CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER AIR CRAFT – GENERAL
1.
During cruise, on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and a parameter is found flashing. What does it mean ? a) b. c. d.
2.
It is advisory condition It is level-1 caution It is level-2 caution It is level-3 warning Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear ?
a. b) c. d. 3.
Only on the lower-left area (Left Memo space) of the upper ECAM DU. On the lower left area of the EWD On the right memo space of EWD. Only on the lower right area of the upper ECAM DU. While reading a checklist in the FCOM vol.3 Abnormal and Emergency procedures, how could you know whether it is for red warning (Emergency procedure) or amber caution (Abnormal procedure) ?
a. It is not possible to know. b. If the title box of the C/L is grey, it is the Emergency procedure, c) There are black side boxes on the title box, it is corresponding to Emergency procedure otherwise it is abnormal procedure. d. If there are black-side boxes on the title box, it is corresponding to abnormal procedure otherwise it is Emergency procedure. 4.
How many emergency exits are there on A320 aircraft. a. 8 and all of them can be opened from outside also. b. 10 and all of them can be opened from outside also. c) 10 and only 8 of them can be opened from outside also. d. 8 and they can opened only from inside.
5.
What are the escape devices in A320 cabin. a. b) c. d.
6.
Six S/R (Slide cum raft) Four S/R one on each door As in (b) and 4 slides – two on each side of the center fuselage. As in (b) and 2 slides on each side of the center fuselage. Mark the correct statement.
a. After some failure and / or switching actions, PFD may appear on upper ECAM. b) After some failure and/or switching actions, EWD may appear on any of the Capt or F/O side EFIS DU. c. As in (a) and PFD may appear on lower ECAM also. d. (b) is correct only for Capt. Side EFIS DU. 7.
What are the checklist procedures given in A320 Reference Hand Book. a. b) c. d.
Only the ECAM checklists procedures. Only the checklist procedures that will not appear on ECAM. All the ECAM checklist and non ECAM checklist procedures. As in (c) and they will not be revised.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
8.
A320 TEST PAPER
As per our A320 aircraft cabin layout, when is it necessary to have a minimum of 12 passengers in Executive class ? a. b. c. d)
9.
Always If Economy class has more than 105 passengers. In case both cargo compartments are full. In case of full pay load and no. of passengers in economy class is more than 105. Which aircraft have forward airstairs ?
a) b. c. d. 10.
Only EP series aircraft. All aircrafts. Airstairs are removed from EP series aircraft. Airstairs are removed from ES series aircraft. A particular failure caution message is inhibited during the flight phases 3,4,5,7 and 8. What do you understand by this ?
a) b. c. d. 11.
If the failure occurs during these phases, the ECAM caution is inhibited. This failure will not occur during these phases. The ECAM caution appears only if the failure occur during these phases. As in (a) and the local caution will also be inhibited. What are the precautions for airstair operation ?
a. b) c. d 12.
Aircraft should be on ground and both engines are OFF. Aircraft should be on ground and left engine is OFF. Left engine is OFF and BAT switch is ON. Left engine is OFF, left pax door is open and No.1 Bat Switch is ON. If aircraft has only battery power, is it possible to operate airstair ?
a) Yes, because no battery bus provides power to airstrip operation. b. As in (a) and steplights also can be illuminated with battery power. c. Airstair cannot be operated. 13.
Captain & F/O’s seats in the cockpit. a) b. c. d.
14.
Electrically and mechanically operated. Only mechanically operated. Only electrically operated. As in (b) and shoulder harness has locking facility. When do ‘OPER’ red lights extinguish during airstair extension ?
a. b) c. d.
If airstair is fully extended. As in (a) and when both handrails are extended to door frames. When airstair door is fully open Both (b) and (c) are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 15.
A320 TEST PAPER
On A320 aircraft the passenger seat lay out can be varied to suit the operating requirement upto a certified. a) b. c. d.
16.
Maximum of 179 seats. Maximum of 170 seats + 9 crew Maximum of 168 seats + 9 crew Maximum of 169 seats. The relationship between position and the illumination of the push button is
a. b. c) d. 17.
PB pushed IN – Green light ON PB pushed Out – Blue light ON PB pushed IN – Light OUT PB pushed OUT – Fault light ON White light ON, on the push button switch indicates
a. b) c. d. 18.
Push button switch is normal position. Push button switch is abnormal position. Push button switch is abnormal position is indicated by amber light. There is no white light ON the push button switches. Operation of airstair is possible with
a. Aircraft on ground and both engine stopped. b. Aircraft on ground and left engine stopped. c) Aircraft on ground, left engine stopped and for retraction telescoping hand rails fully retracted. d. Aircraft of on ground, both engines stopped and for retraction, telescoping hand rails fully retracted. 19.
If flight due to some failure in electrical system, only Captain’s auto EFIS DU and, upper ECAM DU are powered; DMC1 is powered. Which display functions are available. a. b) c. d.
20
PFD, EWD As in (a) and ND, SD can be obtained by using relevant transfers. As in (a) and by transfer ND can be obtained; but SD is lost for ever. As in (a) and ND, SD are lost for ever. What happens to the escape device (slide or slide cum raft) when an exit is opened from outside?
a. b. c) d. 21.
They automatically get disarmed. (a) is true for overwing windows only. (a) is true for cabin doors only. (a) is true for all doors and overwing windows. On ground, with both engines stopped and doors disarmed when would the red light doors flash.
a. b) c. d.
When he door opening is stated. If cabin different pr. Is more than 2.5 mbar As in (b) and if door opening is started. (a) is correct only when the door is opened from outside.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER
DOORS 1.
When will the red ‘CABIN PRESSURE’ light on Cabin Doors flash ? a. When the door is opened in ARM position. b) If cabin differential pressure 2.5 mbar exists after both engines are shut down and door disarmed. c. With all conditions given in (b) satisfied and when the door is open. d. If cabin differential pressure exceeds a 2.5 mbar after both engines are shut down.
2.
What are the emergency escape devices fitted on A320 aircraft ? a) b. c. d.
3
When would the SLIDE ARMED light located between the emergency windows illuminate ? a. b. c. d.
4.
When any one cover flap – that covers the window operating handle – is removed. When both cover flaps on the 2 emergency windows are removed. As in (a) and it shall be known in the cockpit. As in (a) and it shall be known in the cockpit by the change of colour of window symbol on DOOR ECAM page. Cargo doors on A320 aircraft.
a) b c. d. 5.
4 single lane slide / rafts, 2 dual lane slides, 2 escape ropes. 4 single lane slide, 2 dual lane slide / rafts, escape ropes. 4 single lane slide / rafts , 2 dual lane sides. 4 single lane slides, 2 dual lane slide / rafts.
Mechanically locked hydraulically operated and can be operated from the exterior only. Hydraulically operated and locked and can be operated from the exterior only. Mechanically locked, Hydraulically operated, can be operated from exterior or interior. Mechanically locked and operated from the exterior to interior. The SLIDE ARMED light on cabin door will illuminate, if the
a. Control handle is operated when the slide is DISARMED & CABIN PRESSURE indication appears in Black. b) Control handle is operated when the slide is ARMED and SLIDE ARMED appears in black. c. Control handle is operated when cabin differential pressure is above 2.5mbars, CABIN PRESSURE appears in black. d. Flashes with both engines stopped, the slides are disarmed and the cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 M Bars. 6.
Which of the statements is correct. a. All the cabin doors can be operated from inside or outside the aircraft, including the emergency operation. b) All the cabin doors can be opened from inside and outside the aircraft, but emergency operation of the door is possible from inside only. c. All the cabin doors can be opened from inside only including the emergency operation. d. All the cabin doors can be opened from outside and inside but emergency operation is possible from outside.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
7.
A320 TEST PAPER
How many emergency exits are there in A320 aircraft. a. b. c) d.
8 and all of them can be opened from outside also. 10 and all of them can be opened from outside also. 10 and only 8 of them can be opened from outside also. 8 and they can be opened only from inside.
a. b. c) d.
What is the escape provision in A320 Cockpit. 2 sliding windows 1 sliding window As in (a) and to evacuate through them there are 2 escape ropes. As in (b) to evacuate through if there is an escape rope.
8.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER A.P.U
1.
When will the APU air intake flat open a) b. c. d.
2.
After Master Switch is set to ON. As in (a) and after pressing STA pb switch to ON (a) is correct only for APU battery start (b) is correct for any APU start. When would be APU ECAM page appears on SD
a. As soon as selecting master switch is ON b. When APU Master Switch to ON and aircraft is powered either by OPU or by engine generator c) As in (b) and also if an advisory condition arise. d. (a) is correct even for battery start. 3.
What are the maximum altitudes upto which pneumatic and electrical power shall be extracted from APU. a) b. c. d.
4.
20000, 39000 feet respectively. 39000 feet for both loads. 25,000, 30,000 feet respectively. 25000 feet for both loads. Aircraft is powered by EXT power, during APU start, when would you observe the EGT rise on APU ECAM page.
a. b. c. d.
As soon as START pb is pressed. 20 seconds after pressing master switch to ON. After N value reads 7% 2 seconds after pressing START pb switch to ON.
a. b. c. d)
Is there any difference between APU ground operation and in flight operation as far as APU fire is concerned No. Yes, in flight, APU fire causes auto shut down of APU but not on ground. Yes, on ground APU shuts down automatically due to fire but not in flight. As in (c) and also on ground automatically fire bottle will be discharged but not in flight.
5.
6.
When would the FLAP OPEN message become advisory a. If air intake flap is not open in 20 seconds after selected master switch on. b. If air intake flap is not fully closed after 3 minutes after MASTER switch has been set to OFF c. If flaps is closed when APU is running. d) There is no advisory for ‘Flap Open’
7. a. b) b. d.
In which phase of flight, APU start is initiated. After LIG CA & upto time when speed reduces below 100 kms. (a) is correct only in case of emergency electrical configuration. Immediately after loss of all normal generators, until the speed is reduced to 100 knots. Between RAT extension and DG extension.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 8.
A320 TEST PAPER
What are the indications when APU reach 95% a. b. c) d.
9.
Nothing AVAIL on START pb switch and APU ECAM page. As in (b) and also APU AVAIL memo on upper ECAM As in (c) but all these indications go off when either APU generator is used or APU bleed is used. For starting APU
a. Minimum batteries voltage required is 25.5 volts. b. APU start on batteries is inoperative during 45 seconds following BAT pbs switching at AUTO ( in EP series aircraft) c. If APU is started to batteries only, it should be started within 30 minutes after selection of batteries to AUTO d) All the above are correct. 10.
Identify the correct limitation for APU. a. When OIL QTY BELOW ¼ appears in ECAM APU page remaining oil quantity allows normal APU operation for a further 30 hours. b. After 3 starter motor duly cycles separated by 1 minute cool down, 2 hours must be allowed for cooling. c. Rotor maximum speed is 100% d) Highest EET maximum for starting 1038 Deg C.
11.
All the wing tank fuel pumps are off, how will APU get the fuel supply ? a. b) c. d.
12.
By APU LP fuel pump, but not if aircraft is powered only by battery. BY APU LP fuel pump even if aircraft is powered only by batteries. As in (a) and APU LP fuel pump starts after the START pb is pressed. As in (b) and APU LP fuel pump starts after the START pb is pressed. What is the reason for APU EMER SHUT DOWN title on upper ECAM
a. b. c. d) 13.
Due to auto shut down of APU APU fire push button pressed. APU fire on ground. Both (b) and (c) are correct. What is 60-120 seconds of cooling time provided for APU
a. b. c) d. 14.
Whenever bled power is switched off. Whenever electrical power is switched of. During normal shut down if bleed power was used. None of the above. EGT maximum for APU is calculated by ECB, it is a function of
a. b. c. d)
It during start Ambient temperature when APU is running N during start and ambient pressure when APU is running Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 15.
A320 TEST PAPER
Which abnormalities of APU oil system will cause the auto shut down of APU. a. Low Oil Level, High Oil Temp, Low Oil Pressure (b) Low Oil Pressure, High Oil Temperature c. Low Oil Level only d. None of the abnormalities in oil system.
16.
In flight, APU AUTO SHUT DOWN failure message appears what will be your action ? a) Follow the checklist b. Disregard ECAM checklist, keep APU Master switch is ON position for 15 minutes and then switch it off. c. Disregard ECAM checklist, make one attempt to restart APU without any delay. d. No action, since APU is automatically stopped.
17.
On ground, batteries only power the aircraft when would the APU LP fuel pump run. a. b. c. d)
18.
After pressing START pb. Switch to ON. 20 seconds after selecting Master Switch to ON. As soon as selecting Master Switch to ON. (c) is correct since tank fuel pumps are not powered when only batteries are available. Will APU rpm vary with different pneumatic loads? What causes this change. If any ?
a. There will be no rpm change. b. N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB. c. N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB and by changing IGV position. d) N would vary with pneumatic load and it is effected by ECB and by changing IGV position. 19.
APU operating under air demand, and APU shut down is initiated by the APU shut off switch on the nose interphone panel. a) b. c. d.
Fuel flow is immediately interrupted. Fuel flow is maintained for APU cooling and then stopped. Fuel flow is not affected by the APU shut down. Fuel flow is not affected., but APU shut downs immediately.
a. b. c. d)
In case of APU fire on ground APU shuts down immediately. APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle to be discharged. APU shuts down fire pb is pressed and fire bottle is fired. APU shuts down immediately and fire bottle is discharged automatically.
20.
21.
APU generator load can be used upto a. b. c. d)
20,000 feet 25,000 feet 31,000 feet 39,000 feet
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CTE – IAL – HYD
22.
A320 TEST PAPER
When APU master switch is pressed to OFF, a normal shut down occurs a) b. c. d.
23.
Without a delay, if bleed power was not used. With a delay, in any case. With a delay, if bleed air is used. With a delay, if electrical power is used. When does APU fuel pump run
a. b. c) d. 24.
As soon as Master Switch is set to ON. As soon as low pressure is detected. As soon as the Master Switch is set to OFF and if fuel pressure is not adequate. As soon as the Master switch is set to ON. Start is initiated and low pressure is detected. Which oil system warning causes APU auto shut down ?
a. b. c) d. 25.
Low Oil Level, High Oil temp and low oil pressure. Low Oil Level and Low Oil Pressure Low Oil Pressure and High Oil temp High Oil temp and Low Oil level. Can APU continue to run if the oil level is low.
a. b) c. d. 26.
No, the oil level must be correct otherwise APU shuts down. Yes, the APU can be run for 10 hrs only Yes, the ECB initiates an AUTO shut down if required. There is no oil low level indication. What system logics are performed by the Electronic Control Box (ECB)
a. sequence and monitoring of start, monitoring of bleed, Automatic Shut Down. b. sequence and monitoring of start, speed and temperature monitoring, sequence of normal shutdown and automatic shut down. c. sequence and monitoring of start, speed and temperature monitoring; monitoring of bleed and auto shut down d) sequence and monitoring of start, speed and temperature monitoring, monitoring of bleed, sequence of shut down and auto shut down. 27.
What are the indications when the start sequence is completed. a. b. c. d)
28.
AVAIL light illuminate on the start switch and ON light goes OFF AVAIL indication comes on the APU page. APU AVAIL memo is displayed. All the above are correct. APU master switch is selected ON what happens ?
a. APU system is supplied, Air intake flap open, APU fuel isolation valve opens b. APU system is supplied, ECB carries out the power up TEST, APU fuel isolation valve opens, APU fuel pump operates to pressure is low. c. APU ECB carries out the power up TEST, APU fuel isolation valve opens, APU fuel pump operates if low pressure, for solenoid valve opens, air intake flap opens. d) APU system is supplied, ECB carries out the power up TEST, APU fuel isolation valve opens, APU fuel pump operates to pressure, air intake flap opens.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 29.
A320 TEST PAPER
During APU start, APU system page appears on the lower ECAM if a) APU master switch is selected ON and ground power or main generator power is used. b. APU master switch ON, and starter button is pushed. c. APU master switch ON, starter button ON, then either ground power or main generator is used. d. Ground power or main generator power is used.
30.
In the event of High Oil Temp, APU a) b. c. d.
Shuts down immediately by ECB without cooling period. Shuts down immediately by ECB only on ground. Requires normal shut down. Requires emergency shut down.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER ELECTRICAL
1.
What happens to DC busses when TR 1 fails ? a) b. c. d.
2.
All busses are available by auto reconfiguration by using TR 2 and ESS TR DC BUS 1 DC BAT BUS are lost DC BUS 1 is lost. DC BAT BUS is lost till 100 KTS Which busses are lost if TR 1, TR 2 had failed?
a. b. c) d. 3.
No bus is lost. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS, DC BUS 2 DC BAT BUS after landing gear extension. After loss of all normal generators when would SHED indication for AC & DC ESS Busses appear on ELEC ECAM page ?
a. b. c. d) 4.
From the time all normal generators had failed. When landing gear is extended. During RAT extension time. When (b) and (c) are correct. In a flight, where APU is not working what happens when GEN 1 falls.?
a. b. c) d. 5.
Most of the busses are lost; only NO. 2 busses are available. GEN 2 can feed all busses. As in (b) but main galley is shed automatically. As in (a) and ESS TR will come into use. In normal electrical configuration (GEN 1, GEN 2 are ON) is there any of us that is not energized.
a) b. c. d. 6.
Yes; AC STAT INV BUS Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC GND FLT BUS, DC GND FLT BUS Yes; AC STAT INV BUS, AC S No. Which of the following is NOT possible ?
a) b. c. d. 7.
APU GEN powering AC BUS 1 and the same time GPU powering AC BUS GEN 1 powering both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 GEN 1 powering AC BUS 1 and APU GEN powering AC BUS 2 GPU powering AC BUS 1 and GEN 2 powering AC BUS 2. Out of the four possible sources (GEN1 , 2, APU, GEN, EXT PWR) which has the least priority to power AC BUS 2
a. b. c) d.
APU GEN EXT PWR GEN 1 Whichever source is selected last.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 8.
A320 TEST PAPER
In the normal electrical configuration, if AC BUS 1 is lost for any reason, what will happen to AC ESS BUS and also to AC ESS SHED BUS a. They are lost and can be regained only by Emer generator b. They are powered automatically from AC BUS 2 c. They are lost but can be regained from AC BUS 2 pressing AC ESS FEED pb switch to ALTN d) As in (c) and AC BUS 2 will then feed DC ESS BUS and DC ESS SHED BUS also through AC ESS BUS and ESS TR
9.
What is recommended action when IDG OUTLET TEMP is at or above 147 Deg C (advisory) a. b. c. d)
10.
No action. Follow upper ECAM procedure Disconnect IDG Switch off galley or GEN, if required restore when the temperature drops. With Batt Switch at AUTO, when would BCL disconnect battery contractors (Assume aircraft is on ground)
a. b. c) d. 11.
When battery voltage is below 26.5 volts. When battery voltage is below 28 volts. When charging current reduces to 4 Amp. When charging current rises to 4 Amp or more. After all normal generator failure and emergency generator supplying in flight, If GEN 1 is recovered which source will power the ESS buses ?
a. GEN 1 b) Emergency generator c. Emergency generator and if EMER GEN MAN ON pb switch is pressed, GEN 1 will feed ESS busses. d. GEN 1 and if EMER GEN MAN ON pb switch is pressed, EMER GEN will fee ESS busses. 12.
In Emer Elec configuration, after landing gear extension, if landing gear is retracted again which source will feed the AC ESS BUS a. b. c. d)
13.
EMER BUS STAT INV EMER GEN only after RAT & EMER GN MAN ON pb switch is pressed. Both (b) and (c) are correct. Mark the correct statement ?
a. AC/DC ESS SHED BUS are powered whenever AC/DC ESS BUS are powered. b) When EMER GEN is running, after loss of normal generators, AC/DC ESS SHED busses are powered c. AC/DC ESS SHED busses are powered during EMER GEN TEST (on ground) d. When batteries are the only source. AC ESS Bus are powered only upto 50 kts.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
14.
A320 TEST PAPER
What precautions are to be observed while disconnecting IDG? a. b. c. d)
15.
Disconnection is not to be done when engine is running Disconnection is not to be done when engine is not wind milling or speed is below idle. As in (a) and IDG pb switch should be pressed for minimum of 3 seconds. As in (b) and IDG pb switch should not be pressed for more than 3 seconds. What are the actions to be carried out to bring electrical network to smoke configuration?
a. Press Gen 1 LINE switch to OFF, RAT and EMER GEN MAN ON. Switch to ON, APU GEN and GEN 2 Switch to OFF. b. Press GEN 1 Line switch to OFF; RAT MAN ON Switch to ON; Press BUS TIE switch to OFF. c) As in (a) and EMER GEN will provide the DC / AC ESS and SHED busses. d. As in (b) and EMER GEN will provide the DC/ AC ESS and SHED busses 16.
When both generators fail (APU U/S) the AC ESS BUS is fed from a. b. c. d)
17.
BAT 1 through STAT INV till RAT extends Emergency generator when RAT extends (L/G UP) AC ESS BUS is not powered below 50 kts speed All the above are correct. If the landing gear fails to retract during a go-around, when in emergency configuration (i.e. with batteries only)
a. The emergency generator can be recovered. b. The emergency generator cannot be recovered. c) The emergency generator can be recovered by pulling the LGCIU 1 C/B and pressing EMER ELEC PWR MAN ON pb d. The emergency generator cannot be recovered. Batteries are available for 22 minutes. 18.
On EMER ELEC PWR panel to RAT & EMER GEN ‘FAULT’ light illuminates red. a. If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail in flight b. If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail in flight with landing gear in UP position. c) If AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail in flight with landing gear in UP position and emergency does not feed the ESS busses. d. If AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2 fail in flight with landing gear in UP position and emergency generator does not take over irrespective of LDG GEAR position.
19.
ESS TR parameters on ECAM ELEC page. a. b) c. d.
Are always displayed Are displayed only when ESS TR is in operation. Are displayed only when ESS TR parameters exceed the limitations. None of the above is correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
20.
A320 TEST PAPER
Galley “FAULT’ light comes to ELEC panel with ECAM caution a. b) c. d.
21.
When the galley is shed. When any operating generator load is greater than 100% When only Gen 1 or Gen 2 load is greater than 100% None of the above is correct. BUS TIE pb switches OFF only GEN 1 is available. Which busses are not powered.
a. b. c) d. 22.
AC BUS 2, DC BUS 2 All busses are powered. AC BUS 2 AC BUS 2, DC ESS BUS, DC ESS SHED BUS APU generated is powering the electrical network. Now GPU AVAIL light comes on in Cockpit. What changes will take place ?
a) No change. b. APU GLC will be tripped and ground power will feed all busses since GPU has priority over APU c. Both APU generator and GPU will feed all busses. d. APU generator will feed AC ESS BUS 1 and GPU will feed AC BUS 2 23.
Ground power is connected to all busses. After engine 1 is started (GEN 1 is switched on). What changes will takes place ? a. b) c. d.
24.
No change. GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, BTC 1 trips, GPU continues to feed AC BUS 2 GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, through BTC 1 and BTC 2 it feeds AC BUS 2 also. GEN 1 feeds AC BUS 1, AC BUS 2 is not powered. What will happen to batteries during APU start (Battery switches are in AUTO)
a. Both batteries are connected to DC BAT BUS till APU rpm reaches 95% b) As in (a) and it is restricted to only 3 minutes when EMER GEN is running. c. As in (a) and it is restricted to only 3 minutes when electrical busses are powered by any generator. d. As in (b) but battery contactors will open when APU reaches 50% i.e. when APU starter motor is disengaged. 25.
After all generators failure & L/G extension, what are the conditions for static invertor to be activated ? a) b. c. d.
Battery 1 and 2 switches must be in AUTO, If speed is less than 50 kts. Battery 1 switch must be in AUTO, if speed is less than 50 kts. Battery switch must be in AUTO, irrespective of speed. Battery 1 switch must be in AUTO, irrespective of speed.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 26.
A320 TEST PAPER
When MAINT BUS switch is selected to ON which busses will be powered a. b. c. d)
27.
AC BUS 2, DC BUS 2 AC GND / FLT BUS, DC GND / FLT BUS As in (a) and TR 2 is in use. As in (b) and TR 2 in use AOG what happens if battery switches are left at AUTO during parking the aircraft for a long time (Night Halt)
a. b) c. d. 28.
Batteries are completely discharged by morning time. Battery contactors would auto open, when battery voltage drops below 22 or 23 V Nothing happens, since static inverter will not work when speed is less than 50 kts Battery switch is auto trips to OFF when battery voltage drops to or 23 V What are the conditions for automatic deployment of EMER G EN & feeding the ESS busses.
a. AC BUS 1 OFF b) AC BUS 1 OFF L/G UP c. AC BUS 1 OFF L/G UP d. AC BUS 1 OFF L/G UP 29.
+ AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts. + AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts + NOSE + AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts + MAIN OR AC BUS 2 OFF + ADIRS greater than 100 kts + NOSE
What is the electrical configuration with loss of all main generators – EMER GEN not running in flight a) Battery 1 through static inverter feeds AC STAT INV Bus and AC ESS BUS, Battery 2 feeds the DC ESS BUS b. DC BAT BUS feeds the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS c. Battery 1 through static inverter feeds the AC ESS BUS and AC ESS SHED BUS and Battery 2 feed the DC ESS BUS and DC ESS SHED BUS d. Battery 1 feeds the AC ESS BUS through Static Inverter and Battery 2 feeds the DC ESS BUS and DC BAT BUS is powered by both the batteries.
30.
GALLEY SHED message on Elect page indicates a) b. c. d.
31.
Main GALLEY are SHED secondary Galley are shed FWD Galley power are shed. Aft Galley power are shed Which of the following is a possible operation.
a. When engine 1 is operating APU GEN can be connected to AC BUS 1 b. As long as GEN 1 supplies to AC BUS 1 and 2, APU GEN cannot be connected to AC BUS 2 c. EPC of GPU trips automatically when APU reaches normal speed. d) APU GLC trips automatically when GPU’s EPC is closed.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 32.
A320 TEST PAPER
ESS TR parameters can be observed a. b. c) d.
33.
During normal configuration, on the electrical page. During emergency configuration with batteries only. During ESS TR operation, on electrical page. None of the above is correct. What happens when TR 1 fails.
a. b. c. d) 34.
DC BUS 1 power is lost. DC BUS 1 and BAT BUS are lost. DC BUS 2 gives power to DC ESS BUS ESS TR operates from AC ESS BUS For normal electrical power operation which of the following are not in operation.
a. AC ESS BUS , DC ESS BUS and AC STAT INV BUS b) ESS TR, EMER GEN, STAT INV and STAT INV AC BUS c. ESS TR, EMER GEN, AC ESS BUS d. ESS TR, AC ESS BUS, DC ESS BUS 35.
The drive for emergency generator is a) b. c. d.
36.
RAT operated hydraulic motor. Blue system electrical pump. Ram Air Turbine None of the above. What is the difference in system operation when (1) MAN ON pb is selected on, EMER ELEC PWR panel and (2) RAT MAN on HYD control panel.
a. Action (1) will extend RAT and connects emergency generator output to busses. b. Action (2) will extend only the RAT and emergency generator will not operate. c. Action (2) will extend the RAT and will be feeding ESS Busses provided nose landing gear is UP d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 37.
ECAM ELEC page is automatically called during a) b. c. d.
38.
Emergency generator test Static inverter test Both (a) and (b) In both the cases page has to be manually called. If emergency generator does not come into operation in case of loss of main generators, the following warnings are triggered.
a. b) c. d.
EMER CONFIG + MW + CRC + ELEC page is called. RAT EMER GEN FAULT light comes on RED ESS busses on BAT + MC + SC + ELEC page is called. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
39.
A320 TEST PAPER
During emergency configuration , if any one generator is recovered (say GEN 1) a. b. c. d)
40.
GEN 1 will feed all the buses. EMER GEN continue to feed AC and DC EMERG busses. When L/G is selected DOWN GEN 1 will feed all the buses and EMER GEN is cut off. Both (b) and (c) are correct Fault light on Battery switch will illuminate
a) b. c. d. 41.
If charging current increases abnormally If discharging current increases abnormally. Automatic disconnection does not take place. All of the above. When IDG 1 OIL OUTLET temperature raises to advisory, what is the action required.
a. b. c) d. 42.
Follow ECAM action. Disconnect IDG 1 Switch off GEN 1 and reengage if temperature is below advisory. Disconnect IDG 1 and reengage is temperature is below advisory. On ECAM ELEC page % load on the source is indicated for
a b) c. d 43.
APU, GEN 1, GEN 2, and EXT PWR GEN 1, GEN 2 and APU GEN GEN 1, GEN 2 & STAT INV APU GEN 1, GEN 2 & EMER GEN On the ECAM ELEC page shed appears amber if
a. b. c) d. 44.
AC ESS BUS is shed DC ESS BUS is shed AC and DC ESS SHED buses are shed AC and DC ESS SHED busses are powered. In case of loss of all AC sources the STAT INV powers
a) b. c. d. 45.
only AC STAT INV Bus below 50 kts Both AC STAT INV BUS and AC ESS BUSES below 50 kts. AC ESS & SHED Buses above 50 kts AC ESS & AC STAT INV BUS all the time. Mark the correct statement.
a. b. c. d)
When AC BUS 1 fails AC BUS 2 automatically powers AC ESS BUS. When AC BUS 1 fails , EMER GEN automatically powers AC ESS BUS Shed appears below AC ESS on ELEC page when AC ESS BUS is lost. During its operation Emergency Generator has priority over any other source to power AC ESS BUS.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
46.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the advisory message in Electrical system. a. b) c. d.
47.
IDG LO PR IDG Temp > 147 Deg. IDG DISC Both (a) and (b) Is it necessary to have the Blue Hydraulic system to be pressurized for EMER TEST on ground ? How can it be done ?
a. No. Blue system hydraulic pressure is not necessary. b) Yes. Just by selecting Blue Pump over ride switch to ON c. Yes, after selecting Blue Pump over ride switch to ON and then selecting Blue Pump switch to AUTO d. Yes, by pressing RAT MAN ON switch either on EMER ELEC power panel or on HYD panel. 48.
In a stationary aircraft with no AC source available. Which AC buses are available. a) b. c. d.
49.
AC STAT INV BUS, if both batt. Switches are at AUTO AC STAT INV, AC ESS BUS if both battery switches are at AUTO AC STAT INV even if battery switches are off. AC STAT INV, if BATT 1 switch is at AUTO. Which conditions would cause the failure of TR ?
a. b. c) d. 50.
Over voltage, under voltage, over current, minimum current. Over current, short circuit, over heat Overheat, minimum current Overheat, zero current. On Elec panel GEN 1, GEN 2, APU GEN switches are at OFF, what indications will be present.
a. b. c. d. 51.
OFF white light on all 3 switches. OFF FAULT lights on all 3 switches. As in (a) and ECAM caution. As in (b) and ECAM caution. On one of the O/H panel switches, say GEN 1 OFF white lt illuminates. What does it mean?
a. b. c) d.
GEN 1 has failed. That switch is in normal position. That switch is in abnormal position. As in (a) and will trigger the level 3 warning.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
52.
A320 TEST PAPER
EMER GEN TEST pb switch is pressed and held a. AC ESS BUS & DC ESS BUSES are supplied by emergency generator when AC NORMAL buses are supplied. b. AC ESS SHED BUS & DC ESS SHED Buses are powered by emergency gen when AC NORMAL BUSES are supplied. c) As in (a) and static inverter powers the AC ESS BUS when batteries supply the aircraft d. All the above are correct.
53.
Mark the correct statement. a. When the non-monitored CB’s are out for more than 1 minute, the CB TRIPPED warning is triggered on ECAM. b. Monitored CBs when they are out for more than one minute, the CB TRIPPED warning is triggered on the ECAM. c. Normal function of CB are to protect wiring against short circuits and to reset digital computers. d) Both (b) and (c)
54.
GALLEY SHED indicator on electrical page appears when a. b. c) d.
GALLEY Push Button switch is OFF. Load on any generator is more than 100% of rated output. As in (a) and the main galleys are shed. All the above are correct
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER LIGHTS
1.
Which are the lights available, after the loss of all generator in the cockpit. a) b c. d.
2.
RHS dome light, STBY compass light, LHS main instrument panel light. LHS dome light, STBY compass light and LHS main instrument panel light. LHS dome light, STBY compass light, RHS main instrument panel light. RHS dome light, RHS main instrument panel light and STBY compass light. During a normal international flight when would the EXIT signs come on ?
a. b. c. d) 3.
Throughout the flight. It never comes on, since the flight is normal. Whenever the NO SMOKING SIGN comes ON As in (c) and automatically whenever landing gear is selected down. EMER LIGHTS switch in cockpit is at ARM, after the loss of all generators when will EXIT signs comes on and what will be the power supply for that.
a. b. c) d. 4.
After RAT extension, by emergency generation (i.e. DC SHED ESS BUS) After L/G extension by 6 V EPSU Immediately after all generators fall by EPSU After L/G extension by DC ESS BUS. Aircraft is powered by external power cockpit EMER LT switch is OFF position. What will happen when LIGHT EMER pb on forward attendant panel is pressed ?
a. b) c. d. 5.
Nothing All emergency lights illuminate. As in (b) and 6 V batteries power those lights. As in (b) and DC SHED ESS through 6V converter power these lights. Which emergency lights would illuminate in Electrical Emergency config. (emergency generator connected to buses)
a. b) c. d. 6.
Floor path marking lights, cabin emergency lights and exit signs illuminate. Floor path marking lights only illuminate. Cabin emergency light and exit signs only illuminate. Floor path marking lights and exit signs only illuminate. In case of excessive cabin altitude d(11300 + /- 350”) which of the following lights illuminate along with NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT & RETURN TO SEAT LIGHTS.
a. b. c) d.
None Overhead emergency lights Exit signs Floor path marking lights.
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7.
A320 TEST PAPER
NO SMOKING switch is in AUTO what happens when Landing gear extended ? a. b. c) d.
8.
NO SMOKING & FASTEN SEAT BELT signs illuminate NO SMOKING & EXIT signs illuminate NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT & EXIT signs illuminate L & R dome light , stand by compass light and main instrument panel light illuminate. In emergency config. (Emergency generator connected to buses)
a) b c. d. 9.
Floor path marking lights, cabin emergency lights and exit signs illuminate. Floor path marking lights only illuminate. Cabin emergency light and exit signs only illuminate. Floor path marking lights and exit signs only illuminate. The following external lights when selected ON, are controlled through landing gear strut operation
a. b. c. d) 10.
NAV & LOGO lights come ON, Nose and RWY TURN lights come ON NAV & LOGO lights come ON, STROBE lights come ON with switch in AUTO LOGO lights come ON, STROBE lights go OFF, with switch in AUTO All of the above are wrong. In emergency config. (Emergency generator line contactor tripped)
a) b c. d.
Floor path marking lights, cabin emergency lights and exit signs illuminate. Floor path marking lights only illuminate. Cabin emergency light and exit signs only illuminate. Floor path marking lights and exit signs only illuminate.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER
PNEUMATICS
1.
When does the engine bleed valve automatically close ? a. b. c. d)
2.
During engine start. When engine fire push button is pressed. When APU bleed valve is opened. In all of the above. With cross bleed selector in AUTO, engine & APU bleeds selected ON and available the
a. b) c. d. 3.
Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve opens & Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve opens & Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve closes & Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve closes &
APU bleed valve closes. APU bleed valve opens. APU bleed valve opens. APU bleed valve opens.
Failure of one BMC causes. a. b. c) d.
4.
Associated bleed valve closure. Illumination of Master caution and single chime The other BMC to take over the monitoring of the bleed system. All the above are correct. Mark the correct statement.
a. b) c. d.
5
Two packs using single engine bleed is not permitted. with one engine bleed one pack only if wing anti ice is ON With APU bleed only one pack is permitted. With one engine bleed fault, do not switch off the associated bleed push button it will open the cross bleed valve. Each BMC is provided with
a) b. c. d. 6.
Bleed presser, temperature and valves position information. Ambient presser and temperature information. Ambient Temperature and pack valves position information. Only APU bleed valve position information In case of pressure regulation failure, the over pressure valve (OPV) closed when pressure is
a. b. c) d.
Less than 8 psi Equal to 44 psi More than 85 psi More than 35 psi
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CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
Overheat of pre cooler outlet temperature is detected when temperature a. b. c. d)
8.
Exceeds 160 Deg. C for more than 60 seconds. Exceeds 200 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds. Exceeds 225 Deg. C for more than 15 seconds. Exceeds 257 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds. When does the BMC detect temperature.
a) b. c. d. 9.
Above 57 psi Above 85 psi Above 44 psi Above 35 psi In cross bleed valve, position disagrees with selected position, the warning are
a. b. c. d) 10.
Cross bleed fault light on the Overhead (OVHD) panel Only Master Caution Light Only single chime Single chime, Master Caution and Bleed page. With one BMC failure, if there is an over pressure on associated bleed systems, what will happens ?
a) b. c. d. 11.
ENGINE BLEED FAULT ECAM warning is available. FAULT lights on the respective bleed switch will illuminate. Associated bleed valve will close automatically. All of the above are correct. BLEED FAULT light comes on if
a. b. c. d) 12.
Engine bleed pb is selected to OFF Engine bleed valve is closed during engine start. The HP valve is closed. Over pressure occurs down a stream of the bleed valve. The HP valve is automatically closed electrically when
a. b) c. d. 13.
In case of low upstream pressure. Wing anti ice is OFF and upstream HP valve pressure is > 110 psi, with two packs ON In case of excessive upstream pressure. Intermediate pressure check valve opens. If both detection loops are inoperative in one wing the warnings are
a. b. c) d.
Master caution light, Single chime and BLEED page Master caution light and Single chime only Only BLEED page is called. Only MASTER CAUT light
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CTE – IAL – HYD
14.
A320 TEST PAPER
The engine bleed regulated pressure is abnormal. a. b. c. d)
15.
Engine Bleed Fault light comes ON. Engine Bleed Fault light does not come ON Single Chime, Master Caution light and BLEED page is called. Both (b) and (c) are correct. When BMC 1 fails, what is the function of BMC 2
a. If monitors, detects & protects Engine 1 Bleed system. b. It looks after only its Engine Bleed system. c) ENG 1 Bleed system & ENG 2 Bleed leak system are monitored along with ENG 1 O /P and O/TEMP conditions. d. BMC 2 looks after entire functions including that of BMC 1. 16.
When will engine bleed valve automatically go to close position. a. b. c. d)
17.
During engine start. When engine fire push button is pressed. When APU bleed valve is open. In all of the above cases. Cross bleed selector in AUTO, engine and APU bleed switches are ON. What are the positions of different bleed valves.
a. b) c. d. 18.
Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve opens & Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve opens & Engine bleed valve open, cross bleed valve closes & Engine bleed valve close, cross bleed valve closes &
APU bleed valve closes. APU bleed valve opens. APU bleed valve opens. APU bleed valve opens.
What happens when BMC 1 fails a. b. c) d.
19.
Left engine leak detection is lost. Left wing leak detection is lost. As in (a) and APU leak detection is also lost. As in (b) and APU leak detection is also lost. Engine bleed valve switch is ON, when will the Engine bleed valve close ?
a. b. c) d.
In the absence of air pressure. In case of reverse flow. As in (a) and above and closure will cause the HP valve to close. When the cross bleed valve selected to close.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
1.
Mark the correct statement. a. All the stats in the aircraft are anti iced. b. On ground when the wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remain open. c. In case of leak detection wing anti ice valves remain open. d) In case of electrical power supply failure wing anti ice valves will close.
2.
When engine anti ice selected under icing conditions. a) b. c. d.
3.
Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position. a. b. c) d.
4.
Probe heating will start only after any one engine is started. As in (a) and TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at normal level in flight. As in (a) and Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight As in (a) and AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight. Mark the correct statement.
a b. c. d) 5.
Nacelle anti ice valve will open provided engine is running. Engine anti ice selected is indicated on the ECAM bleed page. In case of electrical failure engine anti ice valve go to close position. All the above are correct.
Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground. Rain repellant system is inhibited in flight. Rain repellant can be applied on dry wing shield. Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground with engine stopped. Mark the correct statement.
a) In case of failure of one window heat computer, other window heat computer will not take over the function at the failed computer. b. Wind shields are heated at low level on ground and at high level in flight. c. Sliding windows of the aircraft are not heated. d. Both (a) and (b) are correct. 6.
Hot air anti icing is done for a. Waste water drain mast b. Sensors, pilot probes and static ports c) Engine air in take and three outboard leading edge slats of each wing. d. Flight compartment windows.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
On ground, if WAI is selected ON, if valves remain open for more than 35 seconds. a. b) c. d.
8.
Wing ‘FAULT‘ Iight comes ON Single chime, Master caution and bleed page Only singe chime and master caution light Both (a) and (b) Which page is called in case of wind shield heating failure.
a. b) c. d. 9.
BLEED PAGE NIL COND PAGE ANTI ICE PAGE With Wing Anti Ice selected and valves do not open, what page is called.
a. b. c. d) 10.
ANTI ICE PAGE COND PAGE NIL BLEED PAGE Each wind shield wiper rotary selected controls its wipers at
a. b. c) c. 11.
Low speed only. High speed only Low speed or High speed None of the above Mark the correct statement.
a. All the stats in the aircraft are anti iced. b. On ground when the wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remains open till the pb is set to OFF again. c. In case of wing leak detection wing anti ice valves remain open. d) In case of electrical power supply failure wing anti ice valves will close. 12.
With engine anti ice selected ON, what is the position of engine anti ice valve. a) b. c. d.
13.
Nacelle anti ice valve will open provided engine is running. Engine anti ice selected is indicated on the ECAM bleed page. In case of electrical failure engine anti ice valve go to close position. All the above are correct. Probe/ window heat switch is in the Auto position, what happens.
c. d. c) d.
Probe heating will start only after any one engine is started. As in (a) and TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at normal level in flight. As in (a) and Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight As in (a) and AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 14.
Mark the correct statement a b. c. d)
15.
A320 TEST PAPER
Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground. Rain repellant system is inhibited in flight. Rain repellant can be applied on dry wing shield. Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground with engine stopped. What is correct for window heating.
a. Window heating starts on ground only after any one engine is started with control switch at AUTO b) As in (a) and wing shields are heated at low level on ground and at normal in flight. c. Sliding windows are not heated. d. Window heat is available in flight only if control switch is selected to ON.
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A320 TEST PAPER
AIR CONDITIONING, PRESSURISATION & VENTILATION
1.
What are the inputs to the mix unit. a. Packs and cab fans only. b. Packs and trim air valves only. c. Packs cab fans hot air pressure regulating valve, emergency ram air inlet and LP Ground connector. d) Packs, cab fans, emergency ram air and LP ground connector.
2.
How are the Ram Air Inlet and outlets are controlled. a. b) c. d.
3.
Open during takeoff and landing. Closed during takeoff, closed during landing till the speed reaches 70 kts Closed during takeoff and open when the speed reaches above 70 kts during landing Closed during landing when the speed is less than 70 kts. Pack flow selected in the cockpit is low. The selected heating or cooling is not yet satisfied. Under this condition
a) b. c. d. 4.
Normal flow is automatically selected and EIU increases the minimum idle. High flow is automatically selected Reduce pax to 115 or less. Reduce pax to 80 as LO can give only 80% cooling. What will be the result when the zone controller primary channel fail.
a. b) c. d. 5.
Optimised temperature regulation. Zones are controlled to 24 Deg. C Zones are controlled to 15 Deg. C Zones are controlled to 18 Deg. C When one pack controller primary and secondary channels fall, what is the effect.
a. b. c. d) 6.
Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valve. Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valves. ECAM signals of the corresponding pack are lost. Both (a) and (c) are correct. What is the recommended action in case of L + R CAB FAN FAULT
a. b. c. d.
Crew awareness Select cabin temperature to LO Use emergency Ram Air Increase pack flow to HI
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CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
Pack flow control valve position is indicated in the ECAM a. b) c. d.
8.
COND page BLEED page and CAB PRESS page COND page and BLEED page COND and CAB PRESS page Which pack 1 and 2 fault the recommended max FL is
a) b. c. d. 9.
100 / MEA 140 / MEA 150 / MEA 250 / MEA When do we use RAM AIR pb
a. b) c. d. 10.
AT any time. Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi Only when differential pressure is more than 1 psi Only after the outflow valve is fully open If the hot air pressure regulating valve is failed in open position.
a) No effect on temperature regulation b. Pack 1 controls the cockpit, pack 2 controls the cabin temperature to the mean value of the selected temperature c. Trim air valves go to closed position. d. No effect on the cockpit. Cabin temperature is controlled to a fixed temperature of 20 Deg. C. 11.
In manual pressure control mode a. b. c) d.
12.
ECAM indications are not available Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via manual backup section of controller No.1 Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via back up section of controller No. 2 Outflow valve is set to full open always. What happens during smoke drill when both the blower and the extract pb switches are set to override.
a. b. c) d. 13.
Only the extract fan will stop Both the blower and the extract fan will stop working The Blower fan stops and the extract fan remains energized. Both the blower and the extract fan remain energized. On ground with engines stopped an external horn will be triggered if
a. b. c. d)
Avionic ventilation blower pressure is low. Duct OVHT or extract fan extract pressure is low. Fault is detected in the ground cooling system. In all the above cases.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 14.
A320 TEST PAPER
Mark the correct statement a) AFT cargo compartment is ventilated by an extract fan. b. FWD cargo compartment ventilation is by an extract fan. c. Smoke detection in the cargo compartment will not automatically close the isolation valve. d. AFT isolation valve pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan
15.
If either blower or extract pb which is set to over ride, the air for avionic equipment cooling is taken from a. b. c. d)
16.
Atmosphere and Skin Ht Exchgr. Avionic bay and Skin Ht Exchgr. Either avionic bay or from atmosphere. Cockpit air conditioning duct and skin ht exchgr. If both blower and extract pb switches are set to over ride during smoke drill , avionic equipment cooling air is
a. b. c) d.
17.
Taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard. Taken from atmosphere and circulated through Skin Ht Exchgr. Taken from airconditioning bay and thrown overboard. Taken from airconditioning bay and circulated through skin ht exchgr.
If pressurization degraded performance is suspected, a selection of pressurization system which is not active can be attempted by switching. a. Ditching pb to OFF and then ON b) Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs and then to AUTO c. LG CIU / CB to PULL and then PUSH d. Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs and then leaving it there.
18.
In flight skin air inlet valve is a) b. c. d.
19.
Always fully closed Either partially open or fully closed Always fully open Always partially open CABIN PRESS mode selector is in MAN. If ditching pb is selected ON, the
a) b. c. d.
Outflow valve will not close automatically. OFV will close automatically Ram Air inlet valve open Engine bleed valve opens
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CTE – IAL – HYD
20.
A320 TEST PAPER
When will Auto transfer from one controller to another controller occurs. a. b. c. d)
21.
At each landing initiated 70 sec after each landing. In case of failure of the operating system. If FMGS fails (a) and (b) are correct When landing elevation selector is in AUTO position
a. With FMGS available, landing elevation data is coming from FMGS for pressurization control. b. With FMGS not available, landing elevation selected is taken as reference. c. Landing elevation selected only is taken as reference even though the FMGS is available d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 22.
When Zone controller primary and secondary channel failure what will result. a. b. c. d)
23.
Loss of backup and optimized temperature regulation. Pack 1 is controlled to deliver 20 Deg. C and Pack 2 is controlled to deliver 10 Deg.C On ECAM COND page will information are removed and PACK REG appears. All the above are correct. When only one pack is operating and Pack selector is at LO. What is the flow.
a. b. c. d) 24.
80% of normal flow. 150% of normal flow. Normal flow 120% of normal flow. APU available and APU BV position disagrees with the selected position. The Local warning is.
a) b. c. d. 25.
NIL APU BLEED FAULT light ENG BLEED FAULT LT CROSS BLEED FAULT LT Pack valve automatically closes due to
a. Pack outlet pressure being very high b) Pack overheat or corresponding fire pb is pressed or ditching pb is pressured or during any engine start. c. Leakage detected in the air cycle machine. d. Pack flow selector at LO position. 26.
Leak detected in the hot ducts causes the automatic closure of a. b. c. d)
Associated engine bleed valve Cross bleed valve provided X bleed switch is in AUTO position Associated wing anti ice valve All the above valves and also APU bleed valve if the leak is detected on the left side.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
27.
A320 TEST PAPER
The trim air valves are a. b. c) d.
28.
Modulated electrically by zone controller Used for optimizing the temp by adding hot air Both (a) and (b) are correct Controlled by position of landing gear. What are the sources that supply air to mixing unit
a. Packs and cabin fans only b. Packs and trim air valves c. Packs, cabin fans, hot air pressure regulating valve, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground unit d) Packs, cabin fans, emergency ram air and LP ground unit. 29.
When will pack valve automatically closes. a. b) c. d.
30.
Pack overheat ditching switch pressed As in (a) and corresponding engine fire pb is pressed, and any engine start As in (a) any engine fire pb pressed, any engine start. As in (a) and respective engine fire pb pressed, respective engine starts. When will ram air inlet flap close.
a. b. c. d. 31.
During all ground operation. During take off when wheel speed is more than 70 kts During landing when wheel speed is more than 70 kts. Ram air inlet flap never closes. Where are the zone temperature sensors located.
a. For cockpit zone : in the cockpit. b. For cabin zone : above the 4th row of seat on the right stowage bin c. For the cabin zone : In the extraction ducts of the lavatory and galley ventilation systems. d) Both (a) and (c) are correct. 32.
What is the recommended action in case of L/R CAB FAN FAULT a. b. c. d)
Switch off hot air valve. Select cabin temperature to LO Use emergency ram air Increase pack flow to HI
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CTE – IAL – HYD
33.
A320 TEST PAPER
During take off, both engine bleed switch ON, APU Bleed switch – ON, both pack switch – ON. What happens after take off, if APU bleed switch is set to OFF. a) Engine bleed valves open. b. All bleed OFF, as a reflect pack valves also go to close. c. During take off engine bleeds must have been open. They remain open after APU bleed switch bleed switch is OFF d. Cabin will be depressurized.
34.
When ditching push button is selected to ON, what will be the result. a. Safety valves are driven to full OPEN. b. Pack flow control valves, out flow valve, skin air inlet an extract valves and Emer Ram Air inlet valve close. c. Only pack flow control valve and Emer Ram Air Inlet valve close. d) As in (b) but outflow valve will close only if press mode selector is in AUTO.
35.
In case of Blower Fault what will be the indication on CAB PRESS page. a. b. c. d.
36.
BLOWER appears amber Inlet valve colour changes to amber VENT & EXTRACT appear in amber VENT & INLET appear in amber When does the APU Bleed FAULT light come ON
a. b) c. d. 37.
APU bleed FAULT APU bleed LEAK Left wing leak In all the above cases. On COND ECAM page, PACK REG appears, what will be the effect.
a. Packs regulates such that zones are maintained at selected temperature. b. Packs regulates such that zones are maintained at 24 Deg .C c) Packs regulate to give outlet temp of 20 Deg. C, 10 Deg C respectively for pack 1 and 2. e. Packs regulate to give an outlet temperature of 15 Deg c for both packs. 38.
What happens when one pack controller’s primary and secondary channels have failed. a. b. c) d.
Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C. by anti ice valve Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg.C by anti ice valves. As in (a) and ECAM signals to the corresponding pack are lost. As in (b) and ECAM signals to both the packs are lost.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 39.
A320 TEST PAPER
What happens when the hot air pressure regulating valve has failed in open position. a) No effect on temp regulation b. Pack 1 controls the cockpit, pack 2 controls the cabin temp to the mean value of the selected temp. c. Trim air valves go to closed position. d. No effect on the cockpit. Cabin temp are controlled to a fixed temp of 15 Deg.c
40.
ZONE REGUL FAULT ECAM caution appears. ‘ALTN MODE’ indication appears on ECAM COND page. What does it indicate ? What will be different zone temp. a.
41.
What is the effect of selecting the hot air pb switch to OFF a. b. c) d.
42.
The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve only. The opening of trim air valves. The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve and trim air valve. Closing of hot air pressure valve and opening of trim air valves. FWD cabin temp selector is set to 12 O’ clock position, what does it mean
a) b. c. d.
FWD cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 Deg. C Pack 1 outlet temp is controlled to 24 Deg. C Pack 2 outlet temp is controlled to 25 Deg. C Both (a) and (c) are correct.
a b) c. d.
In which ECAM page pack flow control valve position is indicated. COND page BLEED page and CAB PRESS page COND & BLEED Page COND & CAB PRESS page
43.
44.
Where are the positions of trim air valves and hot air pressure regulating valves indicated a) b c d
45.
COND page COND & PRESS page COND & BLEED page COND & CAB PRESS page What is the recommended max FL with ‘Pack 1 + 2 fault’
a) b. c. d.
100 / MEA 140 / MEA 150 / MEA 250 / MEA
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CTE – IAL – HYD 46.
A320 TEST PAPER
When should Ram air pb switch be used ? What happens then ? a. Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi. EMER RAM Air flows and outflow valve open to 50 deg c position. b. Whenever more ventilation is needed c. Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi, it opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet and closes the packs d. When differential pressure is less than 1 psi, it opens the EMER RAM AIR inlet and closes the outflow valve.
47.
In automatic pressure control mode what will be the cabin altitude. a. Always 8000 feet. b) It is highest of the value of cabin altitude reached at aircraft level off and landing elevation c. Always the landing elevation. d. It is the cabin altitude reached at the time of aircraft level off.
48.
How are the two safety valves designed a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure. b. One safety valve avoids excessive differential pressure and another safety valve avoids excessive negative differential pressure. c. Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only d. Both safety valves avoid excessive negative differential pressure only.
49.
What will be differential pressure for different flights. a. b. c. d.
50.
Always 8.00 psi Always 8.60 psi Differential pressure valve depends upon flight altitude. As in (c) and the normal maximum value of 8.06 psi is reached when flight altitude is 39000 ft. Which are the correct statement regarding pressurization mode selector pb.
a. With both the auto pressurization system failure, mode selector FAULT light comes on b. Even with single auto pressurization system failure, mode selector FAULT light comes on c) As in (a) and when the mode selector pb is selected to MAN, MAN illuminates white and FAULT extinguishes. d. As in (a) and when the mode selector pb is selected to MAN, MAN illuminates white and FAULT remains illuminated. 51.
If the extract valve is fully open in flight, what is the warming. a) b. c. d.
SKIN VALVE FAULT BLOWER FAULT EXTRACT FAULT EXTRACT VALVE FAULT
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CTE – IAL – HYD
52.
A320 TEST PAPER
What happens in Auto Pr. Control in the Abort mode. a. Take off is Aborted prepressurization is aborted. b) If a/c returns to take off field before reaching a certain altitude, cabin altitude is controlled to T/O field. c. If a/c returns to take off field before reaching a certain altitude, cabin altitude is maintained constant. d. At touch down cabin altitude is same as a/c altitude.
53.
When does automatic transfer from one controller to another controller occurs a. b) c. d.
54.
180 sec after each landing In case of failure of operating system If FMGS falls (a) and (b) are correct. What happens when landing elevation selector is not in auto position.
a. With FMGS available, landing elevation data is coming from FGMS for pressurization in controller, selected landing elevation is ignored. b. With the FMGS not available landing elevation selected is taken as reference. c) Landing elevation selected only is taken as reference even if FMGS is available. d. Both (a) and (b) are correct. 55.
If pressurization degraded performance is suspected how can the inactive system be made active a. By pressing pressurization mode selector to MAN. b) By pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 seconds and then to AUTO c. Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 180 seconds and then to AUTO d. It is not possible to manually make the inactive system to active system.
56.
How is the MAN V/S CTL switch toggle used. a. b. c. d)
57.
The switch actuation is very fast. As in (a) and switch should not be maintained in up or down position. As in (b) and if it is maintained in up outflow valve will open in 10 seconds. Due to slow outflow valve position, toggle switch must be maintained in up and down position until target V/S is reached. What is the effect of the Lav + Galley fan fault.
a. Cabin zone temperature regulation is lost. b. Lavatory smoke detection system is inoperative in EP series aircraft. c. Cabin zone inlet duct temperature is constant 15 Deg c, cockpit temperature regulation is normal. d) All the above are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
58.
A320 TEST PAPER
In which configuration skin heat exchanger is not used. a) b. c. d.
59.
Open circuit configuration. Closed circuit configuration Intermediate circuit configuration Open circuit configuration and intermediate circuit configuration. What is the position of the skin air inlet valve in flight
a) b. c. d. 60.
Always fully closed. Either partially open or fully closed. Always fully open. Always partially open. If either blower or extract pb switch is set to override, where is the air for avionic equipment cooling taken from
a. b. c. d) 61.
Atmosphere. Avionic bay Either avionic bay or from atmosphere Air-conditioning duct Both blower and extract pb switches are set to override during smoke drill, where is the air for avionic equipment cooling taken from.
a. b. c. d. 62.
Air is taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard. Air is taken from avionic bay and is circulated through skin heat exchanger. Air is taken from airconditioning duct and thrown overboard. Air is taken from airconditioning duct and circulated through skin heat exchanger. During smoke drill when both the blower and the extract pb switches are set to override, which fan will stop
a. b. c. d) 63.
Only the extract fan will stop. Both the blower and the extract fan will stop working. The blower fan stops and the extract fan remains energized. Both the blower and the extract fan remain energised. On ground with engines stopped, when will an external horn be trigged.
a. b. c. d) 64.
If avionic ventilation blower pressure is low. If DUCT OVHT Extract fan extract pressure is low. In all the above cases. Mark the correct statement.
a) b. c. d.
AFT cargo compt is ventilated by an extract fan FWD cargo is ventilated by an extract fan. Smoke detection in the cargo compt will not automatically close the isolation valve. AFT ISOLATION valve pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan it will only close the isolation valves.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
65.
A320 TEST PAPER
Two safety valves are provided such that a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure. b. One safety valve avoids excessive positive differential pressure and another safety valve avoids excessive negative differential pressure. c. Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only. d. Both safety valves avoid excessive negative differential pressure only.
66.
The zone controller computes the temp demand according to the temp. selected and the temp. measured by sensors.. The sensors are located at a. b. c. d)
67.
For cockpit zone in the cockpit For cabin zone above the fourth row of seat in the right stowage bin For cabin zone, in the extraction circuit of the lavatory and galley ventilation systems. Both (a) and (c) are correct. Mark the correct statement.
a. With APU bleed supplying the packs, the packs flow go to H1 b. With APU bleed supply and if any zone temp. demand is not satisfied the controller sends a demand signal ECB to increase the APU bleed flow. c. With APU bleed supply the packs, the packs flow goes to LO d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 68.
Selection of the hot air pb switch to OFF position causes. a. b. c) d.
69.
The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve only The opening of trim air valves. The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve and trim air valves. Opening of hot air pressure regulating valve and closure of trim air valves. FWD cabin temp selector is set to 12 O clock position
a. b) c. d. 70
FWD cabin temperature is controlled to 18 deg. c FWD cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 deg c. AFT cabin is controlled to a temp of 24 deg c. FWD and AFT cabin temp is controlled to 18 deg. c Position of TRIM Air valves and hot air pressure regulating valves are indicated in
a) b. c. d. 71.
COND page. Bleed page COND & BLEED page COND and CAB PRESS page Which of the following does not cause pressure problem in air.
a) b. c. d.
SKIN AIR INLET VALVE SKIN AIR EXTRACT VALVE GRD COOL INLET VALVE GRD COOL OUTLET VALVE
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CTE – IAL – HYD 72.
When OFV is fully stuck closed in a flight and none of the 3 systems are able to control which of the following actions release the cabin pressure continuously. a) b. c. d.
73.
Blower & Extract pbs – OVRD Either Blower or Extract pbs - OVRD Safety valves Skin Air Inlet valves. In case of heavy rain which pbs are to be pressed for landing.
a) b. c. d. 74.
Extract to OVRD Blower to OVRD Blower and Extract to OVRD Ditching pb. When OFV gets opened during a flight, what immediate action is required.
a) b. c. d. 75.
Ditching pb _ ON Mode selector to MAN & U/S CTL Sw_Down Emer RAS pb _OFF Blower and Extract pbs _ OFF In which of the following cases the temp is fixed.
a. b. c) d. 76.
ZONE CONTROLLER SECONDARY channel failure PACK CONTROLLER PRIMARY channel failure LAV & GALLEY FAN FAULT All the above are correct. What is the meaning of PACK REG message on COND PAGE
a. b. c. d) 77.
ZONE CONTROLLER PRIMARY channel failure PACK CONTROLLER PRIMARY channel failure PACK CONTROLLER Both channels failed. ZONE CONTROLELR Both channels failed. Mark the correct statement.
a. b. c. d) 78.
Both the cargo compartments are heated Both the cargo compartments are ventilated. Live cargo has to be placed only if forward cargo compartment Cargo compartment are heated by cabin air. Which of the following appear on EW/D unit
a. b. c) d. 79.
.
A320 TEST PAPER
CABIN OVER PRESSURE TOO HOT / COLD COCKPIT AND CABIN TEMP INFLIGHT FWD CAB / AFT CAB / CKPT DUCT OVHT All the above. Safety valve max position differential pressure setting is
a) b. c. d.
8.6 psi 8.006 psi 7.41 psi 5 psi
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A320 TEST PAPER
PNEUMATICS, AIRCONDITIONING, PRESSURISATION, ICE & RAIN PROTN
1.
What are the inputs to the mix unit a. Packs and cab fans only b. Packs and rim fair valves only c. Packs, cab fans, hot air pressure regulating valve, emergency ram air inlet and LP Ground connector. d) Packs, Cab fans, emergency ram air and LP Ground connector.
2.
Pack flow selected in the cockpit is low. The selected heating or cooling is not yet satisfied. Under this condition a) b. c. d.
3.
Normal flow is automatically selected and EIU increases the minimum idle HI flow is automatically selected Reduce pax to 115 or less Reduce pax to 80 as “LO” can give only 80% cooling What will be the result when the zone controller primary channel fail ?
a. b) c. d. 4.
Optimised temp regulation Zones are controlled to 24 Deg.c Zones are controlled to 15 Deg.c Zones are controlled to 18 Deg.c When one pack controller primary and secondary channels fail, what is the effect ?
a. b. c. d) 5.
Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valve Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg C by anti ice valves ECAM signals of the corresponding pack are lost Both (a) and (c) are correct. What is the recommended action in case of L+R CAB FAN FAULT
a. b. c. d) 6.
Crew awareness Select cabin temperature to LO Use emergency Ram Air Increase pack flow to HI Mark the correct statement
a. b. c. d) 7.
All the slats in the aircraft are anti iced On ground when wing anti ice pb selected to ON the wing anti ice valves remain open In case of leak / detection wing anti ice valves remain open In case of electrical power supply failure wing anti ice valves will close. Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position
a. b. c) d.
Probe heating will start only after both the engines are started. TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at high level in flight Pitot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at high level in flight
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A320 TEST PAPER
8. Mark the correct statement. a b. c. d) 9.
Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground. Rain repellant system is inhibited in flight. Rain repellant can be applied on dry wing shield. Rain repellant system is inhibited on ground with engine stopped. On ground, if WAI is selected ON, if valves remain open for more than 35 seconds.
a. b) c. d. 10.
Wing ‘FAULT‘ Iight comes ON Single chime, Master caution and bleed page Only singe chime and master caution light Both (a) and (b) Which page is called in case of wind shield heating failure.
a. b) c. d. 11.
BLEED PAGE NIL COND PAGE ANTI ICE PAGE Each wind shield wiper rotary selected controls its wipers at
a. Low speed only. b High speed only c) Low speed or High speed d. None of the above 12.
When does the engine bleed valve automatically close ? a. b. c. d)
13.
During engine start. When engine fire push button is pressed. When APU bleed valve is opened. In all of the above. Mark the correct statement.
a. b) c. d.
14.
Two packs using single engine bleed is not permitted. with one engine bleed one pack only if wing anti ice is ON With APU bleed only one pack is permitted. With one engine bleed fault, do not switch off the associated bleed push button it will open the cross bleed valve. Each BMC is provided with
a) b. c. d.
Bleed presser, temperature and valves position information. Ambient presser and temperature information. Ambient Temperature and pack valves position information. Only APU bleed valve position information
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CTE – IAL – HYD 15.
Overheat of pre cooler outlet temperature is detected when temperature a. b. c. d)
16.
Exceeds 160 Deg. C for more than 60 seconds. Exceeds 200 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds. Exceeds 225 Deg. C for more than 15 seconds. Exceeds 257 Deg. C for more than 55 seconds. In manual pressure control mode
a. b. c) d. 17.
ECAM indications are not available Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via manual backup section of controller No.1 Outflow valve position signal is transmitted via back up section of controller No. 2 Outflow valve is set to full open always. When ditching pb is selected to ON what will be the result
a. b) c. d. 18.
Safety valves are driven to full open. PFCV, OFV, skin air inlet and extract valves, Emer Ram Air Inlet valves close PFCV, Bleed valves, APU Bleed valve, Emer Ram Air Inlet valves close Bleed valves, PFCV, Inlet and extract valves; Emer Ram Air Inlet valves close With pressurization mode select switch in MAN, the MAN VS CTL toggle switch is
a. b. c. d. 19.
To switch activation very fast Not to be maintained in up or down position for target V/S If maintained in up or down position outflow valve will open in three seconds Due to slow outflow valve operation, toggle switch must be maintained in up or down position until target V/S is reached. In case of Blower fault what will be the indication on CAB PRESS page
a. b. c. d) 20.
BLOWER appear amber Inlet valve colour changes to amber VENT and EXTRACT appear in amber VENT and INLET appear in amber In which configuration skin heat exchanger is not used.
a b. c. d) 21.
A320 TEST PAPER
Open circuit configuration. Closed circuit configuration Intermediate circuit configuration Open circuit configuration and smoke configuration Mark the correct statement.
a. AFT cargo compartment is ventilated by an extract fan b. FWD cargo compartment ventilation is by an extract fan c. Smoke detection in the cargo compartment will not automatically close the isolation valve d. AFT ISOLATION valve pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 22.
A320 TEST PAPER
If pack pb switch is selected to OFF with no failure, the warning is a) b. c. d.
23.
Single Chime + Master Caution + Bleed page Pack “fault” light only Pack FAULT LT + Bleed page COND page only Select the correct list of computers
a. b. c. d) 24.
One pack controller & 2 Zone controller for Air-conditioning 3 BMCs for pneumatic system Two AEVCs for ventilation Three computers for probes heating If either blower or extract pb which is set to over ride, the air for avionic equipment cooling is taken from
a. b. c. d) 25.
Atmosphere and skin Ht Exchgr. Avionic bay and skin Ht Exchgr Either avionic bay or from atmosphere Cockpit Air-conditioning duct and skin Ht Exchgr If both blower and extract pb switches are set to over ride during smoke drill, avionic equipment cooling air is
a. b. c. d. 26.
Taken from atmosphere and thrown overboard Taken from avionic bay and is circulated through skin heat exchanger Taken from air-conditioning bay and thrown overboard Taken from air-conditioning bay and circulated through skin heat exchanger. If pressurization degraded performance is suspected, a selection of the pressurization system which is not active can be attempted by switching
a. Ditching pb to OFF and then ON b) Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs and then to AUTO c. LGCIU / CB to PULL and then PUSH d. Pressing the pressurization mode selector pb to manual for atleast 10 secs and then leaving it there. 27.
In flight skin air inlet valve is a) b. c. d.
28.
Always fully closed Either partially open or fully closed Always fully open Always partially open CABIN PRESS mode selector is in MAN. If ditching pb is selected ON, the
a) b. c. d.
Outflow valve will not close automatically. OFV will close automatically Ram Air inlet valve open Engine bleed valve opens
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29.
A320 TEST PAPER
When will Auto transfer from one controller to another controller occurs. a. b. c. d)
30.
At each landing initiated 70 sec after each landing. In case of failure of the operating system. If FMGS fails (a) and (b) are correct When only one pack is operating and Pack selector is at LO. What is the flow.
a. b. c. d) 31.
80% of normal flow. 150% of normal flow. Normal flow 120% of normal flow. The trim air valves are
a. b. c) d. 32.
Modulated electrically by zone controller Used for optimizing the temp by adding hot air Both (a) and (b) are correct Controlled by position of landing gear. What happens when BMC1 fails
a. Left engine leak detection is lost b. Left wing leak detection is lost c) As in (a) and APU leak detection is also lost d. 33.
When does the APU Bleed FAULT light come ON a. b) c. d.
34.
What happens when one pack controller’s primary and secondary channels have failed. a. b. c) d.
35.
APU bleed FAULT APU bleed LEAK Left wing leak In all the above cases.
Corresponding pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 Deg C. by anti ice valve Both pack outlet temperatures are controlled at 15 Deg.C by anti ice valves. As in (a) and ECAM signals to the corresponding pack are lost. As in (b) and ECAM signals to both the packs are lost. ZONE REGUL FAULT ECAM caution appears. ‘ALTN MODE’ indication appears on ECAM COND page. What does it indicate ? What will be different zone temp
a. Primary channel of zone controller had failed, all zones will be at their selected values b) Primary channel of zone controller had failed, all zones are controlled at 24 deg. C c. Primary and secondary channel of zone controller had failed all zone are at selected values d. Primary and secondary channel of zone controller had failed, all zone are controlled at 24 deg. C
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CTE – IAL – HYD
36.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the effect of selecting the hot air push button switch to OFF position ? a. b. c) d.
37.
The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve only The opening of trim air valves The closure of hot air pressure regulating valve and trim air valves. Closing of hot air pressure valve and opening of trim air valves. How are the two safety valves designed ?
a) Each safety valve avoids excessive positive and negative differential pressure b. One safety valve avoids excessive differential pressure and another safety valve avoids excessive negative differential pressure. c. Both safety valves avoid excessive positive differential pressure only d. Both safety valves avoid excessive negative differential pressure only. 38.
If both detection loops are inoperative in one wing the warnings ar e a. b. c. d.
39.
Master caution light, single chime and Bleed page Master caution light, single chime only Only bleed page is called Only MASTER CAUT light If the engine bleed regulated pressure is abnormal
a. b. c. d) 40.
Engine Bleed Fault Light comes ON Engine Bleed Fault light does not come ON Single chime, master caution light and Bleed page is called Both (b) and (c) are correct. When OFV is fully stuck closed in a flight and none of the 3 systems are able to control which of the following actions release the cabin pressure continuously.
a) b. c. d. 41.
Blower & Extract pbs … OVRD Either Blower or Extract pbs… OVRD Safety valves Skin Air Inlet valves In case of heavy rain which pbs are to be pressed for landing
a) b. c. d. 42.
Extract to OVRD Blower to OVRD Blower and Extract to OVRD Ditching pb When OFV gets opened during a flight, what immediate action is required.
a. b. c. d.
Ditching pb…. ON Mode selector to MAN U/S CTL Sw….. Down Emer RAM pb …. OFF Blower and Extract pb….. OFF
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CTE – IAL – HYD 43.
A320 TEST PAPER
If the extract valve is fully open in flight what is the warning ? a) b. c. d.
44.
SKIN VALVE FAULT BLOWER FAULT EXTRACT FAULT EXTRACT VALVE FAULT What happens when landing elevation selector is not in auto position ?
a. With FMGS available, landing elevation data is coming from FGMS for pressurization in controller, selected landing elevation is ignored. b. With FMGS not available landing elevation selected is taken as reference. c) Landing elevation selected only is taken as reference even if FMGS is available d. Both (a) and (b) are correct. 45.
On ground with engines stopped, when will an external horn be triggered ? a. b. c. d)
46.
If avionic ventilation blower pressure is low If DUCT OVHT Extract fan extract pressure is low In all the above cases. Mark the correct statement
a) b. c. d. 47.
AFT cargo compt. is ventilated by an extract fan FWD cargo compt. is ventilated by an extract fan Smoke detection in the cargo compt. will not automatically close the isolation valve.0 AFT ISOLATIOIN VALVE pb switch when selected to OFF will not stop the extract fan it will only close the isolation valves. The HP valve is automatically closed electrically when
a. b. c. d.
In case of low upstream pressure Wing anti ice is OFF and upstream HP valve pressure is > 110 psi, with two packs ON In case of excessive upstream pressure Intermediate pressure check valve opens
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER
HYDRAULICS
1.
How are the hydraulic reservoir pressurized pneumatically ? a. b. c) d.
2.
By APU bleed directly. By engine 2 bleed directly. By engine 1 bleed directly or cross bleed duct By engine 2 bleed directly or cross bleed duct. When do you use ‘RAT MAN ON “ pb
a. b) c. d. 3.
If blue electric pump is failed. If there is a dual Hydraulic failure along with blue system. As in (b) and only in approach RAT is extended. If blue electric pump is over heated. What are the indications if Yellow Leak Measurement Valve remains in closed position
a. No indication b) Y SYS LO PRESSURE ECAM warning and Y system label colour is amber in HYD page. c. Y SYS LO PRESSURE ECAM warning and system pressure indication reading O psi in HYD page d. Y SYS label colour is amber and system pressure ) psi in Hydraulic page without ECAM warning. 4.
How will you recover the yellow system if it is lose due to LO LVL ? a. b. c) d.
5.
Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by electric pump Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by PTU Yellow system cannot be recovered. Both (a) and (b) are correct. What are the indications in the cockpit due to yellow reservoir OVHT ?
a. PTU, yellow EDP fault lights with ECAM message and master caution. b) PTU, yellow EDP, yellow electric pump fault lights with ECAM message and master caution. c. As in (c) but yellow electric pump fault light illuminate only when the switch is ON yellow. d. Yellow EDP, yellow electric pump fault lights with ECAM warning. 6.
What FTU operates on ground. a) Difference between G & Y more than 500 psi, PTU switch in AUTO and both Master switches are in OFF b. Difference between G & Y more than 500 psi, PTU switch in AUTO and engine Master switch is ON, brake is ON c. PTU switch in AUTO and cargo door is operated. d. Both (a) and (b) are correct
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CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
When does GREEN EDP fault light illuminate ? a. b. c. d)
8.
On ground Green EDP pump pressure is less with eng As in (a) or green reservoir is over heated As green reservoir has low quantity or low air pressure All the above are correct. What does the fault light eliminate on PTU push button ?
a. During PTU operation, if PTU output pressure drops below 1450 psi b. If PTU does not operate with pressure difference between G & Y is more than 500 psi c) If G or Y system reservoir has LOLVR AIR PRESS or OVHT warning d. All the above are correct 9.
Blue electric pump pb switch is at AUTO with AC power available. When will the pump be energised pump override pb is at OFF a. b. c) d.
10.
OVHT amber message on the ECAM HYD page near ELEC pump indication means a. b) c. d.
11.
Overheat of the system fluid Overheat of the pump itself In case of yellow pump OVHT the PTU must also be switched OFF In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended. NORMAL HYDRAULIC POWER is provided by
a. b) c. d. 12.
On ground, only after No. 2 engine is started. On ground, only after No. 1 engine is started On ground, after any one engine is started In flight, only when an engine is operating
Engine driven pumps for all systems. Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electrical pump for blue Electrical pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pump for green. Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electrical pump for yellow If blue reservoir air pressure is less than 42 psi but more than 25 psi. What warnings will come?
a. No warning b. LO AIR PRESSURE amber message in HYD page with master caution c. LO AIR PRESSURE ECAM message and also in HYD page with master caution d) BLUE RSVR message comes in STATUS page under maintenance. 13.
When does RAT FAULT ECAM warning triggered a. Whenever RAT is working and RAT pump output pressure is more than 2500 psi b. If RAT is not deployed automatically due to dual hydraulic failure. c) If RAT is not fully stowed during normal flight. d. All the above are correct
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CTE – IAL – HYD
14.
A320 TEST PAPER
When does PTU FAULT SCAM warning trigger. a. During PTU operation if PTU output pressure drops below 1450 psi b. During flight, if PTU does not operate automatically if pressure difference between “G” and “Y” is above ……. Psi c) If G or Y stem reservoir has LO LVL or LO AIR PRESS or OVHT warning d. All the above are correct.
15.
How will you recover the yellow system if it is lost due to LO LVL a. b. c) d.
Yellow system can be recovered in approach only, by electric pump. Yellow system can be recovered in approach only, by PTU Yellow system cannot be recovered. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER LANDING GEAR
1.
When does DOWN ARROW flight on LDG Gear panel illuminates ? a. Whenever Landing Gear is not down and flaps at ‘3’. b) Whenever Landing Gear is not down locked and radio altimeter less than 750 feet and flaps “FULL” c. In any one gear falls to reach down locked position even after 30 secs. d. Both (a) and (c) are correct.
2.
What happens to Landing Gear if Bogie Align ECAM Fault triggers after lift off ? a) b. c. d.
3.
Landing Gear cannot be selected to UP Landing Gear retraction will not take place even though Landing Gear lever is UP Affected main Landing Gear cannot be retracted. Only nose Landing Gear. When does HOT amber light illuminate in BRK FAN pb switch ?
a) Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 300 deg. C b. Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 300 deg C and brake fan not selected. c. Whenever any one brake temperature is over heated. d. Whenever any one brake temperature is more than 500 deg.c and brake fan not selected. 4.
What are the indications if autobrake is disengaged by brake pedals after reducing the speed to taxi speed.? a. b. c) d.
5.
No indication AUTO BRK indication in wheel page turns to amber. AUTO BRK indication in wheel page flashes green As in (a) and ON blue light extinguishes in Autobrake panel. What happens to brake system if G system fails during landing roll ? (Auto brake is not armed )
a. b. c. d)
6.
Normal brake is lost and alternate brake takes over. As in (a) and there is no indication. As in (a) and it is indicated by triple brake pressure gauge and ECAM warning As in (a) and it is indicated by triple brake pressure gauge and ALTN BRAKE green indication in wheel page. Which LG CIU supply signals to LDG GEAR indication panel ?
a. b. c. d.
Only No. 2 LGCIU Only No. 1 LGCIU Operating LGCIU Normally LGCIU 1, if No.1 fails then LGCIU 2.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
7.
A320 TEST PAPER
During Landing Gear extension if any one gear fails to reach down locked position what are the indications a. Landing Gear position indicates RED triangles in wheel page. b. Corresponding UNLK red light remains ON with L/G CTL amber message in wheel page. c. GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED red ECAM message with master warning 30 seconds after Landing Gear selection d) All the above are correct.
8.
What happens to steering if Captain side rudder pedal DISC pb is pressed ? a. b. c) d.
9.
Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on Captain side is lost. Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal on F/O side is lost. Nose wheel steering by rudder pedal is lost on both sides Nose wheel steering and rudder pedal steering are both lost. In which braking modes, the brake pressure is indicated on the triple pressure gauge
a. b) c. d. 10.
Normal brakes and parking brakes. Alternate Brakes Alternate Brakes without anti skid and parking brakes. Alternate Brakes, Auto brakes and parking brakes. Alternate Brakes, Normal brakes and parking brakes When do use Landing Gear gravity extension procedure ?
a. b) c. d. 12.
ADP 1 and ADP 2 falls in flight. Both blue and yellow systems fall in flight If anyone LGCIU falls in flight. All the above are correct. What warnings will come if Landing Gear is not selected down, both RA failed and CONFIG 3 position ?
a. b. c. d) 13.
Master warning CRC with GEAR NOT DOWN message. Master warning CRC and red arrow illuminates with GEAR NOT DOWN message. Master warning CRC GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED message Nor warnings will come. L/G CTL indication on lower ECAM will appear in amber
a). b. c. d. 14.
When L/G lever is not agreement in with L/G position. When L/G lever is not extended at Radio altitude of 750 feet. When L/G lever is not retracted after 80 seconds of take off . When L/G doors are not closed with L/G retracted. Which mode of brake operation is affected if auxillary low Hydraulic pressure (LP distribution line) is lost ?
a. b. c) d.
Normal brakes and auto brakes Normal brakes and parking brakes Alternate brakes with or without anti skid Normal brakes and alternate brakes with anti skid.
51
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15.
When does LGCIU computer change over take place ? a) b. c. d.
16.
If operating LGCIU falls other LGCIU takes over. During landing gear extension cycle or operating LGCIU falls. When landing gear lever is selected to UP Both (a) and (b) are correct. When does the safety valve in Landing Gear hydraulic line close
a) b. c. d. 17.
A320 TEST PAPER
Landing Gear is UP and speed more than 260 kts. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts or during gravity extension. Both (b) and (c) are correct. When do UNLK red lights extinguish in LDG GEAR indicator panel.
a. During retraction when gear is up locked and hydraulically operated door(s) is (are) closed b. During retraction when gear is down locked and hydraulically operated door (s) is (are) closed. c) Whenever gear reaches the selected position. d. Both (a) and (b) are correct. 18.
What indications comes for auto brake disengagement. a. AUTO BRK indication colour changes to amber. b) AUTO BRK green indication flashes for 10 seconds and AUTO BRAKE pb light will extinguish c. AUTO BRK green indication will disappear and auto brake pb light will extinguish d. AUTO BRK ECAM message comes on E/W display unit.
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A320 TEST PAPER FLIGHT CONTROLS
1.
Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes THS inoperative ? a. b. c) d.
2.
Blue and Green system Blue and Yellow system Green and Yellow system Both (a) and (b) are effected. Which dual hydraulic failures do not affect the flight control laws ?
a. b) c. d. 3.
Blue and Green system. Blue and Yellow system Green and Yellow system Both (b) and (c) are correct. How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically ?
a. b. c) d. 4.
Moving anyone thrust lever forward. As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever. Only by moving both thrust levers forward. Both (b) and (c) are correct. Which are the occasions Rudder Trim switch does not control rudder ?
a. b. c. d) 5.
When you fly with Auto Pilot engaged. When both FAC 1 and FAC 2 failure or Autopilot engaged. When Both Green and Yellow hydraulic pressure are lost All the above are correct. What happens to Slat / Flaps if aircraft speed is less than 210 kts and flap is retracted from 2 to 1 ?
a. b) c. d. 6.
Flaps will retract to 0 Flaps retract to 1 + F CONFIG As in (b) and Vmax warning is triggered. Stats and Flaps will retract to ‘0’ When speed brakes retract automatically ?
a. b) c. d. 7.
If speed is less than 180 kts. If angle of attack protection is active for flaps is FULL. If RA is less than 1000 feet All the above are correct. What is the warning if both L & H elevator fault occurs in flight and how do you control aircraft pitch ?
a. b. c) d.
ECAM message with master caution and pitch control by trim wheel. ECAM message with master caution and CRC, pitch control by side stick ECAM message with master warming and CRC, pitch control is by trim wheel only Master warning, CRC ECAM message, pitch control by either side stick or pitch trim wheel
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8.
A320 TEST PAPER
What are the functions available, in Yaw alternate law ? a) b. c. d.
9.
Yaw damping function Yaw damping and turn coordination Turn coordination function only Rudder limiter system only When are wing tip brakes activated ?
a. b) c. d. 10.
In case of flap / stat asymmetry As in (a) or case of flap /slat uncommanded movement In case of SFCC 1 and SFCC 2 fault All the above are correct. What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight ?
a. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration if flap is extended b) Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration if slats are extended. c. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration when speed is less than 250 kts and L/G down d. Rudder limiter system remains in HI speed configuration. 11.
When does ‘PITCH TRIM’ indication become amber in F/CTL page ? a. b) c. d.
12.
If THS is out take off range. If THS is jammed. If G or Y system pressure is low If pitch back up law is active. In pitch NORMAL law the aircraft goes into flare mode
a. b. c. d. 13.
When flaps are extended. When passing through 50 feet When passing through 30 feet When landing gear is extended. Which surfaces are used for LAF function ?
a. b. c. d. 14.
Ailerons and No.4 spoilers on both wings. Ailerons and No.3 & No.5 spoilers if No.4 is inoperative on both wings. Ailerons and 2 to 5 spoilers on both wings. Only 2 to 5 spoilers on both wings. What is the bank angle after which positive spiral stability is introduced ?
a. b. c. d)
33 degrees 45 degrees 40 degrees As in (a) spiral stability starts from 0 deg if high speed protection is active.
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A320 TEST PAPER
When is the LAF DEGRADE message displayed on F/CTL page a. b. c) d.
16.
Whenever slat / flap WTB is energized Whenever the flap lever is not in zero position One LAF accumulator failure Whenever the direct law is active What are the protections lost in “Pitch Alternate Law without protections” as compared to “Pitch Alt Law with protection” ?
a. b. c. d) 17.
Low speed stability and Hi speed stability are lost. As in (a) and LAF is lost Pitch altitude protection is lost All the above are correct. When “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” message is displayed on the PFD
a) b. c. d. 18.
If both L & R elevator fault is detected. If both G & Y system fail in flight Whenever pitch direct law is operative All the above are correct. Selecting the take off at 55 kts which facilities are not available ?
a) b. c. d. 19.
Ground spoiler and auto brakes Auto brakes and manual brakes Manual brakes and thrust reversers Thrust reversers only How do you know that pitch direct law is active in flight
a. In bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and no PFD message. b) In bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and USE MAN PITCH TRIM amber message on FMA c. If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red message on FMA d. Use MAN PITCH TRIM message and green dashes in bank angle protection. 20.
Which actions from the cockpit cause the side stick priority RED ARROW light illumination in F/Os side and CAPT green light a. b. c. d)
21.
When F/Os side take over pb is pressed. When CAPT’s side take over pb is pressed. As in (a) and Capt’ side stick is not in neutral As in (b) and F/O’s side stick is not in neutral What are protections in roll normal law ?
a. b. c. d)
Maximum bank angle is limited to 45 Deg Maximum bank angle is limited to 67 Deg. Maximum roll rate is limited to 15 Deg / Sec Both (b) and (c) are correct.
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22.
Which computer normally controls the roll function of the aircraft.? a) b. c. d.
23.
ELAC 1 & all SEC ELAC 2 Only ELAC 1 ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 Which engine thrust reverser is not available if SEC 1 fails ?
a. b. c. d) 24.
Both engine reversers No 1 engine reverser No. 2 engine reverser Both engine reversers are available What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing.
a. b) c. d. 25.
Retract the lever to 3. Land with CONFIG FULL Landing can be performed either CONFIG 3 or full Do not follow the ECAM procedure Failure of SEC 1 affects which spoilers operation ?
a) b. c. d. 26.
Spoiler 3 & 4 Spoiler 1 & 2 Spoiler 5 only Spoiler 1 only What are the protections available in pitch direct law ?
a. b. c) d. 27.
Only LOAD FACTOR protection is available Load factor protection, low speed stability and HI speed stability are available No protection is available Only angle of attack protection is available. When should the speed brake not to be used ?
a. b) c. d. 28.
A320 TEST PAPER
If any one spoiler is in operative If both elevators are faulty As in (b) or if SEC 1 computer fails All the above are correct. Mark the correct statement.
a) After touch down pitch trim is automatically reset to zero provided green and yellow system is pressurized. b. Automatic pitch trim is available in direct law. c. ELAC control remain synchronized with manually selected pitch trim positions. d. It is not possible to control THS manually when auto trim function is available.
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29.
A320 TEST PAPER
What are the effects of slats ALPHA SPEED lock function a. b. c. d)
30.
It inhibits slats retraction at high angle of attack and / or low speed. Flap operations is not affected by Alpha Speed lock function Slats extension is still possible All the above are correct What are the indications if THS is jammed ? (MAN trim is not available )?
a. STABILISER JAM ECAM warning with master caution and force needed on trim wheel is higher than normal b. STABILISER JAM ECAM master warning and SC c. STABILISER JAM ECAM waning with master caution and PITCH TRIM indication in Amber in flight control page. d) Both (a) and (c) are correct. 31.
What happens to bank angle protection if high speed is operative ? a. b) c. d.
32.
Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is lost. Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg Bank angle is limited to 33 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg Bank angle protection is lost. During flight what happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb is AP is engaged.
a. b) c. d. 33.
RUD TRIM selector is inoperative and RESET pb is operative. RUD TRIM selector is RESET pb is inoperative. RUD TRIM selector is operative but RESET pb is inoperative As in (a) and AP trim order is faster than RUD TRIM selector In the side priority when RED ARROWA light illuminates in F/Os side and CAPT green light
a. b. c d) 34.
When F/O side take over pb is pressed. When Capt’s side take over pb is pressed As in (a) and Capt’s side stick is not in neutral As in (a) and F/Os side stick is not in neutral What is ALPHA / SPEED LOCK FUNCTION in slat / flap system
a. b. c. d. 35.
This function inhibits slats refraction at high angle of attack or low speed. This function inhibits flaps retraction at high angle of attack or low speed. As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to ‘0’ position As in (b) the lever cannot be moved to’0’ position at low speed. LAFD is operative
a) b. c. d.
if flap is extended. If flight is with pitch alternate law with protection If speed is less than 250 kts Al the above are correct.
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36.
A320 TEST PAPER
What are the functions available, in Yaw alternate law a) b. c. d.
37.
Yaw damping function Yaw damping and turn coordination Turn coordination only Rudder limited system only Just below VR if Capt presses his take over push button , what are the indications come
a. b. c) d. 38.
CONFIG warning with master warning and CRC Only audio voice message sounds Audio voice message sounds and red arrow light illuminates come. Both (a) and (c) are correct When does ground spoilers extend automatically if it is armed.
a. b. c) d. 39.
As soon as wheel speed more than 72 kts and any one thrust lever is in IDLE As soon as wheel speed more than 72 kts and any one reverse thrust is selected As soon as wheel speed more than 72 kts, and both thrust lever are in IDLE As soon as ground sensor changes to GND mode What are the protections available in pitch normal law
a. b. c. d)
40.
Manoeuvre protection Pitch altitude protection. Hi angle of attack and Hi speed protection Low speed stability and Hi speed stability Both (a) and (b) are correct.
When Auto trim is frozen during flight in pitch normal law. a. b) c. d.
41.
Whenever manual trim is operated. As in (a) or whenever load factor is less than 0.5 Whenever bank angle is more than 45 deg. All the above are correct. Which computer control ROLL CONTROL during flight with Green system in op.
a. b. c) d.
42.
No. 1 ELAC No. 2 ELAC Both ELAC computers one for each aileron Only SEC 1, 3 computers controls spoilers for roll control without ailerons
When speed brake should not be used. a) b. c. d.
If any one elevator is faulty. If any one FAC is inoperative because VLS correction is not done If any one spoiler is inoperative. All the above are correct.
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A320 TEST PAPER
What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system a) b. c. d.
44.
FLAPS LOCKED ECAM warning and flaps do not move. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and flaps do not move. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and both flaps and slats will move. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will not move. On PFD speed scale, black and red barber pole appears below stall warning speed
a. b. c. d) 45.
In normal law when angle of attack protection (Alpha prot) is active. In alternate law. In direct law Both (b) and (c) are correct After take off with flap lever is ‘1’ position
a. b. c. d) 46.
Flaps automatically retract at 265 kts Flaps and slats automatically retract at 210 kts Slats automatically retract at 210 kts. Flaps automatically retract at 210 kts. What are the occasions in which rudder trim switch does not control rudder
a. b. c. d)
When you fly with Autopilot engaged When both FAC 1 and FAC 2 fail When both Green and Yellow Hydraulic pressures are lost Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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A320 TEST PAPER HYD / LG TEST
1.
How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized pneumatically. a. b. c) d.
2.
By APU bleed directly. By engine 2 bleed directly. By engine 1 bleed directly or cross bleed duct By engine 2 bleed directly or cross bleed duct. When do you use ‘RAT MAN ON ‘ pb
a. b) c. d. 3.
If blue electric pump is failed. If there is a dual Hydraulic failure along with blue system. As in (b) and only in approach RAT is extended. If blue electric pump is over heated. How will you recover the yellow system if it is lose due to LO LVL ?
a. b. c) d. 4.
Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by electric pump Yellow system can be recovered in approach only by PTU Yellow system cannot be recovered. Both (a) and (b) are correct. When does GREEN EDP fault light illuminate ?
a. b. c. d) 5.
On ground Green EDP pump pressure is less with eng As in (a) or green reservoir is over heated As green reservoir has low quantity or low air pressure All the above are correct. Blue electric pump pb switch is at AUTO with AC power available. When will the pump be energized ? (Blue pump override pb is at OFF)
a. b. c) d. 6.
On ground, only after No. 2 engine is started. On ground, only after No. 1 engine is started. On ground, after any one engine is started. In flight, only when an engine is operating. OVHT amber message on the ECAM HYD page near ELEC pump indication means
a. b) c. d. 7.
Overheat of the system fluid Overheat of the pump itself. In case of yellow pump OVHT the PTU must also be switched OFF In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended NORMAL HYDRAULIC POWER is provided by
a. b) c. d.
Engine driven pumps for all systems. Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electrical pump for blue. Electrical pumps for blue and yellow. Engine driven pump for green. Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electrical pump for yellow
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A320 TEST PAPER
What happens to Landing Gear if Bogie Align ECAM fault triggers after lift off ? a) b. c. d.
9.
Landing Gear cannot be selected to UP Landing Gear retraction will not take place even though Landing Gear leaver is UP Affected main Landing Gear cannot be retracted. Only nose Landing Gear Which LG CIU supply signals to LDG GEAR indication panel ?
a. b) c. d. 10.
Only No. 2 LGCIU Only No. 1 LGCIU Operating LGCIU Normally LGCIOU 1, if NO 1 fails then LGCIU 2. During Landing Gear extension if any one gear fails to reach down locked position, What are the indications.
a. Landing Gear position indicates RED triangles in wheel page. b. Corresponding UNLK red light remains ON with L/G CTL amber message wheel page. c. GEAR NOT DOWN LOCKED red ECAM message with master warning 3 seconds after Landing Gear selection. d) All the above are correct. 1.
What happens when Nose Wheel Steering hand wheels & pedals are operated simultaneously. a. b. c. d)
2.
Hand wheels have priority. Rudder pedals have priority Both cannot be operated simultaneously. Their signals are algebraically added. In which braking modes, the brake pressure is indicated on the triple pressure gauge.
a. b) c. d. 3.
Normal brakes and parking brakes Alternate Brakes, Alternate Brakes without anti skid and parking brakes. Alternate Brakes, auto brakes and parking brakes. Alternate Brakes, Normal brakes and parking brakes. When do you use Landing Gear gravity extension procedure ?
a. b) c. d. 4.
If ADR 1 and ADR 2 fail in flight If both blue and yellow systems fail in flight. If any one LGCIU fails in flight All the above are correct. L/G CTL indication on lower ECAM will appear in amber
a) b. c. d.
When L/G lever is not agreement in with L/G position When L/G lever is not extended at Radio altitude of 750 feet When L/G lever is not retracted after 30 seconds of take off When L/G doors are not closed with L/G retracted.
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5.
A320 TEST PAPER
Which mode of brake operation is affected if auxiliary low Hydraulic pressure (LP distribution line) is lost ? a. b. c) d.
6.
Normal brakes and auto brakes Normal brakes and parking brakes Alternate brakes with or without anti skid Normal brakes and alternate brakes with anti skid. When does LGCIU computer change over take place
a) b. c. d. 7.
If operating LGCIU fails, other LGCIU takes over During landing gear extension cycle or operating LGCIU fails. When landing gear lever is selected to UP Both (a) and (b) are correct. When does the safety valve in Landing Gear hydraulic line close.
a) b. c. d. 8.
Landing Gear is UP and speed more than 260 kts Whenever speed is more than 250 kts. Whenever speed is more than 250 kts or during graving extension Both (b) and (c) are correct. When do UNLK red lights extinguish in LDG GEAR indicator panel
a. During retraction, when gear is up locked and hydraulically operated door(s) is (are) closed. b. During retraction, when gear is down locked and hydraulically operated door(s) is (are) closed. c) Whenever gear reaches the selected position. d. Both (a) and (b) are correct. 9.
When Green system fails, what is the effect on Landing Gear. a. b. c) d.
10.
Landing Gear extension is through Y sys Pr. Landing Gear retraction is through Y sys Pr. Landing Gear has to be extended manually by gravity Both (b) and (c) are correct. What are the hydraulic pumps
a. 2 EDPs for Green, 2 Electrical pumps for Y & RAT operated pump for Blue b. 1 EDP each for G & Y, 1 PTU for G or Y, 1 electrical pump each for Y & B, 1 RAT operated pump for Blue and a hand pump for Y systems c. 1 EDP & 1 electrical pump for G & Y, PTU & RAT operated pump for Blue system, additionally 1 hand pump for Y. d. 1 PTU & RAT for both G & Y, 2 electrical pumps in Blue & 1 EDP each for G & Y.
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11.
A320 TEST PAPER
Which dual Hydraulic system failure make THS inoperative ? a. b. c) d.
12.
Blue and Green system. Blue and Yellow system Green and Yellow system Both (a) and (b) are correct. How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically?
a. b) c. d. 13.
Moving anyone thrust lever forward. As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever Only by moving both thrust levers forward Both (b) and (c) are correct. What happens to Slat / Flaps if aircraft speed is less than 210 kts and flap is retracted from 2 to 1.
a. b) c. d. 14.
Flaps will retract to 0. Flaps retract to 1+ F CONFIG As in (b) and V max warning is triggered Slats and Flaps will retract to 0 What is the warning of both L & R elevator fault occurs in flight and how do you control aircraft pitch ?
a. b. c) d.
15.
ECAM message with master caution and pitch control by trim wheel. ECAM message with master caution and CRC pitch control by side stick. ECAM message with master warming and CRC pitch control by trim wheel only Master warning, CRC ECAM message, pitch control by either side stick or pitch trim wheel. What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight ?
a. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration if flap is extended. b) Rudder limiter system goes to low sped configuration if slats are extended c. Rudder limiter system goes to low speed configuration when speed is less than 250 kts and L/G down. d. Rudder limiter system remains in HI speed configuration. 16.
When does PITCH TRIM indication become amber in F/CTL page ? a. b) c. d.
17.
If THS is out take off range if THS is jammed If G or Y system pressure is low If pitch back up law is active. What is the bank angle after which positive spiral stability is introduced ?
a. b. c. d)
33 degrees 45 degrees 40 degrees As in (a) spiral stability starts from 0 deg if high speed protection is active.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 18.
A320 TEST PAPER
When MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY message is displayed on the PFD a) b. c. d.
19.
If both L & R elevator fault is detected. If both G & Y system fail in flight Whenever pitch direct law is operative All the above are correct. Rejecting the take off at 65 knots which facilities are not available
a) b. c. d. 20.
Ground spellers and auto brakes Auto brakes and manual brakes Manual brakes and thrust reversers Thrust reversers only Which actins from the cockpit cause the side stick priority RED ARROW light illumination in F/O side and CAPT green light
a. b. c. d) 21.
When F/O’s side take over pb is pressed When CAPT’s side take over pb is pressed. As in (a) and Capt’s side stick is not in neutral As in (b) and F/O’s side stick is not in neutral. Which engine thrust reverser is not available if SEC 1 fails ?
a. b. c. d) 22.
Both engine reversers No.1 engine reverser No. 2 engine reverser Both engine reversers are available. What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing ?
a. b) c. d. 23.
Retract the lever to 3 Land with CONFIG FULL Landing can be performed either CONFIG 3 or FULL Do not follow the ECAM procedure. Failure of SEC 1 affects which spoilers operation ?
a) b. c. d. 24.
Spoiler 3 & 4 Spoiler 1 & 2 Spoiler 5 only Spoiler 1 only What are the protections available in pitch direct law ?
a. b. c) d.
Only LOAD FACTOR protection is available Load factor protection, low speed stability and HI speed stability are available No protection is available Only angle of attack protection is available.
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A320 TEST PAPER
What is the effect of slats ALPHA / SPEED lock function. a. b. c. d)
26.
It inhibits slats retraction at high angle of attack and / or low speed. Flap operations is not affected by Alpha Speed lock function. Slats extension is still possible All the above are correct. During flight what happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb is AP is engaged.
a. b) c. d. 27.
RUD TRIM selector is inoperative and RESET pb is operative. RUD TRIM selector and RESET pb are inoperative RUD TRIM selector is operative and RESET pb is inoperative. As in (a) and AP trim order is faster than RUD TRIM selector What are the functions available in Yaw alternate law
a) b. c. d. 28.
Yaw damping function Yaw damping and turn coordination Turn coordination function only Rudder limiter system only Just before VR, if Capt presses his take over push button, what are the indications come.
a. b. c) d. 29.
CONFIG warming with master warnings and CRC Only audio voice message sounds. Audio Voice message sounds and red arrow light illuminates on right side Both (a) and (c) are correct. When Auto trim is frozen during flight in pitch normal law
a. b) c. d. 30.
Whenever manual trim is operated. As in (a) or whenever load factor is less than 0.5 Whenever bank angle is more than 45 deg All the above are correct. What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system
a) b. c. d.
FLAPS LOCKED ECAM warning and flaps do not move. FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning and flaps do not move FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will move FLAPS FAULT ECAM warning both flaps and slats will not move.
a. b) c. d.
Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration As in (a) or if pitch trim is not in take of range Parking brake ON All the above are correct
31.
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32.
A320 TEST PAPER
The appearance of RA flag on both PFDs indicate that the a. b. c) d.
33.
Radio altimeter No.1 has failed PFD has failed Both radio altimeters have failed Aircraft has come below DH In case of SDAC 1 + 2 fault
a. b. c) d. 34.
All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost Only red warning, engine and fuel parameters are lost ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available It is for crew awareness only. Subsequent to both ECAM DU failure, IF ECAM / ND TFR selected on to F/O side
a) b. c. d. 35.
EW display appears on ND 2 EW display appears on PFD 2 System display appears on ND 2 System display appears on PFD2 Landing memo appears
a. b) c. d. 36.
After selecting the L/G down Below 1500 with L/G down Below 800 with L/G down Once the slats are extended during approach During cruise with cruise page displayed, HYD page is called by choice. To get back CRUISE page display.
a. b) c. d. 37.
Press cruise page pb Press HYD page pb again Press CLR pb twice Pres STS pb. Some of the warning flags which appear simultaneously on PFD and ND are
a. b. c. d. 38.
HDG, CHECK HDG, G/S, LOC HDG, CHECK HDG, CHECK ALT, ALT DH, V/S, G/S, LOC HDG, CHECK HDG, ALT, CHECK ALT, CHECK ATT Wx Radar display can be superimposed on NDU with mode selector at
a. b) c. d.
PLAN mode only All modes except PLAN mode ARC mode only ROSE modes only
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39.
A320 TEST PAPER
F-PLAN display is available on ND a. b. c. d)
40.
All the ROSE modes ROSE NAV mode only PLAN mode only ROSE NAV, ARC & PLAN mode The time displayed on ND and lower ECAM is respectively of
a. Chrono and GMT b.
41.
The T/O MEMO appears automatically a. b. c) d.
42.
2 minutes after first engine start. immediately after second engine start. 2 minutes after second engine start 2 minutes after electrical power ON With low ECAM DU failed, if Advisery is triggered
a. b. c. d) 43.
The system page will be displayed on EW/D automatically ADV message is displayed on EWD Associated key on ECAM CTL page will flash. Both (b) and (c) are correct. On Lower ECAM (SDU) permanent data, ALT SEL information is displayed in the units of
a) b. c. d. 44.
Meters, only if metric unit is selected on FCU Feet, only if metric unit is not selected on FCU Meter or feet as selected on FCU Meter even if metric unit is not selected on FCU The caution message have been suppressed by CLR PB. How can the caution message be recalled.
a. b) c. d. 45.
By pressing the RCL key for minimum 3 secs By pressing RCL key once momentarily By pressing RCL key for a max of 3 seconds It is not possible to recall caution messages. VFE parallel amber lines on the SPD scale
a. b. c. d.
Indicates the speed for S/F retraction during take off. Indicates the speed for next flap extension during approach. Indicates the speed at which flaps full is to be selected. Displayed the speed at which over speed protection become active.
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46.
DH amber above radio altitude indication on PFD indicates a. b. c) d.
47.
DH information failure DH not entered on MCDU Aircraft has reached DH which was inserted on MCDU Aircraft is above DH as selected on MCDU When does the last line of the LDG memo reads FLAPS …. CONF 3
a) b. c. d. 48.
A320 TEST PAPER
When on GPWS panel, LDG FLAP 3 pb sw is ON When landing with flaps 3 is planned on MCDU LDG memo always shows flaps …. Config 3 Both (b) and (c) are correct. If DMC 2 fails
a. DMC 3 will automatically take over b. There will be diagonal lines on PFD2, ND2 and DMC 3 has to be switched to FO3 manually. c) DMC3 has to be switched manually to FO3 d. It is only crew awareness. 49.
The trip of the speed trend arrow a. Indicates that the aircraft is going to reach OVERSPEED condition b. Indicates the speed that the aircraft will attain if pilot follows it, by accelerating the speed. c. Can be pointing up or down depending on whether the aircraft is descending or climbing. d). Indicates the speed the aircraft will attain in 10 seconds if acceleration is kept constant.
50.
The actual track symbol a) Appears on both PFD & ND in the form of a green diamond b. Appears on PFD in blue coloured diamond if selected from FCU c. Appears on PFD & ND is magenta coloured diamond if given by the FMGC d.
51.
CHECK HDG flag in amber colour appears a. ON PFD 1 and PFD 2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater than 5 deg. b. ON ND1 and ND2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater than 5 deg. c. On PFD and ND on both sides if emergency of landing between CAPT & F/O side is greater than 5 deg. d) As in (c) and an ECAM caution on EWD reads HEADING DISCREPANCY along with single chime and master caution
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52.
In flight if UTC on the lower ECAM DU is lost a. b) c. d.
53.
It can be recovered by feeding manually from MCDU The CFDIU takes over automatically DMC will start giving UTC from its own clock. None of the above are correct. The Electromechanical Vibrator of STBY altimeters operates
a) b. c. d. 54.
In flight On ground On ground or in flight When vibrator switch is selected ON Steady ALIGN flight indicates
a) b. c. d. 55.
A320 TEST PAPER
Alignment is in progress Inertial function of IR is lost Alignment fault Complete failure of ADIRU CRS selection on the STBY / CRS window on RMP is possible
a. Once any NAV key is selected and manually setting the CRS with rotary knob b) After NAV key selection and frequency set, the frequency is transferred to active window c. Only when the CRS coding is transferred to active window CRS selection will be effective. d. All the above are wrong. 56.
RMP is used for a. Communication only b. Radio navigation when used as back up mode for Radio Navigation receivers but not for communication. c) Communication as well as back mode for radio navigation receivers tuning. d. Always used for communication as well as for automatic tuning for FMGC
57.
In A320 Weather Radar a. The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar control panel b. Weather image is available in all modes on ND c. Weather image is taken off from PFD automatically in case of avionics ventilation problems. d) None of the above is correct.
58.
SEL light on RMP 3 illuminates when a. HF 1 is selected on RMP 3 b. HF 2 is selected on RMP 3 c) HF 1 is selected on RMP 1
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A320 TEST PAPER
d. VHF is selected on RMP 1 59.
The turbulence function on Wx Radar is available a. b. c) e.
60.
Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of desceat, the GPWS warning will be. a. b. c) d.
61.
Don’t sink Terrain – terrain Sink rate Too low terrain To use GCR function on Wx Radar
a. b. c) d. 62.
Gain must be auto and any range uto 320 nm Gain may be manual or auto Any range upto 80 nms Both (a) and (c) are correct. In case of Radio Altimeter 1 fault
a) b. c. d. 63.
GPWS is lost GPWS is taken over by RA2 Barometric altimeter keeps supplying the GPWS None of the above is correct GPWS system can be tested by
a) b. c. d. 64.
Pressing test pb on GPWS panel Pressing GPWS light, if aircraft is on ground Barometric altimeter keeps supplying the GPWS None of the above is correct. What does the illumination of ON BAT light on ADIRU CDU indicate
a. b) c. d. 65.
Upto 160 nm Upto 80 nm Upto 40 nm Upto 320 nm
One ore more ADIRU is supplied by aircraft battery only As in (a) and it will also be on for a few seconds at the beginning of alignment As in (b) and it will come on during fast realignment also Atleast one ADIRU is not fully serviceable. When is the fast realignment to be used.
a. During every transit stop b. If the IR mode rotary selector is kept in OFF for more than 5 seconds c) With the aircraft stationary, if residual ground speed value of greater than 5 kts is observed on ADIRU, CDU or ND d. If the normal alignment fails or ALIGN light flashes.
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66.
A320 TEST PAPER
The Altitude Alert is inhibited. a. b. c. d)
67.
When the slats are put with L/G selected down. In Approach after Capture of G/S When L/G is down locked. All the above are correct. The yaw bar on PFD is displayed when the aircraft is
a. b. c. d) 68.
Above 30 feet during take off. Below 30 feet during landing. During take off until a/c reaches 30 feet Both (a) and (c) are correct. DFDR records the a/c parameters for the last.
a) b. c. d. 69.
25 hours 50 hours As in (a) and then tape is to be changed As in (b) and then tape is to be changed What does the blue areas signify in DCT mode of weather radar
a. The rainfall is very less. b) The calibration range is exceeded, weather radar is not able to determine rainfall in this area. c. The rainfall is very high d. The weather radar energy has penetrated the target. 70.
With EIS / DMC XFR sw is NORMAL which DMCs supply to different DUs a. b. c. d)
71.
DMC 1 supplies to PFD1, ND1 both ECAMs As in (a) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2 both ECAMs DMC1 suppliers to PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM As in (c) and DMC 2 supplies to PFD2, ND2, lower ECAM If the lower ECAM display unit falls, the System / Status page can be made available
a. On either ND by means of ECAM / ND XFR selector b. On upper ECAM by pressing and holding related system page push button on ECAM control panel c. On upper ECAM, automatically d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 72.
What happens to amber caution when EMERG CANC pb is pressed a. b. c) d.
MASTER CAUTION lights go off, ECAM caution also goes off. STATUS page is called, name of caution is given under CANCELLED CAUTION Both (a) and (b) As in (b) MASTER CAUTON lights go off, but ECAM caution stays ON.
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73.
A320 TEST PAPER
If difference in roll altitudes between the 2 PFDs are more than 5 deg, what are the indications. a) b. c. d.
74.
CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ECAM caution CHECK ATT flags on faulty PFDs, ECAM caution CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ATT flags on both PFDs Only ECAM caution Vertical speed information display on PFD is normally
a. b. c) d. 75.
Inertial information Baron Information Inertial information, but if it fails, baro information is displayed Baro information, but if it fails, inertial information is displayed. What do the LOC and / or GS red flag denote
a. b) c. d. 76.
LOC and / or GS transmitter have failed LOC and / or GS receivers have failed LOC and / or GS deviations are excessive All the above. During cruise, on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and a parameter is found flashing. What does it mean ?
a) b. c. d. 77.
It is advisory condition It is level 1 caution It is level 2 caution It is level 3 caution In case of failure of FWC 1 – 2 the following are available
a. b. c. d) 78
Radio height call out Master Warming Lights Landing Distance Increment Computations ECAM system pages The DFDR is automatically de-energised.
a. b. c. d)
On ground after both engines running In flight with either engine running On ground during the first 5 minutes after electrical power ON On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down.
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79.
A320 TEST PAPER
RMP 1 and RMP 2 are dedicated to a. b. c. d)
VHF 1 & HF2 respectively HF 1 & HF2 respectively HF 1 & VHF2 respectively VHF1 & VHF2 respectively
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A320 TEST PAPER
IRS 1.
With aircraft on ground if take off CONFIG pb switch is depressed, CONFIG warning will be triggered provided. a. b. c. d.
2.
Slats and Flaps are not in Take off configuration. As in (a) or if pitch trim is not in take off range. Parking brake ON All the above are correct The top end of the black / red Barber pole on Lower right side of speed scale indicates
a. b. c. d) 3.
V ∝ prot V ∝ max V ∝ floor Vsw The appearance of ILS 1 Red flag on PFD 1 indicates
a. b. c. d) 4.
ILS frequency is not available Either LOC or G/S signals have failed LOC & G/S signals both have failed Both (a) and (c) are correct. Wind direction is displayed on ND in numeric and Analog form. Mark the correct statement
a. b. c) d. 5.
Wind direction is given w.r.t. magnetic north in numeric form Wind direction is given w.r.t. true north in Analog form Wind direction is given w.r.t. magnetic north in Analog form Wind direction is displayed in Analog form only if wind speed is more than 20 knots. The appearance of RA flag on both PFDs indicate that the
a. b. c) d. 6.
Radio altimeter No.1 has failed. PFD has failed. Both radio altimeters have failed Aircraft has come below DH The Emergency call indications in the cockpit are as follows.
a. b. c. d)
EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer once. EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer two times EMER CALL light ON and continuous Buzzer EMER CALL light ON and Buzzer three times
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7.
A320 TEST PAPER
In case of SDAC 1 + 2 fault a. b. c) d.
8.
All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost. Only red warnings, engine and fuel parameters are lost. ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available It is for crew awareness only. In case of FWC 1 + 2 fault
a. b. c. d) 9.
All ECAM system pages are available ECAM cautions and warnings are lost MC and MW lights are lost All the above are correct. Subsequent to both ECAM screen failure, if ECAM / ND TFR selected onto F/O side
a) b. c. d. 10.
E/W display appears on ND2 E/W display appears on PFD 2 System display appears on ND2 System display appears on PFD2 Landing memo appears
a. b) c. d. 11.
After selecting the L/G down Below 1500 with L/G down Below 800 with L/G down Once the slats are extended during approach During cruise, the cruise page displayed, HYD page is called by choice. To get back CRUISE page display
a. b) c. d. 12.
Press cruise page pb Press HYD page pb again Press CLR pb twice Press CTS pb If the aircraft deviates from the selected FCU altitude. Altitude window will
a. b) c. d. 13.
Pulse with continuous ‘C’ chord Flash amber with continuous ‘C’ chord Flash yellow with ‘C’ chord for 1.5 sec Flash yellow with continuous ‘C’ chord V/S digital display turns amber
a. b. c) d.
During descent at RA less than 2500’ and V/S greater than 2000’ / min During descent at RA less than 1000’ and V/S greater than 1200’ / min Both (a) and (b) are correct. Both (a) and (b) are correct and is also applicable during climb phase.
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14.
A320 TEST PAPER
Some of the warning flags which appear simultaneously on PFD and ND are a) b. c. d.
15.
HDG, CHECK, HDG, G/S LOC HDG, CHECK, HDG, CHECK ALT, ALT DH, V/S , G/S, LOC HDG, CHECK HDG, ALT, CHECK ALT, CHECK ATT WX Radar display can be superimposed on NDU with mode selector at
a. b) c. d. 16.
PLAN mode only All modes except PLAN mode ARC mode only ROSE mode only F-PLAN display is available on ND
a. b. c. d) 17.
All the ROSE modes ROSE NAV mode only PLAN mode only ROSE NAV, ARC & PLAN mode The time display on ND and lower ECAM is respectively of
a) b. c. d. 18
Chrono and GMT GMT and Chrono GMT & ET Chrono and ET The T/O MEMO appears automatically
a. b. c) d. 19.
2 minutes after first engine start Immediately after second engine start 2 minutes after second engine start 2 minutes after electrical power ON With low ECAM DU failed, if Advisory is triggered.
a. b. c. d) 20.
The system page will be displayed on EW/D automatically ADV message is displayed on EW/D Associated key on ECAM CTL panel will flash Both (b) and (c) are correct. On lower ECAM (SDU) permanent data, ALT SEL information is displayed in the units of
a) b. c. d.
Meters, only if metric unit is selected on FCU Feet, only if metric unit is not selected on FCU Meter or feet as selected on FCU Meter ever if metric unit is not selected on FCU
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21.
The caution message have been suppressed by CLR pb , How can the caution message be recalled a. b) c. d.
22.
By pressing the RCL key for minimum 3 secs. By pressing RCL key once momentarily By pressing RCL key for a max of 3 seconds. It is not possible to recall caution messages. VFE parallel amber lines on the SPD scale
a. b) c. d. 23.
Indicates the speed for S/F retraction during take off. Indicates the speed for next flap extension during approach Indicates the speed at which flaps full is to be selected. Display the speed at which over speed protection become active. ‘DH’ amber above radio altitude indication on PFD indicates
a. b. c) d. 24.
DH information failure DH not entered on MCDU Aircraft has reached DH which was inserted on MCDU Aircraft is above DH as selected on MCDU When does the last line of the LDG memo reads : FLAPS…… CONF 3
a) b. c. d. 25.
When the GPWS panel LDG FLAP 3 pb sw is ON When landing the flaps 3 is planned on MCDU LDG memo always shows Flaps…. Config 3 Both (b) and (c) are correct. What are the attention getters for FWS FWC 1 + 2 FAULT
a) b. c. d. 26.
A320 TEST PAPER
Nothing Single chime and MASTER CAUTION lights Repetitive chimes and MASTER WARNING lights As in (c) and these are not suppressed during take off or landing If DMC2 fails
a. DMC 3 will automatically take over b. There will be diagonal lines on PFD2, ND2 and upper ECAM and DMC3 has to be switched to FO3 manually c) DMC3 has to be switched manually to FO3 d. It is only crew awareness. 27.
Advisory message appears a. On lower ECAM DU in formal configuration because advisory does not come with any attention getter. b) On the EWD is mono ECAM configuration along with a flashing light on the associated key on ECAM control panel c. Always when an advisory is triggered. d. On the EWS in normal configuration with attention getters.
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28.
A320 TEST PAPER
The tip of the speed trend arrow. a. b. c. d)
29.
Indicates that the aircraft is going to reach OVERSPEED condition. Indicates the speed that the aircraft will attain if pilot follows it by accelerating the speed Can be pointing up or down depending on whether the aircraft is descending or climbing Indicates the speed the aircraft will attain in 10 seconds if acceleration is kept constant. The actual track symbol
a) b. c. d.
30.
Appears on both PFD & ND in the form of a green diamond. Appears on PFD in blue coloured diamond if selected from FCU Appears on PFD & ND is magenta coloured diamond if given by the FMGC Appears as a blue triangle if selected from FCU and magenta coloured triangle if given by FMGC ‘CHECK HDG’ flag in amber colour appears
a. ON PFD 1 and PFD 2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater than 5 deg. b. ON ND1 and ND2 if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater than 5 deg. c. ON PFD and ND on both sides if discrepancy of heading between CAPT & F/O side is greater than 5 deg. d) As in (c) and an ECAM caution on EWD reads “HEADING DISCREPANCY” along with single chime and master caution. 31.
A320 aircraft clock a) Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal fails, the other supply will keep supplying from aircraft battery hot bus. b. Has 2 electrical supplies, if normal ails the Internal battery of the clock takes over c. As in (b) and time is memorized upto 50 hours d. None of the above is correct.
32.
If flight if UTC on the lower ECAM DU is lost a. b) c. d.
33.
It can be recovered by feeding manually from MCDU The CFDIU takes over automatically DMC will start giving UTC from its own clock None of the above are correct. Mark the correct statement
a. After some failure and / or switching actions, PFD may appear on upper ECAM b) After some failure and / or switching actions, EWD may appear on any of the Capt or F/O side EFIS DU c. As in (a) and PFD may appear on lower ECAM also. d. (b) is correct only or Capt. Side EFIS DU
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34.
A320 TEST PAPER
During cruise on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and a parameter is found flashing. What does it mean ? a) b. c. d.
35.
It is advisory condition It is level 1 caution It is level 2 caution It is level 3 warning Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear ?
a. b) c. d. 36.
Only on the lower left area of the upper ECAM DU On the lower left area of the EWD On the right memo space of EWD Only on the lower right area of the upper ECAM DU With EIS/DMC XFR sw in NORMAL, which DMCs supply to different Dus
a. b. c. d) 37.
DMC1 supplies to PFD1, ND1 both ECAMs As in (a) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2 both ECAMs DMC1 supplies to PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM As in (c) and DMC2 supplies to PFD2, ND2, lower ECAM If the lower ECAM display unit fails, the System/ Status page can be made available
a. ON either ND by means of ECAM/ND XFR selector b. On Upper ECAM by pressing and holding related system page push button on ECAM control panel c. On the Upper ECAM, automatically d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 38.
When does the take off memo appear a) b. c. d.
39.
Whenever TO CONFIG pb is pressed During take off After first engine start automatically After first engine when TO CONFIG pb is pressed What happens to amber caution when EMERG CANC pb is pressed.
a. b. c) d. 40.
MASTER CAUTION lts go off, ECAM caution also goes off STATUS page is called, name of caution is given under CANCELLED CAUTION Both (a) and (b) As in (b), MASTER CAUTION lts go off, but ECAM caution stays ON If difference in roll altitudes between the 2 PFDs are more than 5 deg, what are the indications.
a. b. c. d.
CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ECAM caution CHECK ATT flag on faulty PFD, ECAM caution CHECK ATT flags on both PFDs, ATT flags on both PFDs Only ECAM caution.
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41.
A320 TEST PAPER
What are the different indications on which cyan triangular symbol (to indicate selected value) appear a. b) c. d.
42.
AS ALT, HDG on PFD, HDG on ND AS HDG / TRK on PFD, HDG / TRK on ND AS HDG/TRK on PFD only HDG/TRK ON PFD, ND The lower end of black/red barber pole on top right side of speed scale indications
a. b. c) d. 43.
Vmo Vmo + 6 As in (a) or speed corresponding to MMO As in (b) or speed corresponding to MMO + 0.01 Vertical speed information display on PFD is normally
a. b. c) d. 44.
Inertial information Baro information Inertial information but if it fails, baro information is displayed Baro information, but if it fails, inertial information is displayed What do the LOC and / or GS red flag denote
a. b) c. d. 45.
LOC and / or GS transmitter have failed LOC and / or GS receiver have failed LOC and / or GS deviations are excessive All the above What does the flashing amber alt window indicate
a. b. c. d) 46.
A/c is approaching FCU selected altitude A/c is deviating from FCU selected altitude As in (a) and it is accompanied by continuous C chord As in (b) and it is accompanied by continuous C chord The Altitude Alert is inhibited
a. b. c. d) 47.
When the slats are out with L/G selected down In approach after Capture of G/S When L/G is down locked All the above are correct. On which DU, the wind information appear
a. b. c. d.
PFD ND in all modes ND in all rose modes ND in all modes except PLAN
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48.
A320 TEST PAPER
Which combination of bearing pointers is not possible on ND a) b. c. d.
49.
VOR 1, ADF1 on ND2 ADF1, VOR2 on ND1 VOR2, ADF1 on ND1 ADF2, VOR2 on ND1 What are the warning / cautions for both FWC failure
a. b. c. d) 50.
Nothing except ECAM caution Red M/W lts , CRC , ECAM warnings Amber M/C lts , SC, ECAM caution As in (a) and it is not suppressed during any phase of the flight After take off in configuration 1 + F the symbol appearing on Right Side of speed scale will be
a. b) c. d. 51.
F S F or S depending upon air speed F and then S On ground, if 10000 feet altitude is selected on FCU, it would be indicated on PFD
a. b. c) d. 52.
In the first column of FMA Below altitude scale At the top of altitude scale By a cyan symbol on altitude When does STD indication below ALT scale pulse
a. b) c. d. 53.
Whenever baro know is pulled for 9 secs STD is selected below transition level STD is selected above transition level ONH is selected below transition level What do the blue line and red ribbon in ALT scale on PFD mean
a. b) c. d. 54.
Both denote radio altitude Landing elevation, ground reference Both denote ground reference Both denote the landing elevation. The yaw bar on PFD is displayed when the aircraft is
a. b. c. d)
Above 30 feet during take off Below 30 feet during landing During take off until a/c reac/hes 30 feet Both (b) and (c) are correct.
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55.
A320 TEST PAPER
When a diagonal line on upper ECAM appears a. b. c. d)
56.
E/W display will appear automatically on lower ECAM It indicates partial failure on DMC 2 It indicates partial failure on DMC1 Both (a) and (c) are correct. In case of failure of FWC 1 + 2, the following are available
a. b. c. d) 57.
Radio height call out Master warning lights Landing Distance Increment Computations ECAM system pages Both ECAM Dus have failed and ECAM/ND TRF switch selected to F/O side
a. b) c. d. 58.
SD appears on ND2 EW/D appears on ND2 As in (a) and SD appears on PFD2 if PFD/ND transfer switch is pressed. No transfer takes place. The aircraft is on ground and the take off power is applied. The master warning lights will flash, with red CONFIG ECAM message if
a. Speed brakes extended b. Door not closed c. Flex Temp not set d) All the above are correct 59.
If both SDACs fall a. b) c. d.
60.
All red warnings are lost No more Amber cautions are given All systems pages are lost All red warnings and amber cautions are lost The ‘Ground Reference’ indication on PFD altitude scale is given by
a. b) c. d.
Horizontal blue line below 570 feet Red ribbon below 570 feet 0 Red ribbon below transition level Horizontal blue line below transition level
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A320 TEST PAPER
NAVIGATION 1.
The Electromechanical Vibrator of STBY altimeters operates a) b. c. d.
2.
IN flight On ground On ground or in flight When vibrator switch is selected ON Steady ALIGN flight indicates
a) b. c. d. 3.
Alignment is in progress Inertial function of IR is lost Alignment fault Complete failure of ADIRU CRS selection on the STBY/CRS window on RMP is possible
a. Once any NAV key is selected and manually setting the CRS with rotary knob b) After NAV key selection and frequency set the frequency is transferred to active window c. Only when the CRS setting is transferred to active windows CRS selection will be effective d. All the above are wrong. 4.
Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of descent the GPWS warning will be a. b. c) d.
5.
FAULT amber lt on IR flashing means a) b. c. d.
6.
Don’t sink Terrain – terrain Sink rate Too low terrain
FAULT is detected and will be associated with ECAM caution IR function is lost but it can be used in ATT mode & HDG mode Difference is Lat / Long Alignment fault RMP is used for
a. Communication only b. Radio navigation when used as backup mode for Radio Navigation receivers but not for communication c. Communication as well as back mode for radio navigation receivers tuning d. Always used for communication as well as for automatic tuning for FMGC 7.
IN A320 Weather Radar a. The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar Control Panel b. Weather Image is available in all modes on ND c. Weather Image is taken off from PFD automatically in case of avionics ventilation problems
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A320 TEST PAPER
d) None of the above is correct. 8.
On STBY altimeter the altimeter baro reference a. b. c. d)
9.
Can be in inches of mercury or hectopascals Inches of mercury only Depends on the unit selected on PFD controller Hectopascals only In case of Radio Altimeter 1 fault
a) b. c. d. 10.
GPWS is lost GPWS is taken over by RA2 Barometric altimeter keeps supplying the GPWS None of the above is correct. GPWS system can be tested by
a. b. c. d) 11.
Pressing test pb on GPWS panel Pressing GPWS light, if aircraft is on ground As in (a) and aircraft is in flight upto 1000 ft As n (b) or aircraft is in flight above 1000 ft but below 8000 ft What does the illumination of ON BAT flight on ADIRU CDU indicate ?
a b) c. d. 12.
One or more ADIRU is supplied by aircraft battery only As in (a) and it will also be on for a few seconds at the beginning of alignment As in (b) and it will come on during fast realignment also Atleast one ADIRU is not fully serviceable When is the fast realignment to be used
a. During every transit stop b. If the IR mode rotary selector is kept in OFF for more than 5 seconds c) With the aircraft stationary, if residual ground speed value of greater than 5 kts is observed on ADIRU CDU or ND d. If the normal alignment fails or ALIGN light flashes 13.
On GPWS control panel, “LDG FLAP 3 ON" is selected, What will be the last line on LDG memo a) b. c. d.
14.
FLAP ………………. FLAP ………………. FLAP ………………. FLAP ……………….
CONFIG 3 FULL FULL or CONFIG 3 CONFIG 2
In Rose NAV Mode, a specified runway is drawn to scale on ND in following ranges a. b. c. d)
40, 80, 160 nm 80, 160, 320 nm 20, 40, 80 nm 10, 20, 40 nm
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15.
A320 TEST PAPER
Is it possible to have all the 3 types of NAV (ADV, VOR, ILS) information on ND2 ? If yes, in which mode ? a. b. c) d.
16.
No. Yes in all modes. Yes in ROSE ILS/ Mode Yes in any ROSE Mode The DFDR is automatically de-energized
a. b. c. d) 17.
On ground after both engines running In flight with either engine running On ground during the first 5 minutes after electrical power ON On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down. What happens if RA1 fails
a. b. c. d) 18.
RA flag appears on PFD1 RA2 supplies to PFD1 As in (a) and GPWS FAULT it comes on On ground after 5 minutes of last engine shut down The flashing if 1 R fault light on ADIRS CDU can be due to
a. b. c) d. 19.
Complete failure of IRS NAV facility of IRS is lost As in (b) and ATT information may be recovered. As in (b) and ATT information cannot be recovered What does the flashing of an ALIGN it. Indicate
a. b) c. d. 20.
Alignment is in progress Present position is not entered within 10 mins Alignment is completed Fault in ADIRU When does the ON BAT light on ADIRU CDU come on
a. b. c) d. 21.
One or more IRS are working on BAT Initially while switching on an ADIRU in case of normal alignment Both (a) and (b) Both (a) and (b) but also during fast alignment. What are the courses for STBY Alt. A/S
a. b. c) d.
STBY PITOT STBY static ADM on STBY Pitot ADMs on each STBY static ADM on STBY Pitot, ADM on cross connected STBY static STBY Pitot ADM on cross connected STBY static
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22.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the total no. of heading indications in the Cockpit. a. b. c. d)
23.
4 6 5 7 The ND mode in which VOR, ILS & ADF can be simultaneously presented is
a) b. c. d. 24.
Rose ILS Rose VOR Rose NAV PLAN What is the duration of quick Access Recorder (QAR) tape
a) b. c. d. 25.
50 hrs 25 hrs As in (a) and it is an endless tape As in (b) and it is an endless tape The turbulence function on Wx Radar is available
a. b. c) d. 26.
Upto 160 nm Upto 80 nm Upto 40 nm Upto 320 nm What does the blue areas signify in RCT mode of weather radar
a. The rainfall is very loss b) The calibration range is exceeded weather radar is not able to determine rainfall in this area. c. The rainfall is very high d. The weather radar energy has penetrated the target 27.
Mark the correct statement a. Both ILS/ DMEs can be controlled from RMP1 if RMP2 switch is OFF b. Both ILS/DMEs can be controlled from RMP2 if RMP1 switch is OFF c) Both ILS/DMEs can be controlled from either RMP provided both RMPs are set to ON d. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
28.
RMP1 and RMP2 are dedicated to a. b. c. d)
VHF1 & HF2 respectively HF1 & HF2 respectively HF1 & VHF2 respectively VHF1 & VHF2 respectively
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29.
A320 TEST PAPER
DFDR records the a/c parameters for the last a) b. c. d.
30.
25 hours 50 hours As in (a) and then tape is to be changed As in (b) and then tape is to be changed It is desired to cancel loud “Glide Slpe” aural warning. How shall it be done ?
a. b. c) d. 31.
It is not possible By selecting GPWS MODE sw to OFF By pressing any one of GS amber light By selecting GPWS sw to OFF To test GPWs a/c should be
a. b. c d) 32.
On ground In flight On ground or in flight below 1000 feet On ground or in flight above 1000 feet The VOR 1 flag on DDRMI appears if
a. b. c) d. 33.
VBR 1 receiver fails Compass signal of ADIRS 2 invalid As in (a) or internal failure RMI As in (b) or internal failure of RMI The compass card of ADF RMI is driven by
a) b. c. d. 34.
ADIRU 1 ADIRU 2 ADIRU 3 ADIRU 1 or By ADIRU 3 if captain is on ADIRU 3 Mark the correct statement
a. b. c) d. 35.
VOR – DME can be displayed on PFDs & DDRMI ILS – DME can be displayed on PFDs and DDRMI VOR – DME can be displayed on NDs and DDRMI ILS – DME can be displayed on NDs and DDRMI With ATC transponder switch selected to ‘ON’ the transponder operates when
a. b. c) d.
Aircraft is in flight, not on ground Aircraft is on ground, not in flight Aircraft is either on ground or flight Aircraft is on ground and ALT reporting switch is ON
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CTE – IAL – HYD
36.
A320 TEST PAPER
Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of descent, the GPWs warning will be a. b. c) d.
37.
Don’t sink Terrain – terrain Sink rate Too low terrain To use GCR function on Wx rate are
a. b. c) d.
Gain must be auto and any range upto 320 nm Gain may be manual or auto Any range upto 80 nms Both 9B0 and (c) are correct.
WATER WASTE SYSTEM
1.
What is the capacity of water tank ? a) b. c. d.
2.
200 litres 150 litres 135 litres 135 gallons The capacity of water tank on A320 aircraft is
a) b. c. d.
200 litres 135 litres 30 US gallons 36 US gallons
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER
COMMUNICATIONS
1.
SEL light on RMP 3 illuminates when a. b. c) d.
2.
HF1 is selected on RMP3 HF2 is selected on RMP 3 HF1 is selected on RMP 1 VHF is selected on RMP 1 The turbulence function on Wx Radar is available
a. b. c) d. 3.
Upto 160 nm Upto 80 nm Upto 40 nm Upto 320 nm If CVR TEST button is pressed on ground & AUTO condition is met
a) Low frequency signal sounds through both loud speakers if parking brake is ON and GND CTL button is pressed to ON. b. Low frequency signal sounds through both loudspeakers irrespective of parking brake position. c. Low frequency signal sounds through both loudspeakers irrespective of GND CTL button position d. None of the above is correct. 4.
On Audio Control Panel, VHF 1 transmission key is selected and INT/RADIO switch is selected to INT. On … stick, Radio is selected, the speed will be transmitted to : a. b. c. d.
VHF 1 INT Speech cannot be directed anywhere unless ACP switch is released to neutral Either VHF 1 or INT
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CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER FMGS
1.
When should the fast alignment of ADIRs be done a. b. c) d.
2.
During every transit stops If transit time is more than 1 hour During transmit stops, if residual ground speed is more than 5 knots If ADIRU are switched for less than one hour What is to be checked about IRS drift during parking checklist by accessing the POSITION MONITOR page
a. If drift is less than 2 – 2t it is acceptable, where (t) is the time in hours for which ADIRU is in NAV mode . b. If drift is between 2 + 2t and 3+3t it should be checked for next flight. c. If drift is more than 3+3t, it is not acceptable d) All the above are correct 3.
If ILS1 falls, what are the inoperative systems a. b) c. d.
4.
Only CAT 2 ILS indications on Capt. PFD, Co-pilots ND, CAT 2 are lost ILS indications on Capt. PFD, ND, CAT2 are lost ILS indications on Capt. PFD, F/O, ND, CAT 2 , FMGS 1 are lost What is the advantage of SEC mode in Wx Radar
a. b. c) d. 5.
Weather Radar Antenna life lift is increased NDS life is increased Faster update of the weather picture All the above Regarding bleed system, which statement is correct
a) b. c. d. 6.
APU bleed has priority over Engine 1 & 2 Engine bleed valve closes when BMC 1 fails Due to BMC 2 fault, Right wing bleed leakage detection is lost All the above are correct. Yaw bar is displayed on PFD in the following mode
a. b. c. d) 7.
RWY mode only Roll out mode only TRWYTRK mode RWY or ROLL OUT mode The message on PFD FMA, reads as “VERT DISCON AHEAD” it means ?
a. b. c. d)
There is F plan discontinuity ahead OP_DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead DES mode engaged and F-Plan discontinuity exists ahead DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists on the next leg.
90
CTE – IAL – HYD 8.
A320 TEST PAPER
Mark the correct statement a. b) c. d.
9.
Lateral and vertical revisions are possible on a temporary F-Plan ‘DIRECT TO’ function, when used, erases a temporary F-Plan Pressing the ‘AIRPORT’ key erases a temporary F-Plan Both (b) and (c) are correct. When alternate predictions are calculated, which of the following are considered ?
a. b. c) d. 10.
Flight Level 310, if airway distance less than 200 NM, FL 350 otherwise Cost index 20 Aircraft weight equal to landing weight at primary DEST All the above are correct. If autopilot is engaged without FD ?
a) b. c. d. 11.
HDG and Y/S modes are engaged HDG and SPD modes are engaged OP CLIMB and NAV modes are engaged EXP CLIMB and NAV modes are engaged NAV is armed on ground provided
a. b. c) d. 12.
F- PLAN is available and heading preset is selected on FCU F-PLAN is available and no heading preset is selected on FCU As in (b) and FDs are ON F-PLAN is available and NAV aids are tuned manually on RMP During take off phases, if both AP/FDs are switched OFF and if thrust levers are selected to CLB gate ?
a. b. c. d)
13.
ATHR operates in THRUST Mode and current speed is maintained ATHR operates in SPD Mode and V2 speed is maintained. ATHR operates in THRUST Mode and V2 + 10 kts is maintained ATHR operates in SPD Mode and V2 or current speed whichever is higher is maintained. The Thrust reduction altitude (THR RED ALT) on take off PERF page
a. b. c) d. 14.
Cannot be selected below 1500 feet Cannot be selected below 2500 feet Cannot be selected below 400 feet Cannot be entered by the pilots GO AROUND mode is engaged
a. b. c. d)
By selecting thrust levers in the TO / GA position Inflight provided flaps / slats handle is at zero Both (a) and (b) are correct. As in (a) and inflight when flaps / slats handle is not at zero.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 15.
A320 TEST PAPER
After engine start it INITIALISE WEIGHTS message comes, gross weight can be inserted on a. b. c. d)
16.
Take off performance page Progress page Init page B Fuel prediction page Aircraft position determined by each FMGC is as follows
a. b. c. d) 17.
Before Take off, FMGC position is the IRS position As take-off, FMGC position is updated to the runway threshold position Before Take-off, FMGC position is the radio position from two DMEs Both (a) and (b) are correct. Mark the correct statement
a. b) c. d. 18.
Both autopilots can be engaged on ground with engines not running Both autopilots can be engaged in LAND or Go-Around mode Only one autopilot can be engaged on ground with engines running Both (a) and (b) are correct. After take off, the vertical guidance by SRs is disengaged
a. b. c) d. 19.
Automatically at FCU altitude By putting the speed knob Automatically at ACC ALT All the above are correct A NAV Aid is deselected on SELECTED NAV AIDS page
a. The CLR action on deselected Nav Aid above FMGC to use that Nav Aid again b. The deselection cannot be cleared until after landing c. The deselection is cleared when secondary data base is activated on aircraft status page. d) Both (a) and (c) are correct. 20.
In normal law with all protections active, the AP will disconnect if a. b. c. d)
21.
High speed protection is active AOA protection is active Bank angle is more than 45 deg All the above are correct. What happens when FCU altitude is brought above aircraft with the aircraft in DESCENT mode ?
a. b) c. d.
Aircraft reverts to OPEN DESCENT mode Aircraft reverts to V/S mode and current V/S is maintained Aircraft continues in DESCENT mode Aircraft reverts to V/S mode, current V/S is maintained and aircraft starts climb towards FCU altitude.
92
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22.
A320 TEST PAPER
VOR APPR is selected on ARRIVAL page, ILS is tuned on RAD NAV page, What happens if APPR push button is pressed ? a. ILS approach is automatically selected. b. CHECK APPR GUIDANCE message will be displayed on MCDU and PFD c. The available approach guidance mode is APP NAV / FINAL d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
23.
COST INDEX on the DESCENT page a. b. c. d)
24.
May be changed if needed even after DESCENT is engaged Cannot be changed at all. Is frozen and can no longer be changed after DESCENT is engaged As in C and may be changed, if needed, before DESCENT is engaged TEMP F-PLAN page is automatically displayed
a) If an entry of NEXT WAY POINT, NEW DEST or VIA / GO TO is made on the LAT REV page b. If SEC F-PLAN page is selected on MCDU and COPY ACTIVE prompt is pressed c. If SEC F- PLAN page is selected on MCDU and ACTIVATE SEC prompt is pressed d. When DIR to page is selected on MCDU 25.
During take off and GA the speed window on the FCU displays a. b. c) d.
26.
The speed manually inserted y the crew into the FCU and the light is out The speed manually inserted by the crew into the MCDUI and the light is illuminated Dashes and the light is illuminated provided Vs is available 100 knots as the defaulted value. On FMA, TOGA LK indication appears when
a) b. c. d. 27.
ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and the aircraft has come out of alpha floor condition. ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and alpha floor condition being satisfied. ATHR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and thrust levers being in TO/GA position ATHR holds disengaged by ATHR push button with thrust levers in TO/GA position When MANAGED GUIDANCE is working
a. b. c. d) 28.
FCU windows including ALT window are dashed FCU windows shows the values selected by FMGC FCU windows except ALT windows are dashed. As in (c) and white dots illuminate on FCU next to each window With the thrust levers in CLB gate, ATHR disengages. The engines thrust
a. b) c. d.
Equals to climb thrust limits Is frozen at the existing thrust Corresponds to the thrust levers position Progressively becomes equal to the thrust levers position
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CTE – IAL – HYD 29.
The managed AP/FD lateral modes are a. b. c. d)
30.
NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK HDG, NAV, GA, GA-TRK NAV, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY, TRK, GA TRK The flight guidance functions are
a. b. c) d. 31.
Autopilot, flight plan, auto thrust Autopilot, performance, flight plan Autopilot, flight director, auto thrust Flight management, Autopilot, auto thrust. When one FMGC fails
a. b. c. d) 32.
The system works in SINGLE mode The system works in INDEPENDENT mode OPP FMGC IN PROGRESS message appears on MCDU Both (a) and (c) are correct With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and ATHR active, the ATHR mode:
a. b. c. d) 33.
Can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU Can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU Depends on AP lateral mode Depends on AP vertical mode In take off mode, SRS guidance will be displayed it
a. b. c. d) 34.
V2 is selected on FCU speed window V2 is defined on MCDUI PERF T/O page V2 is selected on FCU and flaps are extended V2 is defined on MCDU and slats are extended. If both FDs are set to OFF (with APs already OFF) when the aircraft is above THR RED ALT and below ACCL ALT, target speed for ATHR is
a. b) c. d. 35.
260 knots Current speed 100 knots V2 For Take off, thrust levers are pushed to TOGA / FLEX gate with FD on and V2 defined on PERF TAKE OFF page.
a. b. c) d. 36.
A320 TEST PAPER
ATHR engages automatically and ATHR push button illuminates on FCU ATHR engages in TOGA LK SRS mode is engaged All the above are correct.
When entering F-Plan discontinuity a. Managed guidance is maintained and it guides the aircraft to the next way point assuming a direct leg. b. Selected guidance is engaged in HDG – V/S c) As in (b) and predictions assume a direct leg from PPOS to the next way point d. Selected guidance is engaged and no more prediction would be available.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
37.
A320 TEST PAPER
Mark the correct statement a. b) c. d.
38.
When AP/FD acquires and holds on ALTITUDE, ATHR is engaged in thrust mode When AP/FD acquires and holds a V/S, the ATHR is engaged in SPD / MACH mode When AP/FD engaged, the ATHR is thrust mode When AP/FD acquires to hold a SPEE D, the ATHR varies thrust to maintain this selected speed. The active F-Plan is erased when
a. b. c) d. 39.
The pilot calls the aircraft status page The wheels touch the runway at landing. The aircraft has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing One engine is shut down on the bay. To preset a heading of 210 Degrees before take off.
a. Pull HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 210 Degrees and press HDG knob to engage. b. Turn HDG knob, set 210 Degrees and pull to engage. c) Turn HDG knob, set 210 Degrees, before take off pull HDG knob, when ATC clears to turn to 210 Degrees after take off. d. Push HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 210 Degree and pull HDG knob to engage. 40.
To determine the aircraft position, FMGC used data from a. b. c. d)
41.
DME, VOR or ILS systems Clocks and Ground speed computation Three ADIRS Both (a) and (c) are correct. The drift shown for the each IR on the last of the POSN MONITOR page is
a. b. c. d) 42.
Difference between the MIX IRS position and the individual IR position Difference between the average FMGC position and the individual IR position Difference between RADIO position and the individual IR position Difference between on side FMGC position and the individual IR position The Speed / Mach preselection facility on the PERF CLB, PERF CRUISE and PERF DES page can be done .
a. b) c. d. 43.
Any time irrespective of the phase of the flight Any time before aircraft enters the respective flight phase Any time after the aircraft has entered the respective flight phase None of the above. NAV mode engages
a. b. c. d)
At take off power application At acceleration altitude 30 seconds after lift off provided HDG PRESET is done 30 seconds after lift off provided HDG PRESET is not done.
95
CTE – IAL – HYD
44.
A320 TEST PAPER
If a take off has been carried out without entering V2 on the PERF TAKE OFF page. a. b) c. d.
45.
No vertical mode engages at take off power application As in (a) and V/S engages 5 seconds after lift off. SRS mode would still engage provided V2 is set on the FCU speed windows SRS mode is not affected at all. If gross weight has not been entered and the aircraft has taken off
a. Managed speed is not available for take off and V/S mode engages 5 seconds after lift off. b) When the aircraft leaves the SRS mode, the target speed becomes the current speed and is no longer managed. c. Aircraft will not come out of the SRS mode ever after acceleration altitude unless the gross weight is reentered. d. None of the above. 46.
The lateral mode available during TAKE OFF before lift off a) b. c. d.
47.
RWY mode is an ILS turned to a station corresponding to the departure runway RWY TRK mode RWY mode irrespective of an ILS is tuned or not NAV mode RWY TRK mode engages
a. At take off power application provided an ILS is tuned to a station corresponding to the departure runway. b) 30 seconds after lift off if NAV was not armed. c. 30 seconds after lift off if V2 is not entered on the PERF TAKE OFF page. d. As a lateral mode in the go-around phase 48.
If the NAV mode is lost the affect on the DES mode is a. b. c) d.
49.
No affect at all DES Mode continues DES mode reverts to OP DES mode DES reverts to V/S mode No vertical mode is available without NAV mode. Second column of FMA goes blank. On the PERF DESCENT page a speed other than ECON speed is entered on the active mode.
a) Once the system switches to the descent phase, it sets the managed target to this entered value and it is called auto speed. b. Once the system switches to descent phase this speed is treated as selected speed by the FG c. Once the system switches to descent phase this speed is treated as managed target and its value can be changed on the PERF DES page is required. d. There is no provision for such an entry.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 50.
A320 TEST PAPER
A go around has been carried out without setting thrust levers to TOGA position a. This will sequence the destination and erase the active flight plan when flying over or a beam the airport. b. Carrying out a god around without setting TOGA thrust is not permitted. c) As in (a) but if TOGA thrust is selected temporarily and then the THR lever is retarded, the flight plan is not erased. d. This will not have any effect on the flight plan.
51.
NAV aid deselection can be done a. On the RAD NAV page but these navaids can be tuned manually through IDENT only b. On the RAD NAV page but these navaids can be tuned manually through FREQUENCY only c. On the SELECTED NAV AIDS page but these navaids cannot be tuned manually. d) On the SELECTED NAV AIDS page but these navaids can be tuned manually through frequency only
. 52.
The vertical deviation VDEV shown on the PROGRESS page is an indication of a. Altitude error as per the altitude constrains entered for the way point. b. Likely height of the aircraft above the runway threshold and it is shown in the APPROACH phase. c. Deviation of the aircraft from the pre-planned cruise flight level when NAV mode is engaged d) Vertical deviation between the present altitude and the altitude at which the aircraft would be if it were on the managed descent path when NAV mode is engaged.
53.
Updating of FMGC position in flight is available from a. b) c. d.
54.
POSN MONITOR page PROGRESS page UNIT A page UPDATE page If both the RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITATION functions fail in flight
a. Full rudder travel is available irrespective of the speed b. Rudder travel limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the failure has taken place for the rest of the flight. c) Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the failure has taken place till the slats are extended and thereafter full authority is available d. This has no affect whatsoever. 55.
The FCU allows a. b) c. d.
Modification of flight plan of FM part Selection of FG function modes Selection of radio navigation frequencies IRS alignment.
97
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A320 TEST PAPER
FUEL 1.
When will the FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT Message a. b. c. d)
2.
If centre tank becomes empty Centre tank booster pumps running ever after slat extension Centre tank booster pumps are running 5 mts after centre tank reaches LO level Both (b) and (c) are correct. What do you do if inner or outer cell High Fuel Temp warning comes ?
a. b. c. d) 3.
No action Switch off the generator and delay the take off on ground Switch off generator increase fuel flow if temp still high IDG OFF in flight Both (b) and (c) are correct. Fuel is stores in centre tank, in AUTO mode centre tank booser pumps run on ground
a. b) c. d. 4.
During engine start for 2 minutes after engine start if the slats are extended During engine start for 2 minutes after engine start if the slats are not extended If wing tank booster pumps are off If wing tank is not full During take off which tank supplies fuel to engines
a. Centre tank supplies fuel to both engines b. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and RH wing tank supplies fuel to No. 2 engine. c. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and LH wing tank supplies fuel to No. 1 engine. d) Respective wing tanks supply fuel to the engines 5.
Which tank receives the fuel from the fuel diverter valve ? a. b. c. d.
6.
Centre tank Inner cells of the wing tank Outer cells of the wing tank As in (c) if outer cells are already full then fuel spills into inner cells What are the uses of sequence valves in the fuel system ?
a. b) c. d.
To control the booster pump operation To consume centre tank fuel first, then wing tank fuel To operate the transfer valves in the desired time To control fuel temperature within limit
98
CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
When do the transfer valves close ? a. Once the out cell is full b) On ground, during refueling operation when the refueling mode selector is put to REFUEL positions c. On ground during refueling operation, after the inner cell becomes full d. On ground during refueling operation, if the inner cell fuel is more than 750 kgs (Low level)
8.
When do the transfer valves open ? a. If any one inner cell reaches low level, the transfer valve on either side open. b. If both inner cell reaches low level, then only transfer valves open c. If any one inner cell reaches low level, the corresponding side both transfer valves open. d) If any one inner cell reaches low level, both sides, all transfer valves open.
9.
If any one centre tank booster pump fails, with fuel in centre tank, is it possible to feed both engines from tank ? a. No. it is not possible b) Yes, it is possible by opening the cross feed valve. c. Yes, it is possible by switching the mode selector to manual d. No, it is not possible, since wing tank booster pumps are feeding immediately.
10.
If FOB indication is displayed with 2 amber dashes in the last two digits, what does it mean ? a. b. c. d)
11.
What are the indications if any one of the booster pump fails in the inner cell ? a. b) c. d.
12.
FO1 is degraded If all tanks are affected, this will affect the fuel qty. by +390 kgs – 750 kgs FO1 channel or channel 2 has failed. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Respective Fault light with ECAM message As in (a) and fuel page appears in Lower ECAM Master Caution with single chime All the above are correct. What are the occasions FOB is boxed amber on fuel page ?
a. When both the centre tank pumps have failed b. If both the transfer valves in any one tank fail to open when inner tank reaches low level. c. When both pimps of inner cell fail d) Enter the conditions on (a) and (b) are satisfied.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
13.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the maximum altitude for fuel gravity if aircraft has flown for less than 30 minutes above ft 300 a. b. c) d.
14.
15000 feet 10000 feet 30000 feet 25000 feet During electrical smoke configuration which booster pumps run ?
a. b. c) d 15.
No. 1 pump in each tank As in (a) open the X feed Valve so that centre tank feeds both engines No. 1 pumps of each wing tank No. 1 pump of each wing tank run along with No.2 pump of centre tank After the slat extension of the centre tank pumps do not stop what is the ECAM caution
a) b. c. d.
Auto feed fault Centre tank pumps LO PRESSURE CENTRE TANK PUMP NOT FEEDING memo display Centre tank pumps OFF
100
CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER
POWER PLANT
1.
A320 aircraft Engine power rating is a. b) c. d.
2.
25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to ISA + 40 Deg. C 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to ISA + 150 Deg. C 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to 30 Deg. C 25000 lbs of thrust flat rated to ISA + 2.5 Deg. C What are the parameters required for EPR computation ?
a. b. c) d. 3.
Tu T2 Altitude Tu T2 Speed Tu T2 Ta Altitude Speed bleed status. Tu T Altitude Speed bleed status existing EPR What are the parameters required for N! computation in unrated N1 mode ?
a) b. c. d. 4.
Tu only Tu T2 Tu T2 Altitude Tu Tm Altitude Which power setting mode, auto thrust is available ?
a. b) c. d. 5.
EPR mode and rated N1 mode EPR mode only EPR mode N1 rated and N1 unrated mode EPR mode and N1 unrated mode. How do you auto start the engine ?
a) b. c. d. 6.
Engine mode set to start / Ign, master switch ‘ON’ Engine mode set to norm, master switch ON Engine mode set to start / Ign, Man start to ON, and master switch ‘ON’ Engine mode se to start / Ign, Master switch ON and MAN START ON till N2 reaches 43% What is the maximum EGT during starting the engine
a. b. c) d.
590 Deg. C 610 Deg. C 635 Deg.C 745 Deg. C
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CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the maximum continuous oil temperature allowed for engine running ? a. b. c. d)
8.
165 Deg. C 150 Deg. C 157 Deg. C 155 Deg. C What are the indications if the oil temperature exceeds the maximum limit ?
a) b. c. d. 9.
ECAM message Master Caution, HSC and ENG page on Lower ECAM ECAM message and ENG page on Lower ECAM Only ENG page appears on Lower ECAM ECAM message Master Warning CRC and Engine page on Lower ECAM What is the minimum oil temperature before take off power ?
a) b. c. d. 10.
+ 50 Deg. C + 10 Deg. C + 40 Deg. C + 110 Deg. C What are the warnings of oil pressure drops below 60 psi ?
a. b) c. d. 11.
ECAM message, Master Caution, SSC & Engine page on lower ECAM ECAM message, Master Warning, CRC and Engine page on lower ECAM Only ECAM message Only Engine page appears on lower ECAM Engine Compressor vane fault indicates
a. b) c. d. 12.
LP compressor bleed valve fault only LP compressor bleed valve fault or VSV angle disagree HP compressor 7th stage and 10th stage bleed valve fault Both (b) and (c) are correct. What are the indications for the engine stall ?
a. ECAM message with master warming, CRC b. ECAM message with master caution, single chime c. Abnormal engine noises, fluctuating performance parameters high or a rapid EGT rise d) Both (b) and (c) are correct. 13.
ACC system is used for a. b. c. d)
To increase the compressor efficiency To optimize the turbine blade tip clearance and there by increase the turbine efficiency It uses fan air as the cooling medium Both (b) and (c) are correct.
102
CTE – IAL – HYD 14.
A320 TEST PAPER
FADEC can do the abort start provided a. b. c) d.
N2 is less than 55% N2 is less than 43% N2 is less than 50% N2 is less than 57%
7 15.
During engine auto start on ground, if FADEC does the abort start, it controls a. b) c. d.
16.
HP fuel valves HP fuel valve, ignition system and faster valve LP fuel valves ignition and starter valve HP & LP fuel valves and ignition. To operate thrust reverser systems
a. b. c. d) 17.
Hydraulic pressure should be available Respective LGCIU should function Atleast SEC4 should be available All the above are correct Disengagement of auto thrust take place
a. b. c. d) 18.
By pressing ATHR pb or instinctive disconnect pb By moving any one thrust lever above MCT below 100 feet RA By selecting N1 mode All the above are correct What happens to engine thrust if active A/ THR disengaged with thrust levers in CLB gate ?
a) Engine thrust is frozen at the value before the A/THR disengagement and THR – LK message appears on the FMA b. Engine power reduces to IDLE power on both engines c. Engine thrust will change immediately and corresponds to thrust lever position d. Engine power increases upto MCT on both engines. 19.
To operate No.1 engine thrust reverser system a. b. c. d)
20.
Green hydraulic system pressure should be available LGCIU should function SEC1 or SEC2 should be available All the above are correct For engine relight in flight
a. b) c. d.
Auto start is recommended with Man start pb ON and X Bleed open Auto start is recommended with X Bleed Open and Man Start pb OFF MANUAL start is recommended if N2 is less than 15 MANUAL start is recommended with X Bleed open
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CTE – IAL – HYD
21.
A320 TEST PAPER
What happens to the engine power at the time of disengagement of ATHR if the thrust levers are not in CLB or MCT a. b. c. d)
22.
Engine power is frozen to the value at the item of disengagement of ATHR Engine power immediately changes to idle Engine power changes to TOGA or MCT Engine power changes to TLA position immediately Over boost of engine power is possible in
a. b. c. d) 23.
EPR mode only EPR & rated N1 mode Rated and unrated N1 mode Unrated N1 mode only During auto start on ground, which ignition is used
a. b. c) d. 24.
IGN ‘A’ only IGN ‘B’ only Either IGN ‘A’ or IGN ‘B’ Either IGN ‘A’ or IGN ‘B’ What is the starter motor limitation ?
a. b. c. d) 25.
3 consecutive cycles 2 of 2 minutes and one of one minute. 3 minutes ON, 15 seconds OFF, maximum 3 times after that 15 mts cooling Pause between starts, 15 seconds, cooling period following 3 starts 30 seconds Both (a) and (c) are correct. During engine auto start on ground if FADEC does the abort start it controls
a. b) c. d. 26.
HP fuel valves HP fuel valve, ignition system and start valve LP fuel valve, ignition and start valve HP & LP fuel valves and ignition To operate No.1 engine thrust reverser system
a. b. c. d) 27.
Green Hydraulic system pressure should be available LGCIU should function SEC1 and SEC2 should be available All the above are correct. Which are the occasions mode will change from EPR to rated N1 mode
a. b. c. d)
If there is EPR mode fault occurs If N1 mode is selected manually without any input failure to FADEC If Tu input fails to both FADEC channels Both (a) and (b) are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 28.
A320 TEST PAPER
If anyone engine has TLA fault in flight a. Both engines power to go upto MCT b) Affected engine power increase to MCT if TLA is between IDLE MCT with manual thrust control c. Affected engine power increased to GA during FLX TO d. Affected engine power increases to MCT if TLA is between IDLE MCT when auto thrust was in use.
29.
What is the minimum speed to use Max reverse thrust ? a. 60 kts b. Till aircraft comes to stop c. 80 kts d) 70 kts
30.
If SEC 1 and SEC 2 fail in flight a. b. c. d)
31.
How are fuel LP valves closed ? a. b. c) d.
32.
By engine master switch only By engine master switch or by mode selector through FADEC By engine master switch or by fire push button By engine fire push button FADEC What are the occasions when ignition should be manually selected ?
a. b) c. d. 33.
Before take off and landing Single engine operation, fuel gravity and heavy rain Single engine operation, before take off and landing Single engine operation, fuel graving feed and running engine anti ice operation How do you carry out dry cranking cycle ?
a. b) c. d. 34.
Both thrust reversers are available Only No.1 engine reverse thrust is available Both engines reverse thrust are lost Only No.2 engine reverse thrust is available
Mode selector to CRANK, and engine master switch ON Mode selector to CRANK, Man start pb to ON and master switch to OFF Mode selector to CRANK, Man start pb to ON and master switch to ON Mode selector to NORMAL, Man start pb to ON for 30 seconds. Mark the correct statement
a. FADEC will automatically command the reverser to slow in case the thrust reverser are detected deployed by more than 10 Deg of their full travel. b) As in (a) and if the deployment is more than 15% of full travel of FADEC will automatically select the thrust to idle. c. FADEC will automatically select thrust to idle in both the above cases d. All the above are correct.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 35.
A320 TEST PAPER
When both engines are in unrated N1 mode, to get TOGA power during missed approach. a. b. c) d.
36.
Move both thrust levers to TO-GA position Move both thrust levers to MCT position Move both thrust levers to get required N1 Move both the thrust levers between MCT & TOGA What is the minimum oil quantity in the tank before starting the engine ?
a. b. c) d. 37.
17 quarts 12 quarts 11 quarts + 12 Estimated consumption (03 m / hr) 12 quarts + Estimated consumption What is the Max N1 and N2 allowed
a. b) c. d. 38.
100% N1 102% N2 100% N1 & 100% N2 100% N1 and 109% N2 100% N1 & 105% N2 During cross bleed start should be the position of the bleed switches
a. b. c) d. 39.
Both engines bleeds ON Both engines bleeds OFF Receiving engine bleed OFF, running engine bleed ON Receiving engine bleed ON, running engine bleed OFF What is the maximum EGT during starting the engine ?
a. b. c) d. 40.
590 Deg. C 610 Deg. C 635 Deg.C 745 Deg. C FAULT amber light comes ON in engine control panel due to
a. b) c. d. 41.
Fuel LP valve is in disagreement Either Fuel HP valves is in disagreement or start valve fault Either Fuel HP valve or LP valve is in disagreement Start valve is in disagreement During FADEC FAULT
a. b. c) d.
Confirm engine failure by engine parameters in upper ECAM Confirm engine failure by secondary engine parameters in lower ECAM Confirm engine failure by system pages as HYD, ELEC or BLEED Both (b) and (c) are correct.
106
CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER
FIRE PROTECTON
1.
What are the indications during engine fire ? a. b. c. d.
2.
ECAM message, master warning, CRC Fire, pb illuminates red Fire red light on the Engine control panel is ‘ON’ All the above are correct. When does the fire warning trigger ?
a. b. c. d) 3.
If any one loop senses overheat condition with other loop serviceable If both loops sense overheat condition As in (b) or both loops fail within 5 seconds All the above are correct. What are the action if Fire Warning disappears in flight while carrying out the ENU FIRE check list ?
a) b. c. d. 4.
Complete the checklist procedure The fire drill may be discontinued As in (b) and engine may be restarted As in (a) and the engine may be restarted Pressing the fire push button causes
a. The closure of respective engine fuel LP valve b. The closure of respective engine fuel LP valve & HP valve c) As in (a) and if the engine is to be shut down by fire pb alone, the engine continues to run for atleast one minute d. As in (a) and if the engine is to be shut down by fire pb alone, the engine immediately stops 5.
When do both the ‘SQUIB’ lights illuminate white for an engine fire extinguisher ? a. b. c. d)
6.
After the agents are discharged After the fire pb is pressed and agents are ready for the discharge. When the fire test is carried out for the associated engine Both (a) and (c) are correct. What are the indication if there is a break in both fire detection loops A & B occurring within 5 seconds due to fire action ?
a) b. c. d.
Fire warning comes LOOP A + B FAULT ECAM Message FIRE DET FAULT ECAM CAUTION Both (a) and (c) are correct
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A320 TEST PAPER
EMERGENCY EXITS & EQUIPMENT 1.
What are the possible flows of oxygen through the individual quick doning full face mast in the cockpit ? a. b. c. d.
2.
Diluted Oxygen on demand, 100% Oxygen on demand or continuously. Diluted Oxygen on demand or continuously, 100% Oxygen on demand only Diluted Oxygen on demand or continuously, 100% continuously Only two flows 100% Oxygen continuously, Diluted Oxygen on demand. Which is the suitable statement for Pax fixed Oxygen system
a. Pax Oxygen can be activated are reset from cockpit b. Pax Oxygen can be activated and reset from cockpit c) Pax Oxygen system activates automatically in case of decompression but can be reset only from cockpit d. Pax Oxygen system once activated (Automatically or Manually) cannot be reset. 3.
Due to landing impact one PSU door opens, 3 masks had dropped, if only one mask is pulled, will oxygen flow. a. b) c. d.
4.
How many portable fire extinguishers and Oxygen bottles are there in the aircraft ? a. b) c. d.
5.
2 BCF bottles and one Oxygen bottle in Cockpit, 2 BCF and 7 Oxygen bottles in cabin. 1 BCF bottle and one Oxygen bottle in Cockpit, 3 BCF and 7 Oxygen bottles in cabin. 1 BCF bottle and one Oxygen bottle in Cockpit, 3 BCF and 7 Oxygen bottles in cabin Totally 5 BCF bottles and 7 Oxygen bottles in the aircraft. A Thermal discharge of the cockpit crew fixed Oxygen bottle is indicated by
a. b) c. d. 6.
No, since cabin is not depressurized Yes, into all the 3 masks for 13 minutes Yes, into only that mask for 13 minutes Yes, into only that mask for 39 minutes
Thermal discharge message on ECAM Green Blow out disc missing Red blow out disc missing No indication of Thermal Discharge is provided Which is the suitable statement for Pax fixed Oxygen system
a. Pax Oxygen can be activated are reset from cockpit b. Pax Oxygen system activates automatically in case of decompression but can be reset only from cockpit c) Pax Oxygen system once activated (Automatically or Manually) cannot be reset. d. On ground as altitude is low, Oxygen does not flow from oxygen generator even if connected mask is pulled.
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CTE – IAL – HYD 7.
A320 TEST PAPER
Due to landing impact, one PSU door opens, 3 masks had dropped, if only one mask is pulled will oxygen flow. a. b) c. d.
8.
No since cabin is not depressurized Yes into all the 3 masks for 13 minutes Yes into only that mask for 13 minutes Yes into only that mask for 39 minutes Which of the following oxygen flows is possible from a portable Oxygen bottle of cabin ?
a. b) c. d. 9.
100% Oxygen continuously 100% on demand. Diluted Oxygen on demand. (b) and (c) are correct. How many emergency exits are there in the cabin and what is escape device provided for each ?
a) 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft; 4 over wing exits with a double lane slide for 2 over wing exits on the same side. b. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide; 4 over wing exits with a double lane slide / raft for 2 over wing exits on the same side. c. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide/ raft ; 4 over wing exits with each with a single lane slide / raft d. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft; 4 over wing exits with a single lane slide for 2 exits on the same wing. 10.
How many emergency exits are there in the cockpit and what is the escape device provided for each. a. b) c. d.
11.
Two windows with one rope Two windows with two nylon knotted ropes Three windows with two ropes Only one window with two ropes How to know from cockpit that a slide is armed ?
a. b) c. d. 12.
Call Cabin Attendant and confirm only from the cabin attendant. On DOOR Page SLIDE appears white near exit symbol On DOOR Page the exit symbol changes to GREEN On DOOR Page the exit indication remains amber when slide is not armed Red light on the door.
a. b. c. d)
Illuminates if the door handle is moved towards open when door is armed. Flashes if the door handle is moved towards open when door is armed Flashes if the door is opened with engine running Flashes if the door is disarmed cabin pressure is 2.5 hpa higher than outside pressure and both engine shut down.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
13.
A320 TEST PAPER
In emergency configuration, when emergency generator operates in flight a) b. c. d.
14.
All emergency lighting illuminate automatically Only floor path marking lights illuminate automatically Only emergency lights and exit signs illuminate automatically As DC ESS SHED BUS is still powered, no emergency lights illuminate For satisfactory operation of Radio beacon, required conditions are
a. b. c. d) 15.
Radio beacon in vertical position Battery in contact with any liquid and level upto vent hole Antenna in erected position All the above are required Identify the correct number of emergency equipment in aircraft
a. 1 crash are in cockpit 2 power megaphones in cabin b. 3 First Aid kits, 1 radio beacon in cabin c. 4 life lines above the pax seats near 4 emergency exits only when aircraft has to fly over water. d) all the above are correct 16.
After using a quick donning mask, the mask is stowed back but OXY ON flag is visible. Is it possible to have communication via boom MIC. a) b. c. d.
17.
No. Yes Yes, only if INT / RED switch is in INT (only interphone is possible ) Yes, only if INT / RED switch is held in RAD (only RT is possible ) When would the SLIDE ARMED light located between the emergency windows illuminate ?
a. b. c. d)
When any one cover flap that covers the window operating handle is removed When both cover flaps on the two emergency windows are removed. As in (a) and it shall not be known in the cockpit. As in (a) and it shall be known in the cockpit by the charge of colour of window symbol on Door ECAM page.
110
CTE – IAL – HYD
A320 TEST PAPER FMGS
1.
During CRZ phase of light, on fuel prediction page, if extra fuel is negative, the required action may be ? a) b. c. d.
2.
Modify cost index to zero Modify cost index for LRC mach number If already at OPT FL, descend to 2000 feet below OPT FL As in (c) and bring cost index to zero. With DES mode engaged on FMGS, the extension of speed brakes will increase the descent rate if aircraft is
a) b. c. d. 3.
Above the DES path On the DES path Below the DES path On or below the DES path With FD engaged in OP-DES mode (AP-OFF) and ATHR engaged, aircraft is leveled above FCU altitude, the following may occur ?
a. b) c. d. 4.
Aircraft speed increase to Vmax and FD mode changes to V/S mode Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and FD mode changes to V/S mode Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to OPCLB Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and now ATHR maintain speed at VLS When is it required to select both packs of OFF ?
a. b. c) d. 5.
AVIONICS SMOKE procedure LAV + GALLEY FAN FAULT CABIN OVER PRESSURE WITH DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE > 9 psi All the above are correct. What is the meaning of LDG ELEV FAULT ?
a. b. c. d) 6.
Wrong selection of LDG ELEV is made LDG ELEV selector is moved out of auto without requirement No FMGS LDG ELEV data is available All the above are correct. Which limitation is correct for APU ?
a. b) c. d.
Electrical extraction, AT or below 35000 feet IAS + 20 Deg and below – 90 KVA Air bleed extraction in flight for engine start upto – 20000 feet Air bleed extraction or wing anti ice is permitted Air bleed extraction for airconditioning (in flight) upto 20000 feet for 2 packs.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
7.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the difference between the GEN 1 LINE PB and GEN 1 PB when when engine 1 is running a. If GEN1 pb is selected to OFF, the generator stops running b. If GEN1 pb is selected to OFF, the generator will be running but the voltage will be normal. c. If GEN1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, the generator continuously operates but the voltage will not be normal. d). If GEN1 LINE pb is selected to OFF, the generator continuously operates but the voltage will be normal.
8.
During auto start FADEC provides start abort. What are the valves & systems is cuts off. a. b. c) d.
9.
Later aeroplanes are fitted with two fire extinguishing agents for cargo compt. fire They have DISCH AGENT 2 light. When does this light come on. a. b) c. d.
10.
Immediately after discharging agent 1 60 minutes after discharging agent 1 in either FWD and AFT cargo compartments 60 minutes after discharging of agent 1 to FWD cargo compartments only 60 minutes after discharging of agent 1 in either AFT cargo compartments only. When the automatic pitch trim is frozen in pitch NORMAL law
a. b) c. d. 11.
HP valve, start valve and ignition. LP valve and ignition only As in (a) and the FADEC has the authority to abort the start upto 50% N2 As in (b) and the FADEC has the authority to abort the start upto 43% N2
When load factor is more than 0.5 g When bank angle is greater than 33 deg. When pitch attitude protection is active All the above are correct When SPD BRK DISAGREE ECAM warning is triggered
a. Speed brake surface position is not in agreement with handle position b) As in (a) or after automatic retraction of spoilers due to config.FULL selection and handle remains extended. c. If any one engine N1 is above 50% and speed brake is extended in flight d. All the above are correct 12.
During a flight when do you select the BUS TIE pb to OFF a. To reset the BUS TIE FAULT b. To reset the BUS TIE contractors c) To segregate both the GENERATOR channels to regain Elect Power in case of EMER CONFIG d. All the above are correct.
112
CTE – IAL – HYD 13.
A320 TEST PAPER
In an amber half frame appears for oxygen pressure indication on DOOR / OXY page, what is the recommendation. a. In this case, check that Cockpit Portable Oxygen bottle has sufficient pressure. b. In this case, check that all pax. Portable Oxygen bottles are available on board. c) Check that the remaining quantity of the Cockpit fixed oxygen bottle is not below the minimum oxygen d. All the above checks are to be carried out
14.
During cruise in the fuel ECAM page, fuel quantity indication is advisory. Mark the correct statement. a. This implies that the difference between the fuel quantities in the wings is greater than 1500 kgs. b) As in (a) and the indications of the wing inner and outer tanks with highest fuel level pulses. c. As in (a) and the indication of the wing inner and outer tanks with the lowest fuel level pulses. d. This implies that the center tank fuel has reduced to the low level.
15.
What happens to PTU with PTU push button at AUTO when aircraft makes a single engine landing with No engine shut down ? a. b) c. d.
16.
Yellow hydraulic system is pressurized by ENG 2 pump (yellow electric pump push button switch is ON what happens in case of Yellow Reservoir overheat condition. a. b. c. d)
17.
FAULT light illuminates on yellow electric pump push button switch FAULT light illuminates on ENG2 PUMP button switch FAULT light illuminates on PTU push button switch All the above are correct. Where does the time signal come from, for OMT display is permanent data on SD
a. b. c. d) 18.
PTU runs in flight and stops as soon as both main landing gears are compressed PTU continues to run ever after running PTU runs to pressurize yellow hydraulic system by using green Hyd pressure As in (b) and PTU pressurizes green hydraulic system using blue Hyd pressure
Cockpit clock As in (a) and if it fails from CFDIU Always from CFDIU As in (b) and it is necessary to do GMT / DATE INIT During take off phase, if FWC 1 and FWC 2 fail, what indications will appear
a) Only “ FWS, FWC1 + 2 FAULT” message, related checklist and list of NOT AVAIL system on EWD b. SC, Master Caution lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD. c. CRC, Master Warning lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD d. Nothing, since the warnings are inhibited.
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CTE – IAL – HYD
19.
What are the provisions available in RCT mode of weather radar a) b. c. d.
20.
Auto Gain, GCR, Tilt, SEC Manual Gain, GCR, WX / T, SEC Manual Gain, GCR, Tilt, SEC Manual Gain, GCR, Wx/T, Tilt, SEC What happens in case of BMC2 fault.
a. b. c) d. 21.
Engine 2 bleed parameters monitoring is totally lost RH wing bleed leakage detection is lost. Engine 2 bleed valve automatic closure is not available All the above are correct. During descend phase of flight with DES mode engaged on FMGS, if a/c enters F-PLN discontinuity, the FMR changes from DES / NAV TO
a. b. c) d. 22.
OP DES / HDG Vs VS / HDD OP DES Mark the correct statement
a. b) c. d. 23.
Lateral and vertical revisions are possible on a temporary F-PLN ‘DIRECT TO’ function, when used erases a temporary F-PLN Pressing the AIRPORT key erases a temporary F-PLN Both (b) and (c) are correct. How to get back to standard F-PLN when aircraft enters into F-PLN discontinuity
a) b. c. d. 24.
By performing a DIR TO a designated way point By pressing HDG / TRK knob By carrying a lateral revision at PPOS and selected a NEW DEST All the above are correct. Can you control the temperature from the cockpit in case of the following failures. Is so in which case.
a. b. c. d) 25.
A320 TEST PAPER
Zone controller primary channel failure. Zone controller primary and secondary channel failure Pack controller primary and secondary channel failure Hot air regulator valve failure. What happens to AC ESS BUS in case of AC BUS 2 failure
a. Normally AC ESS BUS power is not lost. b. In case of AC BUS 1 failure, AC ESS BUS has no alternative power c. AC ESS BUS can be transferred to emergency generator or STATIC INVERTOR any time d) All the above are correct.
114
CTE – IAL – HYD 26.
A320 TEST PAPER
When IDG 1 (2) OIL TEMP > 185 Deg C, what are the actions to be taken a) b. c. d.
27.
Follow the upper ECAM procedure. Crew awareness as no action is required Wait for the temperature to come down Reduce IDG load if possible, if required restore when temperature has dropped Which of the following is correct for the galley system
a. b. c. d) 28.
GALLEY SHED indication means either FWD or AFT galley is totally lost. GALLEY push button’s fault, light means the galley is over loaded. GALLEY FAULT means the generator is over loaded. As in (c) if galley is switched off, we get GALLEY SHED indication too. What rate of oxygen flow is correct.
a. From quick donning mask in the cockpit with 100% selection, 100% oxygen flows continuously b) From demand regulator outlet of passenger cabin portable oxygen bottle pure oxygen flows continuously. c. When smoke mask is connected to the portable oxygen bottle of cockpit 100% oxygen can be drawn or demand. d. In case of crew incapacitation selection of 100% is suitable from the quick donning mask 29.
What are the indications on ECAM upper display lost when automatic reversion to unrated N1 mode occurs a. b. c. d)
30.
Only N1 rating limit Only EPR indication Only N1 thrust lever Max N1, N1 thrust lever, N1 mode, N1 rating limit On PFD, Roll FD bar is flashing permanently, it indicates
a. b) c. d. 31.
Reversion of FD to HDG mode LOC Transmission failure LOC receiver failure LOC & G/S both receivers failure With CLB mode engaged on FMGS, if FCU altitude is changed to below the aircraft altitude, the mode will change over to.
a. b. c) d. 32.
OP CLB Mode OP DES Mode V/S Mode DES Mode When is it required to select both BLOWER & EXTRACT pbs is OVRD
a. b. c. d.
Blower and Extract Pressures are low AEVC power supply failure Avionics smoke warning All the above are correct.
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33.
A320 TEST PAPER
Live Cargo has to be placed in which cargo compartment a. b) c. d.
34.
Forward cargo compartment as it has ventilation and heating Aft cargo compartment as it has ventilation and heating. Either in Fwd cargo or Aft cargo compartments only. Both in Aft cargo and Fwd cargo compartments. In case of total loss of cabin pressure control, leading to over pressure what action are required.
a. b) c. d. 35.
Use manual pressurization control to continue the flight Select Pack 1 or 2 to off the blower and extract to OVRD As in (b) follow the ECAM procedure also All the above are correct. If Audio Switching selector is set to CAPT, what are the changes
a) b. c. d. 36.
Capt has to use ACP3 and his own Mic speakers Capt has to use RMP 3, ACP 3 and his own Mic and speakers Capt has to user observer’s Mic and speakers and ACP1 Capt has to use observer’s Mic, speakers and ACP 3 If a/c is in ELEC EMER CONFIG, what is the Engine Power setting mode
a. b. c) d. 37.
EPR Mode Rated N1 Mode Unrated N1 Mode Either EPR or Rated N1 Mode What is the position of pack switches for engine start with external pneumatic power
a. b. c. d) 38.
Before connecting external pneumatic power put the pack switches to off. Pack switches need not be selected to OFF As in (b) because pack valves automatically close during engine start As in (a) and this prevents pack contamination. Mark the correct statement.
a. After use of above idle reverse thrust or after operations of power levels above normal taxi b. During start procedures, if N2 vibrations level reaches 5 a/c units the start to be aborted. c. During start disregard engine vibration display and warnings d) Both (a) and (b) are correct. What is the position of the 7th and 10th stage bleed valves during engine start.
39. a. b. c) d.
Fully open Fully closed As in (a) and sticking bleed valves during start will result in a hung start. As in (b) and opened bleed valve during start will result in ignition fault.
116
CTE – IAL – HYD 40.
A320 TEST PAPER
What happens to ground spoilers when aircraft has landed and bounced ? a. Spoilers remain extended with thrust lever at IDLE b. Spoilers retract if thrust lever is moved above IDLE and extend again after 0 the next touch down c. Spoilers retract during bounce even if thrust lever at IDLE d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
41.
Which of the following statements is suitable for Ice & Rain protection system. a. b. c. d)
42.
In the event of electrical power supply failure the wind anti ice valves open In the event of electrical power supply failure the engine anti ice valves close On ground before engine starting, rain repellent can be sprayed, if required WHC 1 & WHC 2 are independent. Only one ECAM DU is working. If you want to see a SD on it, is it possible ?
a. No. b. Yes, press the respective system key on ECAM control penel and hold. The SD will be in view for 3 min c. Yes, press and release the respective system key. The SD will be in view for 30 secs. d) As in (b) but SD will be in view as long as the system key is kept pressed even for more than 30 secs. 43.
During a flight, automatically SD page changes from CRUISE to ELEC and ELEC key on ECAM control panel glows. What does it mean ? a) b. c. d.
44.
There is an advisory condition in electrical system. There is a failure in electrical system Both (a) and (b) are correct. (b) is correct only if CLR keys also glow. RED ATT flag appears in the centre of Attitude sphere on PFD. What does it indicate. Is it possible to clear it.
a. PFD has failed. b. Loss of ATT signals from the onside ADIRU. It can be cleared by ATT, HDG transfer if ADIRU 3 is serviceable. c) Loss of both ADIRU 1 and 2. I can be cleared by ATT. HDG transfer if ADIRU 3 is serviceable. d. Loss of both ADIRU 1 and 2 and it cannot be cleared. 45.
In RHS top corner on ND some data is given. What does it mean in ROSE / NAV mode a. b. c) d.
Destination airfield data. Data of next VOR or ILS station on the flight path Data of the next way point to be flow (TO way point) in the flight plan Both (a) and (c)
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CTE – IAL – HYD
46.
A320 TEST PAPER
What are the recommended actions if Landing Gear Lever is locked in DOWN position even after take off. a. Keep the landing gear lever DOWN and land back b. Recycle nose wheel steering / antiskid switch and then try to select landing gear lever UP c) Make a second attempt approximately one minute later. d. Pull out LGCIU CBs and then try to select landing gear lever UP
47.
When do we get “ L/G CRL” indication amber on lower ECAM hydraulic page a) b. c. d.
48.
What is the declaration rate given by anti skid system when IR 1 = 3 FAULT is detected. a. b) c. d.
49.
When landing gear lever is not in agreement with landing gear position. When landing gear is not extended at radio altitude of 750 feet. When landing gear is not retracted after 30 seconds of take off. When landing gear doors are not closed with landing gear retracted.
3 m / sec ( 9.8 ft / sec) 1.2 m / sec (5.6 ft / sec) Anti skid system will not be available when “ IR1 + 3 FAULT” comes Anti skid system will allow a maximum of 1000 psi to brake units
If RA No 1 fails what are the degradations a. b) c. d.
RA fled on Capt. PFD FAULT light on GPWS SYS switch, CAP 3 GPWS IN OP SYS of STATUS page Loss of Radio Alt indication on Capt. PFD All the above.
50. On GPWS control panel, LDG FLAP 3 switch is selected ON. What are the significances a. GPWS warning for “flaps not in landing configuration” are triggered only if flaps are selected to less than 3 b. GPWS warnings are triggered if landing is made with flaps 3 c) As in (a) and on LDG memo, FLAP CONFIG 3 will be displayed. d. As in (b) and on LDG memo, FLAP CONFIG 3 will be displayed. 51.
During take off phase, the message “INITIALIZE WEIGHTS” appears on MCDU. The system response is ? a. b. c. d)
SRS mode trips speed guidance engages at V2 SRS mode remains active until ACC ALT SRS mode exited immediately and target speed is current speed As in (b) and ACC ALT target speed and becomes the current speed.
118
CTE – IAL – HYD 52.
A320 TEST PAPER
When alternate predictions are calculated, which of the following are considered ? a. b. c) d.
53.
Flight Level 310, if airway distance less than 200 NM, FL 350 otherwise Cost index 20 Aircraft weight equal to landing weight at primary DEST All the above are considered. Which of the following procedures requires the operation of RAT and EMER GEN to be done manually ?
a. b. c. d) 54.
ELEC EMER CONFIG, if auto extension fails SMOKE AVIONICS SMOKE CONFIG ELEC DC EMER CONFIG All the above are correct. What is the indication when speed lock function of slats is active.
a) b. c. d. 55.
A – LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM below slat / flap position indicator SPD LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM below slat / flap position indication SPD LOCK indication pulses cyan on lower ECAM F/CTL page A – LOCK indication pulses cyan on upper ECAM F/CTL page. In case of TR1, TR2 and essential TR failure, what happens?
a. All AC busses are lost and we get into ELEC EMER CONFIG. RAT and EMER GEN operates automatically. b. All DC busses are lost and we get into ELEC DC EMER CONFIG. And RAT and emergency generator are to be extended manually. c. “Crew Awareness” appears on upper ECAM as no action is required. d) Only DC BUS 1, DC DAT BUS, DC BUS 2 are lost. 56.
Select suitable statement for emergency equipment. a. Whenever the over wing slides are not armed, ask the cabin crew to check the arming b. Any escape device gets automatically disarmed whenever the corresponding emergency exit of the cabin opened from outside. c) Out of 8, 7 portable oxygen bottles and out of 4, 3 Halon fire extinguishers are kept in passenger cabin. d. Airstairs can be used after an emergency landing in EP series only
57.
When is the auto thrust active with both the engines running a. When the thrust lever is between idle and MCT b) When both levers are between idle and CLB c. On thrust lever is between IDLE and CLB and the other is between IDLE AND MCT (including MCT) power FLEX T/O is not selected. d. Both (b) and (c) are correct .
58.
On which occasions the automatic pitch trim is frozen in both Nose Up and Nose Down a) b. c. d.
The radio altitude is below 50 feet The load factor is more than 1.25 g When angle of attack protection is active All the above are correct.
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59.
A320 TEST PAPER
After flying above Flight Lever 300 for more than 30 minutes, if gravity fuel feeding procedure is to be applied. What is the ceiling altitude ? a) b. c. d.
60.
Current FL FL 300 1500 FT 7000 FT above take off airport Where will “EIS DMC1 FAULT” MESSAGE APPEAR ? (Assume DMC transfer switch is in NORMAL)
a. b. c) d. 61.
EWD on upper ECAM EWD on lower ECAM automatically AS in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 2 As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC3 In a normal flight, if the ECAM /ND transfer switch is moved to captain side, what will be the display on lower ECAM
a. b. c. d) 62.
EWD SD Blank Diagonal Line What are the degradations on EFIS Bus, when avionic ventilation failure occurs ?
a. b. c. d) 63.
Nothing Loss of gray background on SPD, HDG, ALT, V/S, scales on PFD Weather Radar pictures on ND Both (b) and (c) What are recommended actions if Hydraulic pressure is indicated on the yellow triple indicator ?
a. b. c) d. 64.
Depress several times the brake pedals until release of residual pressure. Switch off NWS / ANTISKID switch and operate brakes with caution As in (a) and if residual pressure remains apply brakes at touch down Switch OFF PTU ENG2 pump push button switch and then make a positive landing If L/G does not go to the selected position after T/O what indications appear.
a. b) c. d. 65.
L/G UPLOCK FAULT message and UNLK light L/G NOT UPLOCKED message and UNLK light L/G NOT DOWN LOCKED message and UNLK light ABNORMAL L/G message and UNLK light In the event of FMGC1 failure, FMGC 2 available, NAV tuning availability shall be
a. b. c. d)
ILS 1 tuning by RMP1, ILS 2 auto tuned by FMGC 2 Only ILS 2 tuning available on RMP 2 ILS 1 & 2 both available only by respective RMPs ILS 1 & 2 both auto tuned by FMGC 2
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66.
A320 TEST PAPER
Yaw bar is displayed on PFD in the following mode a. b. c. d)
67.
RWY mode only Roll out mode only RWY TRK mode RWY or Roll out mode During non-precision approach with AP, when reaching MDA, the following will occur.
a. b. c) d. 68.
AP will disengage, FD remains engaged in FINAL / APP NAV AP will change its mode from FINAL / APP NAV to HDG V/S AP will disengage, FD reverts to HDG / V/S AP & FD both disengages. With NAV mode engaged on FMGS, the ACTIVE SEC prompt shall be available if
a. b. c. d) 69.
Active and secondary F-PLN have common active leg. Active and secondary F-PLN have some common leg. HDG /TRK mode is engaged Both (a) & (c) are correct. The message on PFD FMA reads as “VERT DISCON AHEAD” it means
a. b. c. d) 70.
There is F-PLN continuity ahead OP-DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead EXPEDITED DES mode engaged and F-PLN discontinuity exists ahead. DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists on the next leg. What are the communication systems available after the loss of all generators (a/c is on batteries) on later version.
a. b) c. d. 71.
VHF1, HF1, Interphone VHF1, Interphone VHF1, VHF2 Interphone HF1 & Interphone For resetting computers, if required, which of the following points are to be followed.
a. Pull the relevant circuit breaker, well (NOT CLEAR) b. c. The flight crew can, if required, reset any computer without exception . d) Press ATHR pb on FCU and then move thrust lever to TOGA 72.
Take off mode of FD is engaged by following action. a. b. c) d.
Atleast one engine running Both engine running Both engines shut down Irrespective of engine running
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73.
A320 TEST PAPER
A – Floor is lost if following failure occurs. a. b. c. d)
74.
2 FMGCs Both FCU channels On EIU alternate law All the above are correct. Mark the correct statement
a. b) c. d. 75.
ALT CSTR are available when SPD – V/S mode is engaged. Enabling the Alternates deletes the altitude constrains of the previous active F-PLN ALT CSTR are available when EXPEDITE mode is engaged. All the above are correct. Mark the correct statement
a. b. c) d. 76.
Wind entered in HISTORY WIND page is MAG NORTH referenced. Wind entered in PERF APPR page is TRUE NORTH referenced. Wind entered in HISTORY WIND page is TRUE NORTH referenced. Both (a) & (b) are correct. In which of the following failures / emergencies, the Emer Ram Air Inlet Valve
a. b) c. d. 77.
L-R FAN FAULT HOT AIR VALVE failed in open position & duct Ovht persists AIRCOND smoke procedure All the above require the descent to FL 100 Which of the following statements is most suitable for cabin pressure controllers ?
a. b) c. d. 78.
Automatic pressure controller transfer occurs 100 secs, after each landing EIU 1 + 2 give the TLA position to controllers. LD FIELD ELEV & Dest ONH are led by ADIRS 1+2+3 to the controllers All the above are correct. Identify the correct statement for the ventilation system.
a. In open circuit config. SKIN AIR INLET & EXTRACT VALVES open b. In close circuit config. SKIN AIR INLET & EXTRACT VALVES & the flap ( in the extract valve) close c. In intermediate config. SKIN AIR INLET & EXTRACT VALVES close but the flap (in the extract valve) opens d) All the above are correct. 79.
Which of the following valves cause the pressurization problem ? a. b. c. d.
CRD COOL INLET OR OUTLET VALVE SKIN AIR INLET VALVE SKIN AIR EXTRACT FLAP All the above
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A320 TEST PAPER
If LDG ELEV MAN on CAB PRESS page and CRUISE page appears, what will it mean ? Only with AP ? a. b. c) d.
81.
Pressurization is under manual control AUTO SYSTEM has failed. FMGC is not giving the data of landing elevation to the pressure controller Select the manual pressurization control to avoid the message. When do we use the following procedure ?
a. FLT ON BAT ONLY procedure is used to start the APU in flight with only batteries. b. TOO HOT / COLD COCKPIT & CABIN TEMPERATURE procedure for meeting the said conditions. c) ABNORMAL L/G PROC is to be used whenever L/G fails to extend by normal method. d. All the above are correct. 82.
Depressurization of the cabin does not depend on which of the following. a. b. c) d.
83.
GROUND COOL INLET VALVE SKIN AIR EXTRACT VALVE EXTRACT FLAP SAFETY VALVE Identify the correct limitation for APU
a. When LOW OIL LEVEL message appears on ECAM APU page, the remaining oil quantity allows normal APU b. After 3 starter motor duty cycles separated by 1 min, cool don, 12o mts must be allowed for cooling. c) Max. rotor speed during APU operation is 107% d. Max. EGT for starting APU is 105B deg C 84.
What is the action if SC, Master Caution “COM VHF / HF EMITTING” message appear ? a. Nothing press CLR b. Check if transmit function is activated by switch on ACP or side stick or hand mic and deactive it. c) As in (b) and if not pull out the respective C/B d. As in (b) and if not switch off resp. Tr. Key on ACP
85.
Which of the following is suitable in case of TR1 & TR2 fault ? a) b. c. d.
86.
All DC buses power is lost APU shuts down, if operating DC BAT BUS is powered by batteries 1 & 2 Both (a) and (b) are correct. Which of the following is acceptable for electrical system ?
a. ESS TR operate when only TR1 or TR 2 or TR 1 + 2 fault occurs b. Emergency Generator operates automatically only when AC BUS 1 + 2 fail, speed more than 100 kts N1 c. DC BAT BUS is connected to batteries whenever AC BUS 1 + 2 fall with emergency generator not operating d) All the above are correct.
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A320 TEST PAPER
Which of the following statements is suitable for Emergency Equipment of the a/c There are. a. b) c. d.
88.
4 Halon fire extinguishers, 8 portable, 8 bottles and one Megaphone 3 F/A kits, 1 Physician Kit, 4 Manual Release Tools One Radio, beacon, one crash axe, 4 escape ropes All the above are correct. Mark the correct statement
a. Approach idle is selected in FLT, when flaps are extended, CFCAP lever not at zero position. b) Approach idle enables rapid acceleration from idle is go-around thrust c. This value depends only on Altitude d. All the above are correct. 89.
With auto thrust active, what is the upper limit of the EPR target. a. b. c) d.
90.
CLB MCT Actual position of the thrust lever TOGA What is the procedure to be applied in the event of dual ENG COMPRESSOR VANE ECAM warning
a. Disregard ECAM procedure. Do a standard auto thrust disconnection. b. Select engine and wing anti ice switches to ON c) When increasing and decreasing the thrust of one engine at a time if a particular engine stalls shutdown the affected engine and do not reduce the thrust of the remaining engine below 1.24 EPR d. All the above are correct. 91.
Identify the correct sequence of action to be carried out if the engine fire warning is triggered on ground action (1) affected engine master off (2) against 1+2 discharge (2) second engine master off a. b) c. d.
92.
3, 2 & 1 1, 2 & 3 3, 1 & 2 1, 3 & 2 When the speed brake extension is inhibited
a) b. c. d. 93.
When angle of attack protection is active. When SEC 2 + 3 FAULT is present When high speed protection is active All the above are correct. When Load Alleviation Function is inhibited
a. b. c) d.
When flap lever is ‘0’ position When high angle of attack protection is active In pitch direct law. When pitch altitude protection is active
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A320 TEST PAPER
When does MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red message appears on FMA a. b) c. d.
95.
Whenever both ELAC 1 & ELAC 2 fail in flight Due to multiple failure, pitch mechanical back up law is effective If any one or both side stick fault takes place in flight Both (b) and (c) are correct. 0 Due to G & Y Hydraulic failure, what is the law effective in Yaw control
a. YAW alternate law function is available with yaw damping and turn coordination function b. YAW mechanical control function is available without yaw damping and turn coordination function. c. As in (b) and Rudder trim is also not available d) YAW alternate law function is available but only yaw damping function is effective. 96.
In the Mono display REFUELG is displayed in green. What does this indicate. a. b) c. d.
97.
Refuel is selected on the REFUELING control panel. Fuselage refueling control panel door is opened Only when the refueling is in progress Only after the refueling is completed. On HYDRAULIC ECAM page Green System label is in Amber where as the green hydraulic pressure is 300 PSI (No engine running). What is the reason
a. Leak measurement valve of green hydraulic system is closed. b. This is an indication problem. All the services are available from Green hydraulic pressure. c. Priority valve of green hydraulic system is closed. d) As in (a) and on upper ECAM G SYS LO PR caution also comes ON 98.
What happens to EMERGENCY GENERATOR when Blue Hydraulic reservoir has leaked out completely. a. Emergency Generator is still available if RAT is extended b) Emergency Generator is not available if RAT is extended c. Emergency Generator has got a separate reserve fluid and it is available when RAT is extended d. Emergency Generator is available only after landing.
99.
What happens to PTU when engines are started by using Manual Starting Method a. b) c. d.
100.
PTU runs during second engine start. PTU runs during both engine start sequences PTU doesn’t run ever during second engine start PTU runs only during first engine start. Which concept is correct for Hydraulic system ?
a. Engine driven hydraulic pump stops when its pb is selected to OFF b. During a cargo door operation PTU can be run, if required c. Any hydraulic pump operation can be reset in case of HYD SYSTEM LO PR & LO LVL d) RAT must not be extended just because of blue electrical pump failure.
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101. a. b) c. d. 102.
a) b. c. d. 103. a. b. c) d. 104. a. b. c. d) 105. a. b. c) d. 106. a. b. c. d) 107. a. b) c. d.
A320 TEST PAPER
Is it possible to have POFD, SD, on captain’s side and EWD on upper ECAM at the same time ? How ? No Yes, by selecting ECAM, ND transfer switch to CAPT side Yes, automatically if the lower ECAM DU fails Yes, by selecting DMC transfer switch to CAPT 3 side. PFD, ECAM image are displayed on Capt’s side outer and inner DU respectively. What will be the displayed after PFD / ND transfer switch is pressed on the outer and inner DUS respectively. ECAM, PFD ECAM, ND ND, ECAM PFD, ND When will ADV reminder come on EWD ? Subsequent to advisory condition, if the respective system page is not displayed Whenver there is an advisory condition. In case of mono ECAM, if there is an advisory Both (a) and (c) are correct. When will SD auto change to CRUISE page At 1500 feet if take off power is reduced and S/F are retracted. 1 min after crossing 1500 feet if take off power exists or S/F are extended Both (a) and (b) are correct. At 1500 feet irrespective of any other conditions. What are the purposes if RCL key on ECAM control panel To recall the cautions that are cancelled wither by CLR key or EMER CANC To recall any inhibited warnings / cautions during different phases of the flight Both (a) and (b) Only to recall cautions cancelled by EMER CANC key. What are the ND modes in which flight plan shall be presented on the ND All modes Al ROSE modes All modes except PLAN All modes except ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS What are the ND modes in which weather picture shall be shown on ND0 All modes All modes except PLAN Only ROSE modes Only ROSE NAV & ARC modes
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108. a. b. c. d. 109. a. b. c) d. 110.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the restriction about CSTR optional key ? Don’t use CSTR key on both sides Don’t use CSTR key Don’t use CSTR key on left side Nothing When should the recorders GND CTL switch be used. If CVR, DFDR are to work on ground If CVR, DFDR are to work before the start of the engine. As in (b) and also if they are to work 5 minutes after 2nd engine shut down If CVR, DFDR are to work on ground power. Landing gear were extended by using gravity extension method because of B = Y SYSTEM LO PR caution. Are you permitted to rotate gravity extension Crank handle back to normal position.
a. Yes, one all the gears are locked DOWN, selected Landing gear lever DOWN and the rotate gravity extension handle back to normal position b. Yes, after landing, when landing run is completed, rotate gravity extension handle back to normal position. c. Yes, after landing if aircraft is not able to clear the runway by differential braking d) No, hand crank will be selected back to normal position by maintenance people. 111. a. b. c) d. 12.
Triple pressure gauge is showing uncontrolled pressure, what do you do before take off. Select normal brakes and use. Rest the A/SKID & NWS switch 2nd proceed. Cancel the take off and ask for the change of dual valve. Consider the take off, resetting the dual valve through BSCU Which points are valid for the landing gear operation .
a. b. c. d)
When L/G does not retract after T/O, what or one minute and make a second attempt LG CTL indication appears amber on wheel page for every operation of the L/G lever LG CIU switch over from one to another occurs after comple retract cycle. All the above are correct.
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A320 TEST PAPER
IRS, NAV INST., COMMN
1.
What happens if ILS 1 fails ? a. b. c) d.
2.
What happens if both localiser and both glide slope receivers fail ? a. b. c) d.
3.
LOC & G/S scales flash, FD bars flash. LOC & G/S scales disappear from PFD LOC & GS flags appear on both PFDs and both NDs LOC & GS flags appear on both PFDs only What will be the attention getters in case of loss of FWC1 and FWC2 and where will be the list of Not available system given ?
a. b. c) d. 4.
MASTER WARN + CRC, STATUS page MASTER WARN + CRC; right memo space is EWD None; right memo space in EWD Master Caut + SC; status page. Aircraft climbs to more than 250 feet above the selected altitude, how can the continuous C chord aural warning be cancelled ?
a. b) c. d. 5.
It is automatically cancelled at 750 feet above the selected altitude By pressing the MASTER WARNING press button By pressing the MASTER CAUTION press button It cannot be cancelled. RMP1 and RMP2 are being used for STBY NAV tuning purpose (NAV keys lights are ON). Captain wants to use RMP1 for tuning VHF1, is it possible ? How?
a. b. c) d. 6.
GPWS FAULT appears in EP and ES series aircraft Only mode 5 i.e. BELOW G/S is lost in EP series aircraft Only mode 5 i.e. BELOW G/S is lost in ES series aircraft Only mode 5 i.e BELOW G/S is lost in both EP & ES series aircraft.
No. Yes; NAV key should be pressed (light – OFF) and then VHF1 key should be pressed Yes; NAV key is not be pressed and VHF1 key should be pressed. Yes; first press VHF1 key and then NAV key. On GPWS control panel, LDG FLAP 3 switch is selected ON. What are the significances ?
a. GPWS warnings for “flaps not in landing configuration “ are triggered only if flaps are selected to less than 3. b. GPWS warning are triggered if landing is made with flaps 3 c) As in (a) and on LDG memo, FLAP…. CONFIG 3 will be displayed d. As in (b) and on LDG memo, FLAP… CONFIG 3 will be displayed.
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7.
A320 TEST PAPER
Is it possible to know, when a DU fails, whether it due to DMC failure or due to DU failure ? a. b. c. d)
8.
DMC failure causes the DU be blanked. DMC failure causes the diagonal line display on respective DU DU failure causes the DU be blanked Both (b) and (c) are correct. If an ADIRU fails totally which checklist procedure should be carried out first ?
a) b. c. d. 9.
ADR FAULT procedure IR FAULT procedure Whichever checklist appears first There is no need for any priority in carrying out the checklist. ALIGN light for IR 1 flashes on ADIRS CDU. What does it indicate ?
a. b) c. d. 10.
Alignment fault or PPOS is not entered for 10 minutes As in (a) or entered PPOS is different from the earlier values by more than 1 degree As in (a) or entered PPOS is different from the earlier values by less than 1 degree As in (b) and that ADIRU can be used only in ATT mode. After all generators failure and gear down, which DUs are powered ?
a) b. c. d. 11.
Only Captain’s outer EFIS DU and upper ECAM DU Both the captain’s EFIS DUs and upper ECAM DU (b) is correct only for EP series a/c (b) is correct only for ES series a/c When will ADV reminder come on EWD ?
a. b. c) d. 12.
Subsequent to advisory condition, if the respective system page is not displayed Whenever there is an advisory condition. In case of mono ECAM, if there is an advisory Both (a) and (c) are correct. What are the communication system available after the loss of all generators (a/c is on batteries ) ?
a. b) c. d. 13.
VHF1, HF1, Interphone VHF1, Interphone VHF1, VHF2, Interphone HF1 and Interphone What is lost when “FMC 1 + 2 FAULT” occurs ?
a. b. c) d.
Amber caution sensing and attention getters Red warming sensing As in (b) and attention getters are lost System pages except ENG, FUEL, F/CTL and WHEEL page
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14.
A320 TEST PAPER
When will a system page key light on the ECP flash ? a. b. c. d)
15.
When there is a failure in normal configuration When there is a failure but in mono ECAM configuration During advisory in normal configuration During advisory in mono ECAM configuration How is the Vertical speed indicated ?
a. b. c. d) 16.
Normally barometric and is in both analog and digital form. Normally inertial When inertial, a window appears around the numerical value. As in (b) and if barometric, then a window appears around the digital value. Which are the DUs normally supplied by DMC1
a. b) c. d. 17.
PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM, lower ECAM PFD1, ND1, upper ECAM PFD1, ND1, lower ECAM PFD1, ND1 What happens when upper ECAM DU fails ?
a. EWD is suppressed and it may appear on either ND after ECAM / SD transfer b) EWD auto appears on lower ECAM DU and SD is expressed and it may appear on either ND after ECAM / ND transfer c. EWD auto appears on lower ECAM and SD is totally lost. d. EWD is totally lost and it cannot be regained. 18.
Wx Radar is used in RCT mode, beyond 40 miles blue shadow region is displayed. Is it possible to find green or yellow colour weather patterns beyond 40 miles ? a) b. c. d.
19.
When would the red ribbon representing field elevation appear on the right of altitude scale a. b. c) d.
20.
No. Yes, green colour represents level 1 rain fall in uncalibrated area Yes, yellow colour represents level 2 rainfall in uncalibrated area Both (b) and (c) are correct.
It is always there Whenever the radio altitude is displayed on PFD When radio altitude is less than 570 feet When radio altitude is more than 570 feet GLIDE SLOPE loud warning sound along with G/S amber lights can be cancel the warnings ? How ?
a. No. b) Yes, by pressing any one of the G/S lights both aural and visual warnings are cancelled. c. Yes, but only aural warnings are cancelled by pressing any one of the G/S lights d. Yes, but only G/S lights can be cancelled by pressing any one of the G/S lights
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21.
A320 TEST PAPER
What is the purpose of the GND CTL switch ? a. To power the recorders, if needed after 5 minutes a/c power up and before first engine start. b. To power the recorders when the a/c is on ground c) As in (a) and also to power them after 5 minutes of second engine shut down d. Only to power recorders after 5 minutes of second engine shut down.
22.
Is it possible to have PFD& SD, on captain’s side EWD on upper ECAM at the same time ? How ? a. No. b) Yes, by selecting ECAM / ND transfer switch to CAPT side after lower ECAM DU failure c. Yes, automatically if the lower ECAM DU fails d. Yes, by selecting DMC transfer switch to CAPT 3 side
23.
During T/O phase, if FWC 1 and FWC 2 fail, what indications will appear ? a) Only “FWS FWC 1 + 2 FAULT” message, related checklist and list of NOT AVAIL system on EWD b. SC Master Caution Lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD c. CRC, Master Warming lights, failure message and related checklist on EWD d. Nothing, since the warning are inhibited.
24.
What is to be checked about IRS drift during parking checklist by addressing the POSITON MONITOR page ? a. If drift is less than 2+2t it is acceptable, where t is the time in hours for which ADIRU was in NAV mode. b. If drift is between 2 + 2t and 3 + 3t it should be checked for next flight c. If drift is more than 3 + 3t, it is not acceptable d) All the above are correct.
25.
If RA No. 1 fails, what are the degradations ? a. b) c. d.
26.
RA flag on Capt. PFD FAULT light on GPWS SYS switch; CAT 3, GPWS in INOP of STATUS page Loss of Radio Alt. Indication of Capt. PFD All the above When will on PFD speed scale black and red barber pole appear below stall warning speed ?
a. b. c. d) 27.
In normal law when high angle of attack protection (∝ prot) is active In alternate law when low speed stability protection is active In direct law Both (b) and (c) are correct When should the fast alignment of ADIRUs be done ?
a) b. c. d.
During every transit stops If transit time is more than 1 hour During transit stops, if residual ground speed is more than 5 knots If ADIRUs are switched for less than one hour
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28.
For TURBULENCE detection on Wx Radar a. b. c) d.
29.
Select Wx/T mode on controller As in (a) and range selector should be in 40 NM or less As in (b) and turbulence is shown in magenta colour None of the above are correct In RHS top corner of ND some data is given. What does it mean in ROSE /NAV mode ?
a. b. c) d. 30.
Destination airfield data Data of next VOR or ILS station of the flight path Data of the next way point to be flown (TO way point) in the flight plan Both (a) and (c) PFD, ECAM image are displayed on Capt’s side outer and inner DU respectively. What will be the displays - after PFD/ND transfer switch is pressed – on the Outer and inner DUs respectively.
a) b. c. d. 31.
ECAM, PFD ECAM, ND ND, ECAM PFD, ND What happens if both ECAM DUs fail ?
a. b) c. d. 32.
E/W/D appears automatically on left side ND E/W/D shall be called on either ND by means of ECAM / ND transfer selector It is not possible to recover SD at all SD may be transferred on either ND by means of ECAM / ND transfer selector When TRK FPA modes are selected as basic modes of AFS ?
a. b. c) d. 33.
A320 TEST PAPER
Only the fixed a/c symbol on PFD is dimmed Only heading lubber line on ND and PFD are shortened and dimmed Only lubber line on PFD, a/c symbol and PFD are dimmed Only lubber line on ND is shortened and dimmed. Is it possible to have ILS, VOR and ADF information at the same time on the Captain’s ND ?
a. No, it is not possible b) Yes. By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on NO.2 ADF/VOR switch, we get ILS-2 VOR 1 & ADF 2 c. Yes. By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on No. 2 ADF / VOR switch; we get ILS – 1, VOR 2 & ADF 2. d. Yes, By selecting Rose ILS on Captains EFIS control panel, VOR on No.1 ADF/VOR switch and ADF on No.2 ADF/VOR switch, we get ILS – 1, VOR 2 & ADF 2
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34.
A320 TEST PAPER
In Altitude Alert System, what are the warnings given when the a/c approaches to within 750 ft. of the selected altitude and when it deviates by 250 ft or more of the selected altitude ? (Assume A/P is not engaged ) a. 1.5 sec. Aural warning and altitude window flashes yellow in both cases . b) While approaching 1.5 sec aural plus pulsing yellow on PFD and while deviating, continuous aural plus flashing amber in PFD c. While approaching continuous aural and while deviating 1.5 sec aural warnings. Visual warnings are same. d. Continuous aural warning and flashing amber on PFD in both cases.
35.
Flashing of Fault lt for IR1 on ADIRS control and display unit indicates. a. ADIRU 1 is not usable b) IR part of ADIRU has failed and ATT and HDG information may be recovered. c. Only IR part of ADIRU1 is available.
36.
How can Master warning and CRC be cancelled ? a. b. c. d)
37.
When will SEL lt on RMP1 illuminate ? a. b. c. d)
38.
Whenever RMP 1 is used for selecting a communication When VHF 1 is selected on RMP2 or RMP 3. When VHF 2 is selected on RMP1 or HF1 / HF2 is selected on RMP1 Both (b) and (c) are correct. If ILSI fails, what are the inoperative systems on status page ?
a. b) c. d. 39.
Only CAT 2 ILS indications on Capt. PFD, Co-pilots, ND, CAT 2 are lost. ILS indications on Capt, PFD, ND, CAT 2 are lost ILS indications on Capt, PFD, F/O, ND, CAT 2, FMGS 1 are lost. Where will “EIS DMC 1 FAULT” message appear ? (assume DMC transfer switch is in NORMAL )
a. b. c) d. 40.
By pressing Master Warning light only By pressing EMER CANC pb By pressing Master Caution light Both (a) and (b) are correct.
EWD on upper ECAM EWD on lower ECAM automatically As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC2 As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC3 What is the action if SC, Master Caution “ COM VHF/ HF EMITTING” message appear ?
a. Nothing; press CLR b. Check if transmit function is activated by switch on ACP or side stick or hand mic. And deactive it c. As in (b) and if not pull out the respective C/B d) As in (b) and if not switch off resp. Tr. Key on ACP.
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A320 TEST PAPER
What is the colour of the VSI pointer ? a. b) c. d.
42.
Always green It may be green or amber As in (b) and pointer will be red if descent rate is more than 6000 feet / min As in (b) and pointer will be red if the V/S value is in avoidable ACAS red strip What are the degradations if avionics ventilation fails ?
a. b. c) d. 43.
Nothing Grey backgrounds are removed from the scales of PFD As in (b) and weather radar images are removed from ND (b) is correct only when weather radar is in use. Which flag will appear simultaneously on both PFDs and both NDs
a. LOC and GS flags due to ILS 1 failure b. LOC and GS flags due to ILS 2 failure c). CHECK HDG flag due to heading difference of more than 5 degrees between the two side displays d. CHECK ATT flag due to roll or pitch attitude difference of more than 5 degrees between the two side displays 44.
In which modes the VOR and ADF bearing pointers may appear on ND? a) b. c. d.
45.
In all ROSE modes In all modes except PLAN mode In all modes except ARC and PLAN modes In all modes In ROSE NAV mode, what does a continuous green line indicate ?
a) b. c. d. 46.
Active flight plan Secondary flight plan Temporary flight plan Alternate flight plan While setting the time on aircraft clock how would you decrement the time /
a. b. c) d. 47.
Rotate the SET knob anti-clockwise Rotate the SET knob clockwise Press the SET knob It is not possible to decrement the time When is it necessary to INIT the time through the MCDU ?
a. b. c) d. 48.
For the first flight of the day Only if the a/c clock fails As in (b) and it is possible only on ground As in (b) and it is possible only in flight What is the purpose of RMP3 ?
a) b. c. d.
Only to tune the communication system To tune communication or navigation system Only to tune the HF communication system Only to tune the VHF communication system
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A320 TEST PAPER
What do you know about the class 1 failure ? a. b. c. d.
50.
It appears in the cockpit in the form of ECAM failure message It appears in the cockpit under MAINTENANCE heading in the STATUS page It is stored only in CFDIU and should be retrieved through MCDU after the flight None of the above is correct. Captain’s inner EFIS DU had failed. Is it possible to get the weather radar images on his side ?
a. b. c. d)
Yes; after pressing the PFD / ND transfer switch As in (a) and it is possible only if the mode selector is in other than PLAN mode As in (b) and only if avionics ventilation failure is not there It is not possible
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A320 TEST PAPER CONSOLIDATED
1.
During take off which tank supplies fuel to engines ? a. Centre tank supplies fuel to both engines b. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and RH wing tank supplies fuel to No. 2 engine. c. Centre tank supplies fuel to No.1 engine and LH wing tank supplies fuel to No. 1 engine. d) Respective wing tanks supply fuel to the engines
2.
Which tank receives the fuel from the fuel diverter valve ? a. b. c. d)
3.
Centre Tank Inner cells of the wing tank Outer cell of the wing tank As in (c) if outer cells are already full then fuel spills into inner cells FOB indication is boxed amber
a. When center tank has fuel and both CTR tank pumps fail b) As in (a) or when both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell at low level c. When center tank has fuel and any one CTR tank pump fails and cross feed failed in close position d. All the above are correct. 4.
What is the maximum continuous oil temperature allowed in IAE-V2500 engine ? a) b. c. d.
5.
155 °C 165 °C 175 °C 195 °C What are the indications if the oil temperature exceeds the maximum limit ?
a) b. c. d. 6.
ECAM message, Master Caution, SC and ENG page on Lower ECAM ECAM message and ENG page on Lower ECAM Only ENG page appears on Lower ECAM ECAM message Master Warning, CRC and Engine Page on lower ECAM When does the FAULT light on the engine panel come ?
a. b) c. d. 7.
Disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded positions As in (a) or when there is automatic start abort Disagreement between the LP fuel valve position and its commanded positions Disagreement between start valve position and its commanded position What are the parameters required for N1 computation in unrated N1 mode ?
a) b. c. d.
TLA only TLA, T 2 TLA, T2, ALT TLA, TAMB, ALT
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If SEC1 and SEC2 fail in flight a. b. c. d)
9.
Both thrust reversers are available Only No.1 engine reverse thrust is available Both engines reverse thrust are lost Only No. 2 engine reverse thrust is available Later aeroplanes are fitted with two fire extinguishing agents for cargo compartment fire. They have DISCH AGENT 2 light. When does this light come on ?
a) b. c. d. 10.
60 minutes after discharge of agent 1 in either FWD or AFT cargo compartments Immediately after discharging agent 1 60 minutes after discharge of Agent 1 to FWD cargo compartment only 60 minutes after discharge of Agent 1 to AFT cargo compartment only Engine compressor vane fault indicates
a. b) c. d. 11.
LP compressor bleed valve fault only LP compressor bleed valve fault or VSV angle disagree HP compressor 7th stage and 10th stage bleed valve fault Both (b) and (c) are correct. Failure of One BMC causes
a. b. c. d. 12.
Associated bleed valve closure Illumination of Master caution and single chime The other BMC to take over the monitoring of the bleed system All the above are correct BLEED fault light comes on if
a. b. c. d) 13.
Engine BLEED pb is selected to OFF Engine Bleed valves are closed during engine start The HP valve is closed Over pressure occurs down stream of the bleed valve. L wing leak is detected by
a. b. c) d. 14.
BMC 1 BMC 2 BMC 1 & 2 ZONE CONTROLLER Probe / Window heat switch is in the Auto position
a. b. c) d. 15.
Probe heating will start only after both the engines are started TAT probe is heated at low level on ground and at high level in flight Pilot probe heating is at low level on ground and at normal level in flight AOA probe heating is at low level on ground and at high level in flight A cooler temperature is selected
a. b. c) d. 16.
A320 TEST PAPER
Respective ram air inlet and outlet flaps open and turbine by pass valve closes Respective ram air inlet and outlet flaps close and turbine bypass valve opens As in (a) and are controlled by pack controller As in (b) and are controlled by zone controller Zone controller primary and secondary channel failure will result in
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A320 TEST PAPER
a. Loss of back up and optimized temperature regulation b. Pack1 is controlled to deliver 20 Deg C and Pack 2 is controlled to deliver 10 Deg. C c. On ECAM COND page all informations are removed and PACK REG appears d) All the above are correct. 17.
If the extract valve is fully open in flight what is the warning ? a) b. c. d.
18.
When ditching switch is selected on a. b. c. d)
19.
Outflow valve emergency ram air inlet valve and engine bleed valves close Pack flow control valve, avionic ventilation extract valve, outflow valve close Pack flow control valve, outflow valve avionic ventilation inlet valve close Emergency ram air inlet valve, avionic, ventilation inlet valve, outflow valve close When will the APU intake flap open ?
a) b. c. d. 20.
After Master Switch is set to ON As in (a) and after pressing START pb switch to ON (a) is correct only for APU battery start (b) is correct for any APU start What is the reason for APU EMER SHUT DOWN title on upper ECAM ?
a. b. c. d) 21.
Due to auto shut down of APU APU fire push button pressed APU fire on ground Both (b) and (c) are correct Which busses are lost if TR 1, TR 2 had failed?
a. b. c) d. 22.
SKIN VALVE FAULT BLOWER FAULT EXTRACT FAULT EXTRACT VALVE FAULT
No bus is lost. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS, DC BUS 2 DC BAT BUS after landing gear extension. Identify the correct limitation for APU ?
a. When “LOW OIL LEVEL” message appears on ECAM APU page, the remaining oil quantity allows normal APU operation for a further 30 hours b. After 3 starter motor duty cycles separated by 1 min cool down, 120 mts. must be allowed for cooling. c) Max rotor speed during APU operation is 107% d. Max. EGT for starting APU is 1058 Deg C
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A320 TEST PAPER
GALLEY SHED message on Elect page indicates a) b. c. d.
24.
Main GALLEY are SHED secondary Galley are shed FWD Galley power are shed. Aft Galley power are shed Out of the four possible sources (GEN1 , 2, APU, GEN, EXT PWR) which has the least priority to power AC BUS 2
a. b. c) d. 25.
APU GEN EXT PWR GEN 1 Whichever source is selected last. In EMER ELEC configuration, after landing gear extension, if landing gear is extracted again which source will feed the AC ESS BUS ?
a. b. c. d) 26.
EMER BUS STAT INV EMER GEN only after RAT & EMER GN MAN ON pb switch is pressed Both (b) and (c) are correct. When IDG 1 OIL OUTLET temperature raises to advisory, what is the action required.
a. b. c) d. 27.
Follow ECAM action. Disconnect IDG 1 Switch off GEN 1 and reengage if temperature is below advisory. Disconnect IDG 1 and reengage is temperature is below advisory. On HYDRAULIC ECAM page Green System label is in Amber where as the green hydraulic pressure is 300 PSI (No engine running). What is the reason
a. Leak measurement valve of green hydraulic system is closed. b. This is an indication problem. All the services are available from Green hydraulic pressure. c. Priority valve of green hydraulic system is closed. d) As in (a) and on upper ECAM G SYS LO PR caution also comes ON 28.
OVHT amber message on the ECAM HYD page near ELEC pump indication means a. b) c. d.
29.
Overheat of the system fluid Overheat of the pump itself. In case of yellow pump OVHT the PTU must also be switched OFF In case of blue pump OVHT, the RAT must be extended When does RAT FAULT ECAM warn trigger ?
a. Whenever RAT is working and RAT pump output pressure is more than 2500 psi b. If RAT is not deployed automatically due to dual hydraulic failure. c) If RAT is not fully stowed during normal flight. d. All the above are correct
30.
When does DOWN ARROW flight on LDG Gear panel illuminates ?
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A320 TEST PAPER
a. Whenever Landing Gear is not down and flaps at ‘3’. b) Whenever Landing Gear is not down locked and radio altimeter less than 750 feet and flaps “FULL” c. In any one gear falls to reach down locked position even after 30 secs. d. Both (a) and (c) are correct. 31.
Nose wheel steering is lost if a. b. c. d)
32.
L/G is extended by gravity L/G doors are not closed subsequent to normal L/G extension Both LGCIU channels failure All the above are correct How do you retract ground spoilers if ground spoilers are deployed automatically ?
a. b. c) d. 33.
Moving anyone thrust lever forward. As in (a) or by pushing down the speed brake control lever. Only by moving both thrust levers forward. Both (b) and (c) are correct. When does “PITCH TRIM “ indication become amber in F/CTL page ?
a. b. c. d. 34.
If THS is out take off range If THS is jammed If G or Y system pressure is low If pitch back up law is active When “ MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” message is displayed on the PFD
a) b. c. d. 35.
If both L & R elevator fault is detected If both G & Y system fail in flight Whenever pitch direct laws is operative All the above are correct. How do you now that pitch direct law is active in flight ?
a. If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and no PFD message b) If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and USE MAN PITCH TRIM amber message on FMA c. If bank angle protection green dash symbols turn to amber crosses and MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY red message on FMA d. USE MAN PITCH TRIM message and green dashes in bank angle protection. 36.
What happens to bank angle protection if high speed is operative ? a. b) c. d.
Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is lost. Bank angle is limited to 45 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg Bank angle is limited to 33 deg and spiral stability is introduced from 0 deg Bank angle protection is lost.
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A320 TEST PAPER
Steady ALIGN light indicates a) b. c. d.
38.
Alignment is in progress Inertial function of IR is lost Alignment fault Complete failure of ADIRU Aircraft is at 2000 feet Radio Altitude. For excessive rate of desceat, the GPWS warning will be.
a. b. c) d. 39.
Don’t sink Terrain – terrain Sink rate Too low terrain In A 320 Weather Radar
a. The range of radar is selected from Weather Radar control panel b. Weather image is available in all modes on ND c) Weather image is taken off from ND automatically in case of insufficient avionics ventilation d. None of the above is correct. 40.
When is the fast realignment to be used. a. During every transit stop b. If the IR mode rotary selector is kept in OFF for more than 5 seconds c) With the aircraft stationary, if residual ground speed value of greater than 5 kts is observed on ADIRU, CDU or ND d. If the normal alignment fails or ALIGN light flashes.
41.
On PFD, Roll FD bar is flashing permanently. What does it indicate ? a. b) c. d.
42.
In case of SDAC 1+2 fault a. b. c) d.
43.
Reversion of FD to HDG mode LOC Transmission failure LOC Receiver failure LOC & G/S both receivers failure
All ECAM cautions and warnings are lost Only red warnings engine and fuel parameters are lost ENG, FUEL, F/CTL, WHEEL sys pages will be available It is for crew awareness only What does the blue areas signify in RCT mode of weather radar ?
a. The rainfall is very less b) The calibration range is exceeded, weather radar is not able to determine rainfall in this area. c. The rainfall is very high d. The weather radar energy has penetrated the target
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44.
Where will “EIS DMC1 FAULT” message appear (assume DMC transfer switch is in NORMAL) a. b. c) d.
45.
E/W Display on Upper ECAM E/W Display on lower ECAM automatically As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 2 As in (b) and it is supplied by DMC 3 The flashing of IR fault light on ADIRS CDU can be due to
a. b. c) d. 46.
Complete failure of IRS NAV facility of IRS is lost As in (b) and ATT information may be recovered. As in (b) and ATT information cannot be recovered Subsequent to both ECAM screen failure, if ECAM / ND TFR selected on F/O side
a) b. c. d. 47.
E/W display appears on ND2 E/W display appears on PFD2 System display appears on ND2 System display appears on PFD2 During a flight automatically, SD page changes from CRUISE to ELEC and ELEC key on ECAM control panel glows. What does this mean ?
a) b. c. d. 48.
A320 TEST PAPER
There is an advisory condition in electrical system There is a failure in electrical system Both (a) and (b) are correct (b) is correct and CLR keys also glow How many emergency exits are there in the cabin and what is the escape device provided ?
a) 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft ; 4 over wing exits with a double lane slide for 2 over wing exits on the same side. b. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide; 4 over wing exits with a double lane slide / raft for 2 over wing exits on the same side c. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft : 4 over wing exits each with a single lane slide / raft d. 4 main doors each with a single lane slide / raft; 4 over wing exits with a single lane slide for 2 exits or the same wing. 49.
CABIN PRESSURE red light on the door flashes when a. Control handle is operated if differential pressure is above 2.5 mbar b) Both engines stopped; slides are disarmed and cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 mbar c. Both engines stopped slides are armed and cabin differential pressure is above 2.5 mbar d. As in (a) and (b) and when control handles are operated.
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A320 TEST PAPER
If both the RUDDER TRAVEL LIMITATION functions fail in flight a. Full rudder travel is available irrespective of the speed. b. Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the failure has taken place for the rest of the flight c) Rudder travel is limited to the value corresponding to the speed at which the failure has taken place till the slats are extended and thereafter full authority is available. d. This has no effect whatsoever.
51.
During descend phase of flight with DES mode engaged on FMGS, if a/c enters, F-PLN discontinuity, the FMA changes from DES/NAV to a. b. c) d.
52.
OP. DES/ HDG V/S/….. V/S/HDG OP DES/… TEMP F. PLAN page is automatically displayed
a) If an entry of NEXT WAY POINT, NEW DEST or VIA GO TO is made on the LAT REV page. b. If SEC. F Plan page is selected on MCDU and COPY ACTIVE prompt is pressed. c. If SEC. F Plan page is selected on MCDU and ACTIVATE SEC prompt is pressed. d. When DIR TO page is selected on MCDU 53.
In the event of FMGC1 failure, FMGC 2 available Nav turning availability shall be a. b. c. d)
54.
ILS 1 tuning by RMP1, ILS 2 auto tuned by FMGC2 Only ILS 2 tuning available on RMP 2 ILS 1 & 2 both available only by respective RMPs ILS 1 & 2 both auto tuned by FMGC 2 With FD engaged in OP – DES mode (AP-OFF) and ATHR engaged, aircraft is leveled above FCU altitude, the following may occur ?
a. b) c. d. 55.
Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to V/S mode Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and FD mode changes to V/S mode Aircraft speed increased to Vmax and FD mode changes to OPCLB Aircraft speed decreases to VLS and now ATHR maintain speed at VLS On FMA, TO-GA LK indication is given when
a) b. c. d. 56.
A/THR holds the TO/GA limit thrust and alpha floor condition has disappeared A/THR holds the TO/GA limit thrust, alpha floor conditions being satisfied. A/THR holds the TO/GA limit thrust, thrust levers being in TO/GA position A/THR is disengaged by A/THR pb with thrust levers in TO/GA position. With NAV mode engaged on FMGS, the ACTIVATE SEC prompt shall be available if
a. b. c. d)
Active and secondary F-PLN have common active leg Active and secondary F-PLN have some common leg HDG / TRK mode is engaged Both (a) and (c) are correct.
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A320 TEST PAPER
To engage one Auto Pilot on ground, following condition must be met ? a. b. c) d.
58.
Atleast one engine running Both engines running Both engines shut down Irrespective of engine running Deselection of the EXPEDITE mode may be performed by
a. b. c. d) 59.
Pull action on the V/S – FPA knob Pull action on the ALT knob Pull action on the SPD knob All the above are correct. Yaw bar is displayed on PFD in the following mode
a. b. c. d) 60.
RWY mode only Roll out mode only RWY TRK mode RWY or Roll out mode The message on PFD FMA reads as “VERT DISCON AHEAD” it means ?
a. b. c. d)
There is F-Plan discontinuity ahead OP_DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists ahead EXPEDITED DES mode engaged and F-Plan discontinuity exists ahead. DES mode engaged and a TOO STEEP path exists on the next leg.
144