA o the aircraf.
Air Traffic Service unit consists o:
a. b. c.
43.
on the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent. at the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent. at the transition level only. at the transition altitude only.
Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished i they can be re-lit:
a. b. c. d. 42.
27
on the Captain’s initiative. whenever an aircraf in VMC leaves controlled airspace. i told by ATC. at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation.
According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted with local magnetic variation rom the true wind direction:
a. b. c. d.
7 2
beore landing and taxi or take-off. in anticipation o the upper wind or areas North o 60° N and South o 60° S. when an aircraf is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP. when the local variation is greater than 10° East or West.
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
503
27
Revision Questions 47.
The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraf at the same FL, where there is enough coverage or navigation aids and the preceding aircraf has a higher true airspeed o 20 kt minimum is:
a. b. c. d. 48.
When independent parallel approaches are used on parallel runways and headings (vectors) are given to intercept the ILS, the given heading must be such that the aeroplane can establish on the localizer course or the MLS final approach track in level flight over at least:
a. b. c. d. 49.
b. c. d.
b. c. d. 52.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction o the runway. steady white lights with controllable intensity. steady omni-directional red lights with controllable intensity. steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction o the runway.
An aircraf is allowed to descend below the MSA i:
a. b. c. d.
504
a row o 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance rom each other. two rows o 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance rom each other. a row o 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance rom each other. two rows o 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance rom each other.
Lights at the end o the runway shall be:
a.
2 7
900 m. 600 m. 300 m. 150 m.
A PAPI must consist o:
a.
51.
2.5 NM beore the ILS glide slope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted. 1.5 NM beore the ILS glide slope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted. 3.0 NM beore the ILS glide slope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted. 2.0 NM beore the ILS glide slope or the specified MLS elevation angle is intercepted.
What is the length o the approach lighting system o a Cat II precision landing runway?
a. b. c. d. 50.
3 minutes. 15 minutes. 5 minutes. 10 minutes.
the pilot ollows the published approach procedures. the aircraf receives radar vectors. the pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact. all o the above.
Revision Questions 53.
Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) cannot be used or flights other than those executed requently on the same days o ollowing weeks and:
a. b. c. d. 54.
c. d.
3000 m 3000 f 5000 m 2 NM
A marshaller crosses his/her hands in ront o the ace, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards. What does this signal indicate?
a. b. c. d. 59.
3 4 5 None o the above is correct.
A fixed obstacle that extends above a take-off climb surace within ................... shall be marked and, i the runway is to be used at night, must be lit.
a. b. c. d. 58.
3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes. 2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes. 2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes. 3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes.
The minimum number o rescue and fire fighting vehicles required or a Cat 8 Aerodrome is:
a. b. c. d. 57.
8 km visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL and clear o cloud. 5 NM visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical clear o cloud. 8 km visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical clear o cloud. 5 NM visibility at or above 3050 m AMSL and clear o cloud.
The minimum response time or the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end o each runway as well as to any other part o the movement area is:
a. b. c. d. 56.
or at least 20 occasions or every day over a period o at least 20 consecutive days. or at least 20 consecutive days. or at least 10 occasions or every day over a period o at least 10 consecutive days. or at least 20 occasions.
The VMC minima or a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are:
a. b.
55.
27
Clear to move orward. Brakes off. Remove chocks. Clear to close all engines.
7 2
What is required or an IFR flight in advisory airspace?
a. b. c. d.
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
No flight plan required. Flight plan required and PIC must notiy o any changes regardless i wanting advisory service or not. Flight plan required but PIC need not notiy o any changes. A flight plan is only required i advisory service is required. 505
27
Revision Questions 60.
What is the separation that must be maintained beore intercepting the ILS on an independent parallel approach?
a.. b. c. d. 61.
A Type Rating is applicable to:
a. b. c. d. 62.
b. c. d.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
506
one year one month one week 2 weeks
A check list o AIP Supplements is published:
a. b. c. d.
2 7
To prevent collisions between aircraf, to prevent collisions between aircraf on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow o air traffic. To prevent collisions between controlled aircraf and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow o air traffic. To provide separation o aircraf and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow o air traffic. To provide separation o controlled aircraf and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow o air traffic.
Temporary changes o long duration (3 months or more) and inormation o short duration which contains extensive graphics and/or text are published as AIP Supplements. Check lists o these Supplements which are in orce are sent to recipients at intervals o not more than:
a. b. c. d. 65.
45°. 30°. 15°. 20°.
What are the objectives o ATC Services?
a.
64.
an aircraf requiring a Certificate o Airworthiness. an aircraf with a Certificate o Airworthiness issued by the State. an aircraf that requires multi-pilot operation. an aircraf that requires additional skills training.
I an aircraf is radar vectored to intercept an ILS localizer, what is the maximum intercept angle?
a. b. c. d. 63.
1000 f. 500 f. 330 f. 660 f.
annually. monthly. weekly. every six months.
Revision Questions 66.
A heavy aircraf makes a missed approach on a parallel runway in the opposite direction. A light aircraf has a wake turbulence separation o 2 minutes. This wake turbulence separation will apply when the parallel runways are:
a. b. c. d. 67.
3000 f. 5000 f. when Cb are present. when the cloud base is below MSA.
Which International Agreement relates to Penal Law?
a. b. c. d. 71.
the State o Registration. the State o Registration and the State o the Operator. the State o the Operator. the State o Registry and the State o Design.
ATIS will only broadcast cloud base inormation when the cloud base is:
a. b. c. d. 70.
the take-off run available excluding the clearway. the take-off run available including the clearway. the take-off run available excluding the stopway. the take-off run available only.
The continued validity o a C o A o an aircraf is subject to the laws o:
a. b. c. d. 69.
more than 760 m apart. more than 915 m apart. less than 915 m apart. less than 760 m apart.
A TODA consists o:
a. b. c. d. 68.
27
Tokyo. Montreal. Hague. Rome.
Voice ATIS: 1. 2. 3. 4.
cannot be broadcast on a voice ILS. cannot be broadcast on voice VOR. is broadcast only on a discreet VFH requency. is broadcast on either a discreet VFH, VOR or an ILS requency.
a. b. c. d.
1 only is correct. 2 only is correct. 4 only is correct. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 7 2
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
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Revision Questions 72.
The operator is responsible or the custody and care o the passengers. This responsibility shall terminate:
a. b. c. d. 73.
Fixed distance markers, when provided, shall commence:
a. b. c. d. 74.
78. R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
10 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 15 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 22.5 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 30 NM or turns between 30° and 90°.
An RNP1 route designated as A342Y, indicates that the route is at or above FL200 and all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance o a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius o:
a. b. c. d.
508
We have only ound some personnel. We have ound all personnel. Operation completed. Nothing ound.
An RNP1 route designated as A342Z, indicates that the route is at or below FL190 and all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance o a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius o:
a. b. c. d.
2 7
10.5 m. 15 m. 23 m. 18 m.
What is the meaning o the signal LLL rom search parties?
a. b. c. d. 77.
18 m. 23 m. 30 m. 45 m.
What is the width o a code letter D taxiway used by aircraf with an outer gear wheel span o more than 9 m ?
a. b. c. d. 76.
150 metres rom the threshold 300 metres rom the ar end threshold 300 metres rom the threshold 150 metres rom the ar end threshold
What is the minimum width o a code 4 runway?
a. b. c. d. 75.
rom the moment they have been cleared through customs o the destination State rom the moment they step rom the aircraf onto the passenger exit stairs rom the moment they have been admitted into the destination State rom the moment they step rom the aircraf onto the ground o the destination State
10 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 15 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 22.5 NM or turns between 30° and 90°. 30 NM or turns between 30° and 90°.
Revision Questions 79.
I no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an aerodrome, what should be entered in Box 16 o the Flight Plan?
a. b. c. d. 80.
airway bill number, and the number o packages only. total weight and the number o packages only. total weight and the nature o the goods only. airway bill number, the number o packages and the nature o goods.
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, orwarding and clearance o airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed by:
a. b. c. d. 84.
less than 915 m. more than 760 m. less than 760 m. more than 915 m.
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation o a cargo maniest shall, apart rom the inormation indicated in the heading o the ormat o the cargo maniest, not require more than the ollowing items:
a. b. c. d. 83.
A5555 A5678 A2345 A3333
A separation minima shall be applied between a light or medium aircraf and a heavy and between a light and a medium aircraf when the heavier aircraf is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraf is utilizing an opposite direction runway on a parallel runway separated by:
a. b. c. d. 82.
ZZZZ NNNN A/N A/D XXX
Which o the ollowing is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?
a. b. c. d. 81.
27
the Acts in orce o the Universal Postal Union. the Acts in orce o the General Postal Union. the Acts in orce o the Warsaw Convention. the Acts in orce o the International Postal Union.
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to:
a. b. c. d.
accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different rom that normally applicable to other cargo. cargo. dangerous goods. mail.
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Revision Questions 85.
An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end o the strip, primarily intended to reduce the risk o damage to an aircraf undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined as a:
a. b. c. d. 86.
For an instrument runway, how ar rom the centre line o the runway is a “runway vacated” sign positioned?
a. b. c. d. 87.
b. c. d. 91.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
Descend to Decision Height and i still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach. Land on the instrument runway. Initiate a missed approach. Return to the FAF.
The State o registration is:
a. b. c. d.
510
Cloud ceiling is below 5000 f or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher) Cloud base is below 5000 f or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher) Cloud ceiling is below 1500 f or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher) Cloud base is below 1500 f or the highest MSA (whichever is the higher)
What action should be taken i contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach?
a.
2 7
915 m is established between extended centre lines. 760 m is established between extended centre lines. 1035 m is established between extended centre lines. 610 m wide is established between extended centre lines.
ATIS broadcasts contain cloud details whenever the:
a. b. c. d. 90.
Both a Pattern ‘A’ and ‘B’ holding position. High intensity taxiway centreline lights only. Runway guard lights. Both high intensity taxiway centre line lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights.
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that an NTZ o at least:
a. b. c. d. 89.
To a distance o the nearest Pattern ‘A’ holding position. At the end o the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area. It depends on the Aerodrome Category. 85 m.
What is required i a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and the runway is to be used with RVR o less than 550 m?
a. b. c. d. 88.
clearway. runway strip extension. runway end saety area. altimeter operating area extension.
The State where the aircraf is first registered The State where the aircraf is currently registered The State where the aircraf is finally assembled The State o the owner o the aircraf
Revision Questions 92.
When an aircraf subjected to unlawul intererence has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notiy by the most expeditious means the State o Registry and the State o the Operator o the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant inormation to:
a. b. c. d. 93.
27
each State whose citizens suffered atalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO. ICAO only. each State whose citizens were known to be on board only. ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only.
According to JAR-FCL1, recognized instructor categories are:
a. b. c. d.
FI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) only. FI(A) and CRI(A) only. FI(A) and IRI(A) only. FI(A), TRI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A), MCCI(A) and SFI(A) only.
Note: FI = Flying Instructor, TRI = Type Rating Instructor, CRI = Class Rating Instructor, IRI = Instrument Rating Instructor, MCCI = Multi-crew Co-operation Instructor, SFI = Synthetic Fight Instructor. 94.
When a State renders valid a licence issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance o its own licence, the validity sh all:
a. b. c. d. 95.
Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures?
a. b. c. d. 96.
GEN ENR AD AGA
In the event o a delay o a controlled flight, the flight plan shall be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted should that delay be in excess o:
a. b. c. d. 97.
not extend beyond 15 days afer the validity o the licence. not extend beyond the period o validity o the licence. be at the discretion o the Contracting State rendering it valid. be at the discretion o ICAO.
60 mins o estimated off-blocks time (EOBT) 30 mins o estimated off-blocks time (EOBT) 60 mins o estimated time o ETD 30 mins o estimated time o ETD
The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:
a. b. c. d.
standards and recommended international practices or contracting member states. aeronautical standards adopted by all states. proposals or aeronautical regulations in the orm o 18 annexes. standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
7 2
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Revision Questions 98.
According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination o letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
a. b. c. d. 99.
According to JAR-FCL, the privileges o the holder o an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction or the issue o a CPL(A):
a. b. c. d. 100.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
512
not land because the airport is not available or landing. give way to another aircraf. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. not land or the moment regardless o previous instructions.
Which action shall be taken by an aircraf in the traffic pattern o an aerodrome, experiencing radio ailure to indicate difficulties which compel it to l and without requiring immediate assistance?
a. b. c. d.
2 7
Let down. Descend. Descend or landing. You land.
An aircraf manoeuvring in an airport’s circuit receives a series o red flashes rom the control tower. This signifies that the aircraf must:
a. b. c. d. 103.
150 hours o flight time. 200 hours o flight time. 150 hours o flight time plus 10 hours o instrument ground time. 200 hours o flight time plus 10 hours o instrument ground time.
I radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraf to request the intercepted aircraf to descend or landing?
a. b. c. d. 102.
provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceding 12 months. provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours o flight time as a pilot o aeroplanes including at least 200 hours o flight instruction. without restriction. provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours o flight instruction.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant or a CPL (A) who has satisactorily ollowed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot o aeroplanes having a certificate o airworthiness issued or accepted by an EASA Member State at least:
a. b. c. d. 101.
the State o Registry or Common Mark Registering Authority. the State o Registry only. the International Civil Aviation Organisation. the International Telecommunication Union.
Switching on and off three times the landing lights. The repeated switching on and off o the landing lights. Switching on and off our times the navigation lights. Switching on and off our times the landing lights.
Revision Questions 104.
The main actor/s that dictate/s in general the design o an instrument departure procedure is/are:
a. b. c. d. 105.
b. c. d.
c. d.
c. d.
shall be the lowest flight level available or use above the transition altitude. shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established. is published or the aerodrome in the Section ENR o the AIP. is calculated and declared or an approach by the pilot-in-command.
When the aircraf carries a serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode:
a. b. c. d. 109.
advise ATC as early as possible. execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the perormance o his aeroplane. remain within the protected area, but may deviate rom the prescribed holding. ollow the radio communication ailure procedure.
The Transition Level:
a. b.
108.
the landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight. the required visual reerences have been established and can be maintained. the ceiling is 1500 f or higher. the horizontal visibility is at least 5 NM and the ceiling is 1500 f or higher.
I or any reasons a pilot is unable to conorm to the procedures or normal conditions laid down or any particular holding pattern, he should:
a. b.
107.
the terrain surrounding the aerodrome. ATC availability and requirements. availability o navigation aids. airspace restrictions applicable and in orce.
One o the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
a.
106.
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only when directed by ATC. unless otherwise directed by ATC. only when the aircraf is flying within controlled airspace. regardless o ATC instructions.
The speed limitation or VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050 m (10 000 f) AMSL, is:
a. b. c. d.
not applicable. 240 kt IAS. 250 kt IAS. 250 kt TAS. 7 2
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Revision Questions 110.
The VMC minima or a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
a. b. c. d. 111.
Area Control Centres issue clearances or the purpose o:
a. b. c. d. 112.
d.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
514
Airspace Class C, VMC, hours o daylight. Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours o daylight. Airspace Class B. C, D and E, VMC. Airspace Class C, D, VMC.
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity o an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
a. b. c. 2 7
500 f (150 m). 2500 f (750 m). 1000 f (300 m). 2000 f (600 m).
The “Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions” may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot o a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot o the other aircraf. The conditions are:
a. b. c. d. 115.
Classes A, B, C, D, E, F & G classes o airspace Classes C, D, E, F & G classes o airspace only Classes F & G classes o airspace only Classes A, B, C, D & E classes o airspace only
The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) or flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL290 is:
a. b. c. d. 114.
achieving separation between IFR flights. achieving separation between controlled flights. providing advisory service. providing Flight Inormation Service.
FIS is provided to aircraf within:
a. b. c. d. 113.
5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10 000 f) AMSL, clear o clouds. 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10 000 f) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical rom cloud. 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10 000 f) AMSL and clear o clouds. 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10 000 f) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical rom clouds.
i the commander o the involved aircraf so requests. only i the air traffic controller has the involved aircraf in sight. when the commander in the ollowing aircraf has the preceding aircraf in sight and is able to maintain own separation. at the discretion o the air traffic controller.
Revision Questions 116.
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraf is taking off behind a heavy aircraf and both are using the same runway?
a. b. c. d. 117.
b. c. d.
b. c. d.
AIP AIC AIRAC NOTAM
Which part o the AIP contains a list with “Location Indicators”?
a. b. c. d. 121.
you must indicate the ailure in the fight plan, afer which the ATC will endeavour to provide or continuation o the flight. departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed. you are not allowed to commence the flight. the flight can only continue in the most direct manner.
The publication containing inormation concerning general flight saety, technical, administrational o legislative ammeters o a state is called:
a. b. c. d. 120.
Your aircraf has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated. Your aircraf has been identified and you will receive separation rom all aircraf while in contact with this radar acility. You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost. ATC is receiving your transponder and will urnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then:
a.
119.
3 minutes. 2 minutes. 1 minute. 4 minutes.
Which does ATC Term “Radar contact” signiy?
a.
118.
27
ENR. GEN. LOC. AD.
Which “code letter” shall be chosen to identiy a taxiway to be used by an aircraf having a wheel base o 15 m?
a. b. c. d.
Code letter “B”. Code letter “C”. Code letter “E”. Code letter “D”.
7 2
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Revision Questions 122.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length o:
a. b. c. d. 123.
When a person is ound inadmissible and is returned to the operator or transport away rom the territory o the state, the operator:
a. b. c. d. 124.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
516
121.5 MHz, and i communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz. 121.5 MHz, and i communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz. 121.5 MHz, and i communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz. 243.0 MHz, and i communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz.
What are the differences between the rules and regulations in the UIR compared with the airspace below?
a. b. c. d. 2 7
operational air traffic control centres. flight inormation or control organizations. air traffic co-ordination services. search and rescue co-ordination centres.
An aircraf intercepted by a military aircraf shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraf on the ollowing requencies:
a. b. c. d. 127.
The Authority o the State in which the accident took place. The Operators o the same aircraf type. The aircraf manuacturer. The State o design and manuacturer.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraf is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility o the:
a. b. c. d. 126.
shall not be precluded rom recovering rom such person any transportation costs arising rom his (her) inadmissibility. shall not recover rom such person any transportation costs arising rom his (her) inadmissibility. is not responsible or the person inadmissible or entry in the receiving state. the state o the operator are both responsible or the person inadmissible.
Who is responsible or the initiation o an accident investigation?
a. b. c. d. 125.
250 m. 200 m. 150 m. 300 m.
The same rules apply. They are agreed by the Air Navigation Meeting. They are identical to the airspace below. They do not have to be identical to the airspace below.
Revision Questions 128.
What is the distance normally associated with VOR change-over points?
a. b. c. d. 129.
b. c. d.
d.
A flashing red light showing in the direction o the taxiing aircraf Traffic lights showing green or “go” and red or “stop” 3 fixed unidirectional lights showing yellow 3 fixed omni-directional lights showing yellow
What are the characteristics o Runway Threshold Identification lights ?
a. b. c. d. 133.
the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 5 occasions every day over a period o at least 5 consecutive days every day over a period o at least 5 consecutive days but not more than 10 consecutive days the same day(s) o consecutive weeks and on at least 10 occasions
What are the characteristics o Intermediate Holding Position lights ?
a. b. c. d. 132.
100 hours, o which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer. 75 hours, o which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer. 100 hours, o which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer. 100 hours, o which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic instrument flight trainer.
A Repetitive Flight Plan may be submitted by an Operator when a flight is operated on:
a. b. c.
131.
100 NM 75 NM 60 NM 50 NM
The body, which governs licensing o pilot licences or the equivalent documents, must decide i the experience o the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part o the total flying time o 1500 hours. Exemption rom such experience shall be limited to a maximum o:
a.
130.
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Flashing yellow lights unidirectional in the direction o the approach to the runway Flashing white lights unidirectional in the direction o the approach to the runway Steady omni-directional green lights augmenting the runway threshold lights Low intensity steady white lights placed between each green runway threshold light
Which EU directive is the equivalent o ICAO Annex 13 ?
a. b. c. d.
EU Directive 94/56 EU Directive 95/56 EU Directive 13/01 EU Directive 2003/42
7 2
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Revision Questions 134.
What is the speed limit or IFR flight operating in Class C airspace ?
a. b. c. d. 135.
Unaccompanied baggage:
a. b. c. d. 136.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
141.
a flashing red light a steady red light a flashing yellow light a steady yellow light
VOR change-over points should be every:
a. b. c. d.
518
2182 kHz 2.121 MHz 2125 kHz 2430 kHz
Road Holding Position lights may take the orm o:
a. b. c. d.
2 7
Radar terminating range Radar terminated range Radar termination range Radar turning radius
What is the HF Maritime Distress requency?
a. b. c. d. 140.
B, C, D and E B. C and D B and C B
What is RTR?
a. b. c. d. 139.
I hour in excess o EOB (off blocks time) 30 minutes in excess o EOB (off blocks time) In excess o 1 hour o ETD entered in the Flight Plan In excess o 30 minutes o ETD entered in the Flight Plan
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as:
a. b. c. d. 138.
shall be treated as cargo but processed using a simplified procedure may, in exceptional circumstances, be carried in the passenger compartment may be kept in the transit area or a maximum o 2 days must be capable o being opened without damage to the baggage
For a controlled flight, the flight plan shall be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted, should there be a delay o :
a. b. c. d. 137.
Not applicable 250 kt IAS below 10 000 f. 250 kt TAS below 10 000 f. 250 kt CAS below 10 000 f.
120 NM 210 NM 60 NM 90 km
Revision Questions 142.
Who is responsible or the costs o returning deportees?
a. b. c. d. 143.
No Yes No, but ICAO must be inormed It depends whether or not the aircraf was moving at the time
ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when:
a. b. c. d. 148.
B A C D
An aircraf has suffered severe damage to a tyre. Is this an accident?
a. b. c. d. 147.
1.0 NM 1.5 NM 2.0 NM 2.5 NM
An aircraf has a VS1g o 90 kt. What is its category?
a. b. c. d. 146.
By RTF by the pilot By submission o a completed AIRPROX orm (APX 452) by the Operator By the astest method by the Controller By submission o a completed AIRPROX orm (APX 500) by the Operator
What is the minimum visibility or a VM(C) approach in the case o a category B aircraf ?
a. b. c. d. 145.
The Operator The Carrier The State The Owner
By what method is an AIRPROX(P) first filed?
a. b. c. d. 144.
27
they are below 2500 m. they are below 5000 f or MSA, whichever is the higher. they are below 1000 m. they are below 1000 m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
The State that registers an aircraf or the first time must inorm:
a. b. c. d.
The State o the Operator The State o Design The State o Manuacture The State o the owner 7 2
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Revision Questions 149.
ICAO is to be notified o any accident or serious incident involving an aircraf with a maximum mass o:
a. b. c. d. 150.
A serious injury is an injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which :
a. b. c. d.
2 7
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
520
over 2250 kg 2250 kg or more over 5700 kg 5700 kg or more
requires hospitalization or 48 hours or more requires hospitalization or 24 hours or more requires hospitalization or more than 24 hours requires hospitalization or more than 48 hours
Revision Questions
27
7 2
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
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Answers
Answers
2 7
A n s w e r s
522
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
a
c
c
c
b
a
d
d
b
b
d
a
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
c
b
a
b
a
c
b
d
a
a
c
b
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
d
a
d
c
d
b
d
d
a
b
d
d
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
a
d
d
b
d
c
a
b
a
a
c
d
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
a
a
d
d
c
c
b
a
a
c
b
a
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
c
a
a
b
b
d
b
a
b
a
a
c
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
b
d
c
c
b
c
a
b
c
d
a
a
85
86
87
88
89
90
91
92
93
94
95
96
c
b
c
d
b
c
b
a
d
b
b
b
97
98
99
100
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
a
a
b
a
b
a
b
a
b
a
a
b
109
110
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
c
d
b
b
c
b
c
b
a
b
b
b
121
122
123
124
125
126
127
128
129
130
131
132
b
d
a
a
a
a
d
c
d
d
c
b
133
134
135
136
137
138
139
140
141
142
143
144
a
a
a
b
d
c
a
a
c
c
a
b
145
146
147
148
149
150
a
a
b
b
a
d
Revision Questions
27
EASA Specimen Examination 1.
The ‘standards’ contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered:
a. b. c. d. 2.
Which o the annexes deals with the transportation o cargo?
a. b. c. d. 3.
request the crew to detain the passenger passenger.. ask the passenger to disembark. order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question. hand him/her over to the authorities.
What reedom covers landing and reuelling in another state?
a. b. c. d. 7.
Licensing o scheduled air services. Damage caused by a contracting state’s aircraf to property in the same state. Damage caused by a contracting state’s aircraf to property in another state. Intererence Interere nce with an aircraf in flight.
It is suspected that a person on board an aircraf will commit an act that would jeopardize the saety o the aircraf; the PIC PIC may:
a. b. c. d. 6.
The Assembly. The Regional Air Navigation Meeting. The Council itsel. The Air Navigation Commission.
To what did the Tokyo convention o 1963 address itsel?
a. b. c. d. 5.
Annex 9 – Facilitation. Annex 18 – Tr Transportation ansportation o Dangerous Goods. Annex 16 – Environmental Protection. Annex 6 – Operation o Aircraf.
Which ICAO body urnishes the “Standards and Recommended Practices” (SARPs) or adoption by the Council?
a. b. c. d. 4.
advice and guidance or the aviation legislation within the member states. binding or all member states. binding or all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference. binding or all airline companies with internat international ional traffic.
1st 2nd 3rd 4th
Which o the ollowing is permitted in the registration mark o an aircraf?
a. b. c. d.
7 2
TTT SRA QEE XXX
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523
27
Revision Questions 8.
Which registration is disallowed?
a. b. c. d. 9.
You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required or an ATP ATPL. L. How are simulator hours limited?
a. b. c. d. 10.
b. c. d.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
524
Once you have passed a competency check. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo. When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo. When you have completed 100 hours solo.
How long would a non-JAA licence be valid or i validated or use in a JAA state?
a. b. c. d. 2 7
only i the aircraf is classified or single-pilot operations Yes No Only i the aircraf has only one engine
When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a qualified flying flying instructor. instructor. When will supervision cease? cease?
a. b. c. d. 13.
with 50% o the flight time towards the total time required or a higher grade o licence. in ull, but not more than 300 hrs towards the total time require or a higher grade o licence. the flight time in ull towards the total time required or a higher grade o licence. the flight in ull toward the total time required or a higher grade o pilot licence according to the requirements o the licensing authority.
Can a holder o a CPL(A) fly as PIC in any non-commercial aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 12.
Maximum o 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer trainer.. Maximum o 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer trainer.. Maximum o 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer trainer.. Maximum o 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer trainer..
The holder o a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision o the PIC and perorming the unctions and duties o the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a.
11.
RCC NNN TTT ZZZ
6 months. 12 months. 12 months i still valid in the State o Issue. 3 months.
Revision Questions 14.
What is the period o validity o a PPL class 2 medical in accordance with JAR FCL 3?
a. b. c. d. 15.
FL75. FL60. FL70. FL65.
Can a holder o a CPL(A) fly as PIC in any non-commercial aeroplane?
a. b. c. d. 20.
24 hrs. 20 days. 12 hours hours.. 12 days.
Which o the quadrantal levels should be used when true track is 358°; variation is 3°W and deviation is 5°E?
a. b. c. d. 19.
150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time. 150 hours flight time. 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time. 200 hours flight time.
How many hours would you have to spend in a clinic or hospital beore you would have to inorm the authorities?
a. b. c. d. 18
multi-engine turbine. single-pilot multi-engine turbine. microlight with fixed wings and able to move its suraces in three dimensions. touring motor glider.
A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:
a. b. c. d. 17.. 17
24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months thereafer thereafer.. 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months thereafer thereafer.. 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65.
Which o the ollowing requires a class rating?
a. b. c. d. 16.
27
only i the aircraf is classified or single-pilot operations Yes No Only i the aircraf has only one engine
What are the VMC limits or class B airspace?
a. b. c. d.
Clear o cloud and in sight o the surace. 8 km flight visibility, 1000 f vertically and 1500 m horizont horizontally ally rom cloud. 5 km flight visibility, 1000 f vertically and 1500 m horizont horizontally ally rom cloud. The same as class C.
7 2
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27
Revision Questions 21.
According to ICAO, what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a SVFR flight to take off rom an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. b. c. d. 22.
In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at a:
a. b. c. d. 23.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
526
not more than1 than150 50 m. reduces rom 300 m to 150 m. equal to or greater than 300 m. 500 m in mountainous terrain.
What is considered to be “established” with regards to an NDB approach?
a. b. c. d.
2 7
10 NM 5 NM 20 NM 15 NM
The obstacle clearance in the primary area o an intermediate approach is:
a. b. c. d. 27.. 27
1500 m 1600 m 2800 m 5000 m
At what distance rom the holding navigation aid must an aircraf be established at the cleared holding level or altitude?
a. b. c. d. 26.
10 km. 10 NM. 25 NM. 25 km.
Visual circling or a class B aircraf is conducted in visibility not less than:
a. b. c. d. 25.
rate o turn o 3°/sec. rate o turn o 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser lesser.. rate o turn o 3°/sec or at a bank angle o 25° whichever is lesser lesser.. bank angle o 25°.
What is the maximum track guidance distance or a turning departure?
a. b. c. d. 24.
1000 m. 1500 m. 2000 m. 3000 m.
within 5° o the Final Approach Track (FA (FAT) T) within 10° o the FA FAT T within hal-scale deflection once the threshold is in sight
Revision Questions 28.
What is the airspeed or holding area construction or a CAT B aircraf in a hold under normal conditions at 4250 m (14 000 f)?
a. b. c. d. 29.
50 m 30 m 300 m 600 m
For Mode 2 parallel approach operations, what is the minimum radar separation prior to an aircraf being established on the localizer?
a. b. c. d. 34.
non-load bearing suraces that no vehicles are to cross maintenance maintenan ce work in progress areas that can be used by the widest aircraf
What is the minimum obstacle clearance in the final phase o a missed approach?
a. b. c. d. 33.
2 NM. 1 NM. 3 NM. ½ NM.
Taxiway side stripe marking indicates indicates::
a. b. c. d. 32.
30 m. 100 m. 50 m. 120 m.
At what distance does an SRA normally terminate?
a. b. c. d. 31.
Mach 0.83. 490 km/hr (265 kt). 315 31 5 km/hr (170 kt). 520 km/hr (280 kt).
For the intermediate section o a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance?
a. b. c. d. 30.
27
3 NM 2.5 NM 5 NM 2 NM
The 45° leg o a 45°/180° procedure turn or a Cat D aircraf is:
a. b. c. d.
1 min. 1 min 15 seconds seconds.. 1 min 30 seconds. continued until interce interception ption o the glide slope.
7 2
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27
Revision Questions 35.
On a precision approach (ILS), the OCH(A) is based among other standard conditions, on the vertical limits between the flight path o the wheels and the glide path antenna. For a Category A aircraf aircraf this should not be more than:
a. b. c. d. 36.
What is the lowest OCH on a circling approach or a Cat B aircraf?
a. b. c. d. 37.. 37
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
528
an accident an occurrence a serious occurrence an incident
A VFR flight in Class F airspace is:
a. b. c. d.
2 7
100 m. 250 f. 300 f. none.
A small fire occurs in the toilet o an aircraf but is quickly extinguished by the use o extinguishing agents. This is classed as:
a. b. c. d. 41.. 41
10 NM. 5 NM. 10 minutes. 5 minutes.
What Obstacle Clearance is guaranteed at a range greater than 5 NM rom the edge o the holding area o a holding pattern?
a. b. c. d. 40.
B C E D
When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length o the track that may be used to intercept the localizer?
a. b. c. d. 39.
120 m. 135 m. 140 m. 150 m.
What is the category o aircraf with a V S1g o 132 knots?
a. b. c. d. 38.
6 m. 9 m. 3 m. 12 m.
required to submit a flight plan and is required to carry a radio required to submit a flight plan but is not required to carry a radio not required to submit a flight plan but is required to carry a radio not required to submit a flight plan and is not required to carry a radio
Revision Questions 42.
What is the speed limit below 10 000 f or an IFR flight in Class D airspace?
a. b. c. d. 43.
B B,C,D,E B,C B,C,D
The lowest height o a CTA above ground or water is:
a. b. c. d. 48.
country identifier identifier,, ollowed by P/R/D, ollowed by the identifier identifier.. country identifier ollowed by P/R/D. P/R/D ollowed by the identifier identifier.. country identifier ollowed by numbers.
In which class or classes o airspace would essential traffic inormation be given to VFR traffic about other VFR traffic?
a. b. c. d. 47.. 47
By RFT (aircraf radio) Submitted to the Operator in writing as soon as possible on landing By immedi immediately ately declari declaring ng a MA MAYDA YDAY Y Included in an URGENCY message to the Company Operations
Prohibited, Restricted and Danger areas must be designated by:
a. b. c. d. 46.
INCEFA DETRESFA EMERGFA ALERFA
How must an AIRPROX (P) be initially reported?
a. b. c. d. 45.
250 kt TAS. 250 kt IAS. not applicable. 200 kt IAS.
What phase o the Alert Service is declared when apprehension exists?
a. b. c. d. 44.
27
300 m. 150 m. 200 m. 500 m.
RNP (Required Navigation Perormance) is:
a. b. c. d.
based on Regional Air Navigation Orders (RANOs). based on RANOs and applied by the state. based on RANOs and applied by the state and ICAO. based on RANOs and applied by the ICAO. 7 2
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27
Revision Questions 49.
In what class o airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service or separation?
a. b. c. d. 50.
Must a Final Report be sent to ICAO ollowing an accident to an aircraf with an MTOM o 2250 kg?
a. b. c. d. 51.. 51
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
530
5 NM. 10 NM. 15 NM. 20 NM.
What does the signal XX rom a search party indicate?
a. b. c. d.
2 7
20 minutes. 10 minutes. 5 minutes. 15 minute.
I two aircraf are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraf be separated beore one o the two may commence a climb or descent?
a. b. c. d. 55.
Present position and ETA. Estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance. Estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance. ETA and endurance.
I you want to descend through the level o another aircraf on the same track, the minimum separation is:
a. b. c. d. 54.
30 minutes EOBT. 30 minutes ETD. 60 minutes EOBT. 60 minutes ETD.
What are the contents o section 2 o an AIREP?
a. b. c. d. 53.
Yes Not unless the accident has resulted in a atality o any sort No Not unless the accident has resulted in a atality o any sort and serious damage to the aircraf
What is the delay or a controlled flight afer which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a. b. c. d. 52.
F E G D
We have not ound all personnel We are not able to continue. Returning to base Nothing ound Operation completed
Revision Questions 56.
What is the greatest radar wake turbulence?
a. b. c. d. 57.. 57
b. c. d.
The maximum incept angle to the final approach track or Mode 4 operations is 30° Regardless o the weather all approaches are to be radar monitored Only straight-in approaches may be conducted All aircraf must have ull ILS/MLS
For dependent parallel approaches what is the radar separation between two aircraf on the same ILS unless wake turbulence requires a greater g reater separation?
a. b. c. d. 61.. 61
3 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 2 minutes
Which o the ollowing statements is incorrect with regards to parallel runways operations?
a.
60.
120 kt 165 kt 290 kt 265 kt
Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction?
a. b. c. d. 59.
2 NM 10 NM 5 NM 6 NM
What is the maximum speed or a Category C aircraf or a departure procedure?
a. b. c. d. 58.
27
3 NM 5 NM 1 NM 10 NM
What is the separation or a light aircraf taking off afer a medium aircraf providing they are both using u sing the same runway?
a. b. c. d.
5 min 3 min 1 min 2 min
7 2
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27
Revision Questions 62.
Between two aircraf on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided or wake turbulence?
a. b. c. d. 63.
A heavy aircraf has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off. What is the separation required or a light aircraf taking off?
a. b. c. c. 64.
68.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
5 NM 4.5 NM 4 NM 3 NM
A radar controller can request an aircraf to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change must not be more than:
a. b. c. d.
532
2 NM 2.5 NM 3 NM 5 NM
I radar capability permits, the minimum longitudinal separation may be reduced to:
a. b. c. d. 2 7
5 NM 5 NM when the first a/c is 20 kt aster than the second 10 NM 20 NM
Under normal circumstances, what is the radar separation applied between aircraf at the same altitude?
a. b. c. d. 67.
5 NM 3 NM 2 NM 1 NM
What is the minimum radar separation or two aircraf established on the same localizer?
a. b. c. d. 66.
2 minutes 3 minutes 1 minute 5 minutes
Radar separation may be applied beore an aircraf taking off and a preceding departing aircraf providing the departing aircraf can be identified rom the end o the runway within:
a. b. c. d. 65.
4 NM 2.5 NM 2 NM 3 NM
± 15 kt ± 8 kt ± 10 kt ± 20 kt
Revision Questions 69.
The minima that must be applied to aircraf which are landing afer a “heavy” or “medium” aircraf complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a. b. c. d. 70.
b. c. d.
7 days 14 days 28 days one month
A VASI consists o:
a. b. c. d. 74.
1 year 2 months 3 months 6 months
Regarding the AIS what is the time limit or a checklist o current NOTAMs to be issued?
a. b. c. d. 73.
AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Inormation Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries AIP and amendment service,, NOTAMs, Preflight Inormation Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs, checklists and summaries AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and summaries AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins
AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period; what is a long period in this respect?
a. b. c. d. 72.
light aircraf behind medium aircraf ; 4 minutes medium aircraf behind medium aircraf ; 2 minutes medium aircraf behind heavy aircraf ; 3 minutes medium aircraf behind heavy aircraf ; 2 minutes
An integrated aeronautical inormation package consists o:
a.
71.
27
two sets o three lights positioned as wingbars three sets o three lights positioned as wingbars two sets o two lights positioned as wingbars three sets o two lights positioned as wingbars
Which “code letter” has to be chosen to identiy a taxiway that has to be used by an aircraf with a wheel-base o 15 metres?
a. b. c. d.
Code letter E Code letter C Code letter B Code letter D 7 2
s n o i t s e u Q n o i s i v e R
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27
Revision Questions 75.
Which o the ollowing is a non-standard Aerodrome Reerence Code?
a. b. c. d. 76.
What length should the approach lighting system or a CAT II Calvert design be?
a. b. c. d. 77.
b. c. d.
R e v i s i o n Q u e s t i o n s
534
flashing red light flashing yellow light flashing blue light flashing green light
The level o rescue and fire fighting acilities is dependent upon the category o the aerodrome. What actors determine this category?
a.
2 7
in conjunction with high intensity obstacle lighting in conjunction with low intensity obstacle lighting in conjunction with runway obstacle lighting in conjunction with the approach path obstacle lighting
Road Holding Position lights consist o either a controllable red (stop) /green (go) light or a:
a. b. c. d. 80.
The number on board, their names and their seat locations The number on board and their seat locations Their names and their seat locations Only their seat locations
Medium intensity obstacle lighting will normally consist o flashing red lights except that they may be flashing white when used:
a. b. c. d. 79.
900 m 600 m 1200 m 400 m
What inormation must be passed to the Commander o an aircraf with regards to Law Enorcement Officers?
a. b. c. d. 78.
4A 3F 4G 2E
Aeroplane reerence field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span o the largest aircraf using that aerodrome The length o the longest runway and the area to be covered The overall length and the uselage width o the longest aircraf using that aerodrome The length o the longest runway and total area o hard standings including access roads
Revision Questions 81.
82.
On departure, how many copies o the ollowing are required: 1. 2. 3.
the Gen Dec the stores list passenger maniest.
a. b. c. d.
3 o each 2 o 1; 2 o 2; 3 o 3 2 o 1; 1 o 2; 2 o 3 1 o 1; 1 o 2; 2 o 3
Which organizations are responsible or initiating the Alerting Service and moving rom phase to phase?
a. b. c. d. 83.
++ LLL LL Y
According to Annex 17, security is defined as “a combination o measures and human resources intended to saeguard:
a. b. c. d. 85.
FIC and RCC ACC and FIC ACC and RCC RCC and sub-units
Using the visual SAR signals the symbol or “we have ound all personnel” is:
a. b. c. d. 84.
27
civil aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence” international civil aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence” international aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence” aviation operations against acts o unlawul intererence”
When an aircraf has sustained damage, the aircraf must be allowed to resume its flight provided that:
a. b. c. d.
the state where the aircraf is registered, the state where the aircraf is designed and the state where the prototype o the aircraf is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraf is still airworthy the state where the aircraf is registered is o the opinion that the sustained damage is o such a nature that the aircraf is still airworthy the state where the aircraf is designed and the state where the prototype o the aircraf is declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraf is registered which says that the aircraf is still airworthy the state where the prototype o the aircraf is declared to be airworthy has inormed the state where the aircraf is registered that the sustained damage is o such a nature that the aircraf is still airworthy 7 2
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Answers
Answers to Specimen EASA Examination 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
c
a
d
d
d
b
b
c
c
c
c
b
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
c
c
d
b
c
c
b
d
b
c
a
c
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
b
b
a
c
a
a
a
a
c
b
a
d
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
d
a
d
c
d
b
d
a
a
a
c
b
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
a
c
a
d
b
c
b
d
d
b
a
a
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
d
a
a
a
a
d
d
d
d
a
c
d
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
a
b
c
a
b
a
a
c
a
b
c
b
85 b
2 7
A n s w e r s
536
Chapter
28 Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
Chapter Five. Flight Crew Licensing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 539 European Aviation Saety Agency (EASA). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 539 Licences . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
543
Ratings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 549 Certificates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 551 EASA Part-MED . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 553
537
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D 2 8
538
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
Chapter Five. Flight Crew Licensing This chapter should be studied as soon as the JAA Learning Objectives covering Air Crew Licensing are modified to be in accordance with EASA Part-FCL and EASA Part-MED.
European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) 5.1
Documentation
EASA Part-FCL is the equivalent o JAR FCL1
This part establishes the requirements or the issue o pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates and the conditions o their validity and use. • EASA Part-MED is the equivalent o JAR FCL3 This part establishes the requirements or the issue, validity, revalidation and renewal o the medical certificate required or exercising the privileges o a pilot licence or o a stud ent licence. 5.2
Terminology and Abbreviations
Aeroplane – an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraf heavier than air which is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction o the air against its wings. ATO - Approved Training Organization CAT – Commercial Air Transport Competent Authority – an authority designated by the Member State to whom a person applies or the issue o pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates. Co-pilot – a pilot operating other than the pilot in command, on an aircraf or which more than one pilot is required, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraf or the sole purpose o receiving flight instruction or a licence or rating. Cross-country – a flight between a point o departure and a point o arrival ollowing a preplanned route, using standard navigation procedures. D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
Dual Instruction Time - flight time or instrument ground time during which a p erson is receiving flight instruction rom a properly authorized instructor. Full Flight Simulator (FFS) – a ull size replica o a specific type or make, model and series aircraf flight deck including all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aircraf in ground and in flight operations, a visual system providing an out-o-the-deck view and a orce cueing motion system. Flight Time – the total time rom the moment an aircraf first moves or the purpose o taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end o the flight. FSTD – Flight Simulator Training Device. This simulator does not require orce cueing m otion or a visual system.
8 2
539
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED Instrument Flight Time – the time during which a pilot is controlling an aircraf in flight solely by reerence to instruments. Instrument Ground Time – the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in flight simulation training devices (FSTDs). IR – Instrument Rating. LAPL(A) - Light Aircraf Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes). Night – the period between the end o evening civil twilight and the beginning o morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority, as defined by a Member State. Pilot in command (PIC) – the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the sae conduct o the flight. Pilot in command Under Supervision (PICUS) – a co-pilot perorming, under the supervision o the pilot in command, the duties and the unctions o a pilot in command. Proficiency Check – the demonstration o skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as may be required. Renewal – the administrative action taken afer a rating or certificate has lapsed or the purpose o renewing the privileges o the rating or cer tificate or a urther specified period. Revalidation - the administrative action taken within the period o validity o a rating or certificate which allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges o the rating or certificate or a urther specified period. Student Pilot in command (SPIC) – a student pilot acting as pilot in command on a flight with an instructor where the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or control the flight o the aircraf. Touring Motor Glider (TMG) – a specific class o powered sailplane having an integrally mounted, non-retractable engine and non-retractable propeller. It shall be capable o taking off and climbing under its own power according to its flight manual.
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
5.3 Application & Issue o Licences, Ratings & Certificates. Any application or the issue, revalidation or renewal o licences, ratings or certificates shall be submitted to the competent authority in the manner and orm approved by that authority.
A person shall not hold more than one licence per category o aircraf. 5.4
Theoretical Knowledge Examinations
Responsibilities o the applicant Applicants shall take the entire set o examinations or a licence or rating under the responsibility o one Member State.
2 8
Applicants must be recommended by an ATO beore sitting the examinations and having attended an approved training course. The recommendation is valid or 12 months. Should the applicant ail to attempt at least one examination paper within this 12 months, urther training must take place as determined by the ATO.
540
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
Pass Standards The pass mark or an examination is 75%. There can be no penalty marking.
All examinations or a particular licence or rating must be passed within 18 months counted rom the end o the calendar month o the first attempt. I an applicant ails to pass one o the examination papers within 4 attempts, or has ailed to pass all papers within either 6 sittings or the above 18 months, he/she must re-take the complete set o examination papers. Furthermore, he/she must undergo urther training at an ATO as determined by that organization. Validity LAPL(A) and PPL(A) – 24 months rom the day o successul completion o the examinations. CPL(A) and IR(A) - 36 months rom the day o successul completion o the examinations ATPL(A) – 7 years rom the last validity date o an IR entered in the licence. Practical skills test Except in the case o applicants undergoing an integrated flying course, a practical skills test or a licence, rating or certificate cannot be under taken until the applicant has passed the required theoretical examinations.
In any case, the theoretical instruction must always have been completed beore any practical skills test can be undertaken. 5.5
Crediting o Flight Time & Theoretical Knowledge
Crediting o flight time Pilot in command or under instruction.
An applicant or a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in ull with all solo, dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required. A graduate o an Airline Transport Pilot integrated course can be credited with up to 50 hours o student PIC instrument time towards the PIC time required or an ATPL(A), CPL(A) and multi-engine Type or Class Rating. The same applies to a graduate o a CPL/ IR integrated course towards a CPL(A) and multi-engine Type or Class Rating.
D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
Higher grade o licence Flight time as a co-pilot - the holder o a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all o the co-pilot time towards the total time required or a higher grade o licence. Crediting o theoretical knowledge An applicant having passed the ATPL(A) examinations is credited with the examinations required or an LAPL(A), PPL(A) and CPL(A).
8 2
An applicant having passed the CPL(A) examinations is credited with the examinations required or an LAPL(A) and PPL(A). An applicant having passed the IR theoretical examinations is credited with those examinations required or an IR in another category o aircraf.
541
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED 5.6
Excise o the Privileges o Licences
The exercise o the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity o the ratings it contains and o the medical certificate. 5.7.
Obligation to Carry and Present Documents
While excising the privileges o his/her licence a p ilot must always carry his/her : • Licence • Medical certificate • Identification document containing his/her photograph and is obliged, without undue delay, to present his/her flight time record when requested by an authorized representative or a competent authority. 5.8
Recording o Flight Time
All pilots must keep a reliable record o the details o all fli ghts flown in the manner established by the competent authority. 5.9
Language Proficiency.
English language proficiency is graded by EASA as ollows: Expert – Level 6 Extended – Level 5 Operational – Level 4 All pilots must have attained a language proficiency in English to the standard o Operational (level 4) and this must be endorsed in the licence. Pilots must be re-evaluated every: 4 years - i level 4 (Operational) is held 6 years – i level 5 (Extended) is held Should a pilot have attained level 6, re-evaluation is not necessary. A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
5.10
Recent Experience
A pilot is not to operate an aircraf in commercial air transport or carry passengers: As PIC or Co-pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in an aircraf o the same type or a Full Flight Simulator (FFS) representing that type or class. As PIC at night unless he/she has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in an aircraf o the same type or a Full Flight Simulator (FFS) representing that type or class or holds an Instrument Rating.
2 8
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Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED 5.11
28
Licence Holders Aged 60 or More in Commercial Air Transport (CAT)
Age 60 – 64 A pilot who has attained the age o 60 shall not act as a pilot o an aircraf engaged in CAT except: a. as a member o a multi-crew, and b. providing that he/she is the only pilot who has attained the age o 60. Age 65 years A pilot who has attained the age o 65 years shall not act as a pilot o an aircraf engaged in CAT.
Licences 5.12
Light Aircraf Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) - LAPL(A)
This is, in effect, a leisure licence which limits both the number o passengers allowed to be carried by the pilot and also restricts the MTOM o the aircraf. Applicants must have completed a training course in an ATO. Privileges and conditions Minimum age: 17 years.
Privileged to act as PIC on single piston aeroplane-land or a Touring Motor Glider (TMG): a.
with a MTOM o 2000 kg or less
b.
carrying a maximum o 3 passengers such that there are never more than 4 persons on board the aircraf
c.
without remuneration
d.
in non-commercial operations
e.
The holder may only carry passengers, afer the issue o the licence, having completed a urther 10 hours flight time as PIC on aeroplanes or TMG
Experience requirements Applicants must have completed at least 30 hours o flight instruc tion on aeroplanes or TMGs including at least:
D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
• 15 hours o dual flight instruction • 6 hours o supervised solo flight time, including at least 3 hours o solo cross-country flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight o at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 ull stop landing at an aerodrome different rom the aerodrome o departure shall be made. Recency Holders o an LAPL(A) shall only exercise the privileges o their licence when they have completed, in the last 24 months:
• at least 12 hours o flight time as PIC, including 12 take-offs and landings and • undertaken reresher training o at least 1 hour o flight time with an instructor.
8 2
543
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED 5.13
Private Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) - PPL(A)
Privileges and conditions Minimum age: 17 years.
Privileged to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs engaged in non-commercial operations. However, a holder o a PPL(A) with an instructor or examiner rating may receive remuneration or: • • •
flight instruction or the LAPL(A) or PPL(A) the conduct o skill and proficiency checks or these licences the rating and certificates attached to these licences
Theoretical knowledge Applicants must pass the ollowing examination papers:
Air Law Human perormance Meteorology Communications Principles o flight Operational procedures Flight perormance and planning Aircraf general knowledge Navigation Experience and crediting Applicants or a PPL(A) shall have completed at least 45 hours o flight i nstruction in aeroplanes, 5 o which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:
• 25 hours o dual flight instruction • 10 hours o supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours o solo cross-country flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight o at least 270 km (150 NM), during which ull stop landings at 2 aerodromes different rom the aerodrome o departure shall b e made.
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
Up-grade rom an LAPL(A) to a PPL(A) The holder o an LAPL(A) can up-grade to a PPL(A) but must have completed at least:
• 15 hours o flight time on aeroplanes afer the issue o an LAPL(A) o which at least 10 hours shall be completed in a training course at an ATO. • This training course shall include at least 4 hours o supervised solo time, including at least 2 hours solo cross-country flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight o at least 270 km (150 NM), during which ull stop landings at 2 aerodromes different rom the aerodrome o departure shall be made.
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Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED 5.14
28
Commercial Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) - CPL(A)
Privileges and conditions Minimum age: 18 years.
Privileged to: a. b. c. d.
exercise all the privileges o an LAPL(A) and a PPL(A) licence holder. act as PIC or co-pilot o any aeroplane engaged in operations other than Commercial Air Transport (CAT). act as PIC in CAT o any single-pilot aeroplane. act as a co-pilot in CAT.
Conditions An applicant or a CPL(A) must have ulfilled the requirements or the class or type rating o the aeroplane used in the skills test. Training course & skills test An applicant or a CPL(A) must have completed a theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction course at an ATO and have passed a skills test. Theoretical knowledge Applicants must pass the ollowing theoretical examination papers:
Air Law Aircraf General Knowledge – Airrames/Systems/Powerplant Aircraf General Knowledge – Instrumentation Mass and Balance Perormance Flight Planning and Monitoring Human Perormance Meteorology General Navigation Radio Navigation Operational Procedures Principles o Flight Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Communications
D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
CPL(A) Training course & skills test
An applicant or a CPL(A) shall have completed theoretical knowledge and fl ight instruction at an ATO. Furthermore, the applicant must pass a skills test in accordance to Appendix 4 o EASA Part-FCL. However, special conditions are applicable or a holder o an MPL. Specific conditions or MPL holders Beore exercising the privileges o a CPL(A), the holder o an MPL shall have completed in an aeroplane:
• 70 hours flight time as PIC or made up o at least 10 hours PIC and the additional flight time as PICUS
8 2
• O these 70 hours, 20 shall be o VFR cross-country made up o at least 10 hours PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. This shall include a VFR cross-country flight, flown as PIC, o at least 540 km (300 NM) during which ull stop landings at 2 different aerodromes shall be made. 545
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED • Applicants with a valid IR shall be given at least 15 hours dual visual flight instruction at an ATO. • At least 5 hours o flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane certified or the carriage o at least 4 persons and have a variable pitch propeller and a retractable landing gear at an ATO. • Pass a CPL(A) skills test. Types o courses or CPL(A) at an ATO • CPL/IR integrated course - aeroplanes • CPL integrated course - aeroplanes • CPL modular course – aeroplanes CPL/IR integrated course – aeroplanes Entry conditions Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrant or as a holder o a PPL(A) or PPL(H).
In the case o a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50% o the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum o 40 hours flying experience, or 45 hours i an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, o which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement or dual instruction flight time. Flying training Shall comprise:
A total o 180 hours o which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the total o 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least: • 80 hours dual instruction o which 40 hours may be instrument ground time • 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time which can be flown as SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum o 20 hours A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
• 50 hours cross-country as PIC including a VFR cross-country flight o at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course o which ull stop landings at 2 aerodromes different rom the aerodrome o departure shall be made • 5 hours flight time at night, comprising 3 hours o dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour o cross-country navigation and 5 solo ull stop landings • 100 hours o instrument time comprising at least: • 20 hours as SPIC and • 50 hours o instrument flight instruction, o which up to
2 8
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◦
546
25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I or 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, o which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
• 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certified or the carriage o at least 4 persons that has a variable pitch propeller and a retractable landing gear • Upon completion o the course the applicant must take a CPL(A) skills test and an IR skills test on either a multi-engine or single-engine aeroplane • Applicants must have carried out an approved MCC course CPL integrated course and CPL modular course – Aeroplanes Details o both these courses can be ound in EASA Part-FCL Appendix 3 5.15
Multi-crew Pilot Licence - MPL
Outline The MPL is a radical and innovative licence which – afer a slow start – is gaining popularity. EASA Part-FCL lays down the broad outline o the course required and then it is a co-operative and combined effort between the sponsoring Operator o the airline, the ATO and the Authority to create a suitable course to satisy the requirements o all three organizations. In essence it is a competency based course.
On completion o the course, the applicant must p ass a skills test which is taken in the type o aeroplane used on the Advanced phase o the MPL integrated course or in an FFS representing the same type. Privileges and conditions Minimum age: 18 years.
Privileged to: • act as co-pilot in an aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot Theoretical Knowledge Shall comprise a total o at least 750 hours o instruction or the ATPL(A) knowledge level as well as instructional hours required or the relevant Type Rating. Flying Training Shall comprise at least 240 hours, as pilot flying (PF) or pilot not flying (PNF), in actual and simulated flight and ollowing 4 phases o training: D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
• Phase 1 – Core flying skills Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane • Phase 2 – Basic Introduction o multi-crew operations and instrument flight • Phase 3 – Intermediate Application o multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a high perormance aeroplane • Phase 4 – Advanced Type Rating training within an airline environment Flight experience in actual flight must include upset recovery training, night flying, flight solely by reerence to instruments, the experience requirements or a Type Rating, and those required to achieve the relevant airmanship. MCC requirements are incorporated into the relevant phases above.
8 2
547
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED 5.16
Airline Transport Pilot Licence (Aeroplanes) - ATPL
Privileges and conditions Minimum age: 21 years. Privileged to: • exercise all the privileges o a holder o an LAPL(A), PPL(A) and CPL(A) • act as PIC o aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport
Applicants or the issue o an ATPL(A) must have ulfilled the requirements or the Type Rating o the aircraf used in the skills test. Types o courses The course must be completed at an ATO and can be either: • an integrated course or • a modular course Theoretical knowledge Applicants must pass the ollowing theoretical examination papers:
Air Law Aircraf General Knowledge – Airrames/Systems/Powerplant Aircraf General Knowledge – Instrumentation Mass and Balance Perormance Flight Planning and Monitoring Human Perormance Meteorology General Navigation Radio Navigation Operational Procedures Principles o Flight VFR Communications IFR Communications Prerequisites, experience and crediting A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
Prerequisites Applicants or an ATPL(A) must hold:
• an MPL or • a CPL(A) and a multi-engine IR or aeroplanes. In this case, the applicant must also have received instruction in MCC Experience Applicants or an ATPL(A) shall have completed a minimum o 1500 hours o flight time in aeroplanes including at least:
• 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes
2 8
• 500 hours as PIC under supervision or • 250 hours as PIC or • 250 hours, including at least 70 hours as PIC and the remaining as PICUS
548
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
• 200 hours cross-country flight time o which 100 hours shall be as PIC or PICUS • 75 hours o instrument time o which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time and • 100 hours o night flight as PIC or co-pilot Note: o the 1500 hours o flight time, up to 100 hours o flight time may have been completed in an FFS and FNPT. O these 100 hours, only a maximum o 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT. Crediting Holders o a pilot licence or other categories o aircraf shall be credited with flight time up to a maximum o:
• For TMG or sailplanes, 30 hours flown as PIC • For helicopters, 50% o all the flight time requirements specified above Skills test Applicants shall pass a skills test to demonstrate the ability to perorm, as PIC o a multi-pilot aeroplane, under IFR.
Ratings 5.17
Instrument Rating – Aeroplanes IR(A)
General Operations under IFR on an aeroplane shall only be conducted by holders o a PPL(A), CPL(A), MPL and ATPL(A) with an IR appropriate to the category o aeroplane or when undergoing skills testing or dual instruction. Privileges • The privilege to fly an aeroplane under IFR with a minimum decision height o 200 f (60 m) • In the case o a multi-engine IR(A), the above privilege may be extended to decision heights o lower than 200 f (60 m) as long as the applicant has undergone specific training at an ATO and has passed the necessary skills test Prerequisites and crediting Applicants shall hold at least:
D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
• a PPL(A) with a night rating or • an ATPL(A) in another category o aeroplane or • a CPL in the appropriate aeroplane category and have completed at least 50 hours o cross-country as PIC o aeroplanes o which at least 10 hours shall be in the relevant aeroplane category.
8 2
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Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction Course Applicants must have received a course o both theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO. The course may be either integrated or modular.
Applicants must sit an examination o theoretical knowledge in the ollowing subjects: Air Law Aircraf General Knowledge – Instrumentation Flight Perormance and Monitoring Human Perormance Meteorology Radio Navigation IFR Communications Skills Test Applicants must pass a skills test in accordance with Appendix 7 o Part-FCL. Validity An IR(A) shall be valid or 1 year. Revalidation • an IR(A) shall be revalidated within 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date o the IR(A)
• should an applicant ail the IR proficiency check beore the expiry date o the IR(A), he/she may not exercise the IR privileges until he/she has passed the proficiency check • i the IR(A) has expired, reresher training at an ATO is required beore the applicant may take the proficiency check again • i the IR(A) has not been revalidated or renewed within the preceding 7 years, the holder will be required to pass again the IR theoretical knowledge examination and skill test • An FNPT II or an FFS may be used or revalidation, but each alternate proficiency check must be perormed in an aeroplane
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
5.18
Class & Type Ratings
Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required Holders o a pilot licence shall not act in any capacity as pilots o an aircraf unless they have a valid and appropriate class or type rating – except when undergoing skills tests, proficiency checks or receiving flight instruction Requirements or the issue o class or type ratings • Theoretical and flight training must take place at an ATO • The skills test must be passed within 6 months afer the commencement o the course. Also within 6 months preceding the application or a class or type rating
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Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
Validity • class or type ratings are generally valid or 1 year • however, a single-pilot single-engine class rating is valid or 2 years • i the type or class rating has expired, reresher training at an ATO is required beore the applicant may take the proficiency check again Revalidation or multi-engine class and type ratings • The proficiency check must be passed within 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date o the rating • The revalidation o an IR(A) may be combined with a proficiency check or the revalidation o a class or type rating Experience requirements or the issue o class or type ratings – aeroplanes Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes • at least 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes Multi-pilot aeroplanes • at least 70 hours o flight experience as PIC on aeroplanes • hold a multi-engine IR(A) • have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical examinations • hold a certificate o satisactory completion o an MCC course in aeroplanes 5.19
Night Rating – aeroplanes
This rating is to allow PPL(A) holders to fly in VFR conditions at night. Theoretical and flight instruction must be undergone at an ATO and at least: • 5 hours o flight time in the appropriate category o aeroplane at night, including at least 3 hours o dual instruction, including 1 hour o cross-country flight o at least 50 km and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo ull-stop landings.
Certificates 5.20
Instructor Certificate – aeroplanes D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
General A person shall only carry out:
1.
flight instruction in an aeroplane when he/she holds:
• a pilot licence and • an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given 2.
synthetic flight instruction or MCC instruction when he/she holds an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given
8 2
551
28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED Prerequisites and requirements
Minimum age: 18 An instructor must hold the licence, and where relevant, the rating or which the flight instruction is to be given. He/she is to have: • completed at least 15 hours o flight as a pilot on the class or type o aeroplane on which instruction is to be given, o which a maximum o 7 hours may be in an FSTD or • passed an assessment o competence or the relevant category o instructor on that class or type o aeroplane • the entitlement to act as PIC on the aeroplane during such flight instruction Training course The applicant must have undertaken theoretical and flight training at an ATO in accordance to Part-FCL. Assessment o competency The applicant or an instructor certificate must pass an assessment o competency to instruct a student pilot to the level required or the issue o the relevant licence, rating or certificate. Validity An instructor certificate is valid or 3 years.
Specific requirements or a flight instructor (FI) O note are: • in order to instruct or a CPL, the FI must have completed at least 500 hours o flight time as pilot on that category, including at least 200 o flight instruction • in order to instruct or an IR, the FI must have: • at least 200 hours o flight time under IFR, o which 50 hours may be instrument ground time • completed, as a student pilot, the IR training course and passed the assessment o competence or the IRI certificate • or multi-engine aeroplanes, met the requirements o the issue o a class rating instructor (CRI)
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
5.21
Examiner Certificate (Aeroplanes) - FE(A)
General Holders o an examiner certificate shall: • hold an equivalent licence, rating or certificate to the ones or which they are authorized to conduct skills tests, proficiency checks or assessments o competence and the privilege to instruct or them
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552
•
be qualified to act as PIC on the aeroplane during the skills test, proficiency check or assessment o competence
•
undertake a standardization course at an ATO or provided by the competent authority
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
Validity An examiner certificate shall be valid or 3 years. Privileges and conditions The privileges o an FE(A) are to conduct:
• skills tests or the issue o a PPL(A) and skills tests and proficiency checks or associated singlepilot class and type ratings (except or high perormance complex aeroplanes) provided the examiner has completed at least 1000 hours o flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs including at least 250 hours o flight instruction • skills tests or the issue o a CLP(A) and skills tests and proficiency checks or associated singlepilot class and type ratings (except or high perormance complex aeroplanes) provided the examiner has completed at least 2000 hours o flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs including at least 250 hours o flight instruction • skills tests and proficiency checks or an LAPL(A), provided the examiner has completed at least 500 hours o flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs including at least 100 hours o flight instruction
EASA Part-MED 5.22
Abbreviations & definitions AeMC AME CAT GMP OHMP OML OPL OSL
-
Aero-medical centre Aero-medical examiner Commercial air transport General medical practitioner Occupational health medical practitioner Operational multi-pilot limitation Operational passenger limitation Operational saety-pilot limitation
Accredited medical conclusion The conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the licensing authority on the basis o objective and non-discriminatory criteria, or the purpose o the case concerned, in consultation with flight operations or other experts as necessary
D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
Assessment The conclusion on the medical fitness o a person based on the evaluation o the person’s medical history and/or aero-medical examinations as required in this Part and urther examinations as necessary, and/or medical tests such as, but not limited to, ECG, blood pressure measurement, blood testing and X-ray Colour sae The ability o an applicant to readily distinguish the colours used in air navigation and correctly identiy aviation coloured lights
8 2
Limitation A condition placed on the medical certificate, licence or cabin crew medical report that shall be complied with whilst exercising the privileges o the licence or cabin crew attestation
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28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED Medical certificates The ollowing medical certificates at least are required or the different pilot licences:
Student pilot : LAPL PPL CPL MPL ATPL Note • •
: : : : :
shall not fly solo unless a medical certificate is held or the relevant licence LAPL medical certificate Class 2 medical certificate Class 1 medical certificate Class 1 medical certificate Class 1 medical certificate
i a night rating is added to a PPL or LAPL, the licence holder shall be colour sae i an IR is added to a PPL, the licence holder shall undertake audiometry examinations in accordance to the periodicity and standard required or Class 1 medical certificate holders
Decrease in medical fitness Licence holders shall not exercise the privileges o their licence and related ratings or certificates at any time when they:
• are aware o any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to saely exercise those privileges • take or use any prescribed or non-prescribed medication which is likely to interere with the sae exercise o the privileges o the licence • receive any medical, surgical or other treatment that is likely to interere with flight saety In addition, licence holders shall, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice when they: • have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure • have commenced the regular use o any medication • have suffered any significant personal injury involving incapacity to unction as a member o the flight crew
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D
• have been suffering rom any significant illness involving incapacity to unction as a member o the flight crew • are pregnant • have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic • first require correcting lenses In these cases:
2 8
• holders o Class 1 and Class 2 medical certificates shall seek the advice o an AeMC or AME • The AeMC or AME shall assess the medical fitness o the licence holder and decide whether they are fit to resume the exercise o their privileges
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Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED
28
• holders o LAPL medical certificates shall seek the advice o an AeMC, AME or GMP who signed the medical certificate. The AeMC, AME or GMP shall assess the medical fitness o the licence holder and decide whether they are fit to resume the exercise o their privileges
Initial issue o medical certificates Class 1 initial issue by an AeMC Class 2 initial issue by an AeMC or an AME LAPL initial issue by an AeMC, an AME or, i permitted by national law, a GMP
Revalidation and renewal o medical certificates Class 1 and 2 by an AeMC or an AME LAPL by an AeMC, an AME or, i permitted by national law, a GMP Validity, revalidation and renewal o medical certificates Validity Class 1 • 12 months • validity reduced to 6 months or holders who: • are engaged in single-pilot CAT operations carrying passengers and who have reached the age o 40 • have reached the age o 60 Class 2 • 60 months until the holder reaches the age o 40. However, should the certificate be issued prior to reaching 40, it can only be valid to the age o 42 • 24 months between the age o 40 and 50. However, should the certificate be issued prior to reaching 50, it can only be valid to the age o 51 • 12 months afer the age o 50 LAPL • 60 months until the holder reaches the age o 40. However, should the certificate be issued prior to reaching 40, it can only be valid to the age o 42 • 24 months afer the age o 40
Note:
D E M t r a P & L C F t r a P A S A E – m u d n e d d A
validity is calculated rom the date o the medical examination
Revalidation Examination and/or assessments or the revalidation o a medical certificate may be undertaken up to 45 days prior to the expiry date o the medical certificate.
Should the holder not comply, then a renewal examination and/or assessment shall be required. Renewal
8 2
Class 1 & 2 certificates I the holder allows the medical certificate to expire or more than 2 years, the AeMC or AME shall only conduct the renewal examination afer assessment o the aero-medical records o the applicant.
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28
Addendum – EASA Part-FCL & Part-MED I the holder allows the medical certificate to expire or more than 5 years, the examination requirements or initial issue shall apply. Operational limitation codes Operational multi-pilot limitation (OML) - Class 1 only When the holder o a CPL, ATPL or MPL does not ully meet the requirements or a Class 1 medical certificate and has been reerred to the licensing authority, it shall be assessed whether an OML “valid only as or with a qualified co-pilot” is applicable.
The holder then shall only operate an aircraf in multi-pilot operations with a qualified co-pilot, who is not subject to an OML and who has not attained the age o 60. An OML can only be imposed and removed by the licensing authority. Operational Saety Pilot Limitation (OSL) - Class 2 and LAPL The holder with an OSL shall only operate an aircraf i another pilot qualified as PIC is carried on board occupying a seat at the controls and the aircraf is fitted with dual controls.
In the case o a Class 2 certificate, this can be imposed by an AeMC or AME in consultation with the licensing authority. Operational Passenger Limitation (OPL) - Class 2 and LAPL The holder with an OPL shall only operate an aircraf without passengers on board.
A d d e n d u m – E A S A P a r t -F C L & P a r t -M E D 2 8
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Chapter
29 Index
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2 9 I n d e x
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Index
Index 45°/180° Procedure Turn . . . . . . . . . . . . . 181 45-Day rule . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82 80°/260° Procedure Turn . . . . . . . . . . . . . 182
A A/7500 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 248 A/7600 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 248 A/7700 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 248 Accident . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 487 Advisory Airspace . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 Advisory Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 339 Aerodrome Beacon . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 420 Aerodrome Control Service . . . . . . . . . . . 273 Aerodrome obstacles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 439 Aerodrome Reerence Code . . . . . . . . . . 370 Aerodrome Reerence Field Length . . . . 371 Aerodrome Reerence Point . . . . . . . . . . 374 Aeronautical Beacons . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 420 Aeronautical Inormation Circulars (AICs) . . . 352
Aeronautical Inormation Publication (AIP) . . 352
Aeronautical Part . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370 Aeroplane Class Ratings. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 75 Aeroplane search procedure checklist . . 476 Aiming Point Marking . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 397 AIP Amendments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 354 AIP Supplements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 352 AIRAC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . , 354 Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) 249
Aircraf Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 104 Aircraf Markings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 64 Aircraf proximity reports (AIRPROX). . . 281 Aircraf Stand Markings. . . . . . . . . . . . . . 402 AIREP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 281 AIREP SPECIAL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 281 AIRMET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 277 Air Navigation Commission . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Airport Design . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 474 AIRPROX . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 281 Air-side . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370 Air Traffic Advisory Service . . . . . . . . . . . 339 Air Traffic Control Service . . . . . . . . . . . . 273 Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM) . . 276 Air Traffic Incident Reports (ATIR) . . . . . 281 Air Traffic Services (ATS) . . . . . . . . . . . . . 273 AIS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 351 ALERFA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280 Alerting Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 333 Alert phase . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280
29
Altimeter Accuracy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226 Altimeter Setting Procedures . . . . . . . . . 221 Altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 100 Annex 1. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 2. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 3. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 4. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 5. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 6. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 7. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 8. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 9. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 10 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 13 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 14 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 15 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 16 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 17 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Annex 18 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 Applicable law . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24 Approach Control Service . . . . . . . . . . . . 273 Approach Lighting Systems . . . . . . . . . . . 420 Apron . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370 Apron Management Service . . . . . . . . . . 445 Apron Saety Lines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 399 Area Control Centre (ACC) . . . . . . . . . . . 257 ARP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 374 Arrival Segments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 171 Article 37 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 453 Article 38 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 ASDA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 375 ASHTAM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 358 Assembly . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29 ATC Clearance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 108 ATC Clearances . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 274 ATCU . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 ATIS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 278 ATPL(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78 Authority o the Commander . . . . . . . . . . 34 Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS) . . . 280
Automatic Terminal Inormation Service broadcasts (ATIS) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
278
B Barrettes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 420 Base Checks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82 Base Turn . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 183 Basic Instrument Flight Trainer . . . . . . . . . 72
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Index Bermuda Agreement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33 Bilateral Agreements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Buffer zone . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 214
C Cabotage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Calculation o DA/H . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 178 Calculation o MDA/H . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 179 Calvert System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 420 Cargo Maniest. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 455 Carriage o Weapons . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 477 Categories o Aircraf. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 167 Certificate o Airworthiness . . . . . . . . . . . 57 Certification o Registration . . . . . . . . . . . 64 Changing rom IFR to VFR . . . . . . . . . . . . 118 Chicago Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 Circling . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 169 Circling Guidance lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 429 Classes o Airspace . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 Class Ratings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 75 Clearances. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 109 Clearance to Maintain Own Separation in VMC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 293 Clearways . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 379 Closed Runways and Taxiways . . . . . . . . 443 CMC. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 456 CoA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 57 Combination Signs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 408 Commander . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71 Commercial Freedoms . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 32 Commissions and Committees . . . . . . . . . 29 Common Mark . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 64 Common mark registering authority . . . . 64 Communications Failure . . . . . . . . . . . . . 110 Communication with Survivors . . . . . . . . 465 Composite Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 291 Condition o the Movement Area. . . . . . 375 Constant Approach Slope . . . . . . . . . . . . 177 Continuing Airworthiness . . . . . . . . . . . . . 58 Control Areas and Zones . . . . . . . . . . . . . 259 Control Areas (CTAs) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257 Controlled Airspace (CAS) . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 Control o Persons and Vehicles at Aerodromes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 276 Control Zones (CTRs) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257 Co-ordinated Universal Time . . . . . . . . . . 108 Co-pilot . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71 Corrosion Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 58 Council . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29 CPL(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 77 Crew members’ certificates . . . . . . . . . . . 456
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Cross-country flight time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78 Crossing track . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 296 Cruising Levels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 100 Custody and Care o Passengers . . . . . . . 457 Customs and Excise . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
D Danger Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 123 Dangerous Cargo . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Declared Distances . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 374 Delays . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 310 Delays o Flight Plans . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 108 Deportees . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 475 Deportees and Persons in Custody . . . . . 475 Descent Gradient . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 180 Detention on the Ground . . . . . . . . . . . . 475 DETRESFA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280 Direct Entry. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 212 Distress and Urgency Signals . . . . . . . . . . 122 Distress phase . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280 Document 4444 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 273 Documents to be carried in aircraf . . . . . 26 DR segment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 175
E EASA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 39 EASA Theoretical Knowledge Examinations . 82
ECAC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38 EET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 118 Emergency Descent . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 340 Emergency Frequencies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 467 Emergency Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 419 Emergency phase . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 463 Emergency Vehicles . . . . . . . . . . . . . 276 , 441 En route Obstacles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 443 Entry Sectors. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 211 Essential Local Traffic . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 309 Essential Traffic Inormation . . . . . . . . . . 291 EU Directive 94/56 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 491 EU Directive 2003/42 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 491 EU Regulation 261/2004 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 42 Eurocontrol . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40 European Aviation Saety Agency . . . . . . 39 European Civil Aviation Conerence . . . . . 38 Expected Approach Time (EAT) . . . 312 , 337
F Facilitation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 FAF . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 176 FAP . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 176
Index Final Segment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 171 Fire Stations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 445 Fixed Distance Markers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 412 Fixes and Fix Accuracy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 172 Flight Inormation Centre . . . . . . . . . . . . 257 Flight Inormation Regions (FIR) . . . . . . . 257 Flight Inormation Service (FIS) . . . . . . . . 260 Flight Inormation Service Officers (FISOs) . . 277
Flight Levels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 100 Flight Plans . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 106 Flight Procedures Trainer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72 Flight Simulator . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72 Flight Strips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 325 Flight Time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72 Freedoms o the Air . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Fuel Jettison . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 340
G General Declaration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 453 General Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 99 Geneva Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 42 Geographical Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . 294 Ground-Air Visual Signal Code . . . . . . . . 466 Ground Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 274 Ground Servicing to Aircraf . . . . . . . . . . 446
H Hague Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33 High Intensity Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 442 High Seas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24 Holding Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 214 Holding Bays . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 383 Holding Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 209 Horizontal separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 293
I IATA. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38 ICAO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 ICAO Precision Approach C AT I Lighting Sys tem . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 423 ICAO Secretariat. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Identification B eacon. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 420 IFR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 97 Illumination o signs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 409 ILS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 169 Inadmissible Persons . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 477 Inadvertent Changes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 109 INCEFA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280 Incident . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 488 Inormation or Arriving Aircraf. . . . . . . 337
29
Inormation or Departing Aircraf. . . . . 334 Inormation Signs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 406 Initial Segment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 171 Instructor & Examiner Rating . . . . . . . . . . 79 Instructor Rating . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 76 Instrument Departure Procedures . . . . . 153 Instrument Ground Time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72 Instrument Rating (Aeroplane). . . . . . . . . 79 Instrument Runway . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 377 Instrument time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78 Integrated Aeronautical Inormation Package 352
Interception o Civil Aircraf . . . . . . . . . . 112 Interception Phraseology. . . . . . . . . . . . . 113 Intermediate Holding Position Lights . . . 431 Intermediate Holding Position Marking . 402 Intermediate Segment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 171 International Airports . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 369 International Air Services Transit Agreement. 25
International Air Transport Agreement . . 25 International Air Transport Association . . 38 International Civil Aviation Organisation . 23 International Conerence on Civil Aviation 23 Intoxicating Liquor, Narcotics or Drugs . . 99 Investigation. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 488 IR(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 79 Isolated Aircraf Parking Position . . . . . . 385
J JAA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . JAR-FCL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Joint Aviation Authorities . . . . . . . . . . . . .
39 71 39
L Land Afer Clearance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 332 Landing Direction Indicator . . . . . . . . . . 393 Lateral Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 294 Law Enorcement Officers . . . . . . . . . . . . 474 LDA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 375 Least-Risk Bomb . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 477 Level occupancy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 250 Lighting o Aircraf. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 442 Line Checks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82 Location Signs. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 406 Longitudinal Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . 295 Lowest Useable Flight Level. . . . . . . . . . . 221 Low Intensity Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 442 Low Visibility Operations . . . . . . . . . . . . . 276
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Index M Mach meter . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 58 Mach Number Technique . . . . . . . . . . . . 300 Mandatory Inormation Marking . . . . . . 403 Mandatory Instruction Signs . . . . . . . . . . 404 Maniests . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 455 Manoeuvring Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370 Markers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 410 Marking o Droppable Supplies . . . . . . . 467 Marshalling Signals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 132 Medical Report Periods . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 74 Medical Requirements . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 80 Medium Intensity Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . 442 MEHT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 427 Minimum Eye Height . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 427 Minimum flight altitudes . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226 Minimum Sector Altitude . . . . . . . . . . . . 158 Missed Approach Procedure . . . . . . . . . . 171 MOC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 171 Mode 1: Independent Parallel Approaches . . 233
Mode 2: Dependent Parallel Approaches 234 Mode 3: Simultaneous Instrument Depar tures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 236 Mode 4: Segregated Departures/Arrivals 237 Montreal Convention. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33 Mountainous Terrain . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 154 Movement Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 370 MPL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78 MSA. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 158 Multi-pilot operations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78
562
439 157 257 81 371
P PANS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31 PANS ATM. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 273 PAPI . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 427 PAR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 329 Parallel Entry. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 211 Paris Convention . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63 Passenger Baggage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 455 Passengers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 475 Pavement Strengths . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 374 PDG . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 154 Persons in Custody . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 475 Photographic apparatus . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 PIBs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 352 PIC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71 Pilot-in-Command. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 71 Pilot Proficiency Checks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82 Position Reports . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 110 Potentially disruptive passengers . . . . . . 475 PPL(A) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 76 Precision approach . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 168 Precision Approach Category II/III Lighting System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 424 Precision Approach CAT I Lighting System . . . 422
Precision Approach Path Indicators (PAPI) . . .
Nationality mark . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63 NDB . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 169 Night flight time. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78 Non-load-bearing Suraces . . . . . . . . . . . 443 Non-precision . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 169 Non-scheduled flights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Normal Operating Zone (NOZ) . . . . . . . . 238 NOTAM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 352 NOTAM Checklists . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355 No Transgression Zone (NTZ) . . . . . . . . . 238
Pre-flight altimeter check location . . . . . Procedural Separation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Procedure Turn . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Prohibited Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Prohibited Objects . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Prohibited, Restricted and Danger Areas Prohibition o VFR flight . . . . . . . . . . . . . Proximity and Right o Way . . . . . . . . . . Pyroclastic ash plume/cloud . . . . . . . . . .
Obstacle Clearance. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Obstacle Identification Suraces . . . . . . . OCA/H . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Oceanic Control Areas (OCAs) . . . . . . . . Offset Entry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
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N
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O 2 9
OFIS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . OIS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Omni-directional Departures. . . . . . . . . . Open FIR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Operational Multi-crew Limitation (OML) Outer Main Gear Wheel Span . . . . . . . . .
152 439 177 258 212
374 325 181 123 474 258 117 101 359
Q QDM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . QFE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . QNE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . QNH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
396 221 222 221
Index R Racetrack Procedure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 184 Radar Identification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 327 Radar separation standard . . . . . . . . . . . 303 Radar Services. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 326 Radar Vectoring . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 328 Radar vectoring area (RVA). . . . . . . . . . . 328 Radar Wake Turbulence Separation . . . . 308 Radio Altimeter Operating Area . . . . . . . 380 RAN . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Rapid Exit Taxiways . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 381 RCC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 463 Reduced Radar Separation . . . . . . . . . . . 303 Regional Air Navigation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30 Regional Supplementary Procedures . . . . 32 Registration mark. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63 Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL) . . . . . . . . . . . 108 Required Navigation Perormance (RNP) 262 Rescue and Fire Fighting . . . . . . . . . . . . . 444 Rescue co-ordination centre . . . . . . . . . 463 Residency . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 74 Resolution Advisories (RAs) . . . . . . . . . . . 249 Responses by Intercepted Aircraf . . . . . 115 Response time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 445 Restricted, Prohibited or Danger Areas . 123 RFF. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 444 Right o Way . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 101 RNAV. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 159 , 189 RNAV Approach Procedures . . . . . . . . . . 189 Road Holding Position . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 385 Road-holding Position Lights . . . . . . . . . . 431 Road-Holding Position Signs . . . . . . . . . . 409 Rome Convention. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36 Route Designators . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 263 Rules o the Air . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 97 Runway Centre Line Lights . . . . . . . . . . . 429 Runway Centre Line Marking . . . . . . . . . 396 Runway Designation Marking . . . . . . . . . 395 Runway Edge Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 428 Runway End Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 429 Runway End Saety Area (RESA) . . . . . . . 378 Runway Guard Lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 431 Runway Holding Position Marking . . . . . 400 Runway Holding Positions . . . . . . . . . . . . 383 Runway lead–in lights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 429 Runway Markings. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 394 Runways . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 377 Runway Side Stripe Marking . . . . . . . . . . 399 Runway Strips . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 378 Runway Surace Description . . . . . . . . . . 358 Runway Threshold and Wing Bar Lights 428
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Runway Threshold Identification Lights . 428 Runway Touchdown Zone Lights . . . . . . 429 Runway vacated sign . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 407 RVSM. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 120 , 121
S Saety o Passengers and Crew . . . . . . . . 475 SARPs . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 27 SAR Regions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 463 SAR Signals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 466 Scheduled Flight . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25 Search and Rescue . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26 Searching o aircraf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28 Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) . . . . 247 Sector 1 (Parallel Entry) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 211 Sector 2 (Offset Entry) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 212 Sector 3 (Direct Entry) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 212 Security . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 473 Semi-Circular Flight Rules . . . . . . . . . . . . . 120 Separation minima . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 303 Serious incident . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 488 Serious injury . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 488 Shuttle. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 213 SIGMET . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 277 Signal Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 394 Signalling Lamp . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 393 Signals Area . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 127 Signals by Intercepting Aircraf . . . . . . . . 115 Signals or Aerodrome Traffic . . . . . . . . . 124 Simple Approach Lighting System . . . . . 421 Simulated IMC . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 105 Simultaneous Parallel Instrument Approaches 233
Single European Sky (SES) . . . . . . . . . . . . . 42 SNOWCLO . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 357 SNOWTAM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 356 Sovereignty . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24 Special VFR . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121 Speed control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 335 Speed Limit . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 260 Squawk Ident. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 247 SRA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 330 SSR. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 122 Stabilised Approach . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 177 Stacking . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 312 Standard Instrument Departures . . . . . . 155 Standards and Recommended Practices . 23 Stand Markings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 402 State o design . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 488 State o Manuacture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 57 State o occurrence . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 488
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