Std VI - Dr Homi Bhabha Balvaidyanik Spardha -Practical Test Model Test Paper
Std IX - Dr Homi Bhabha Balvaidyanik Spardha -Practical Test Model Test PaperFull description
UPES CCE TEST FOR MBA Marketing ManagementFull description
Part-1 (Multiple Choice Questions) SECTION – 1 : LANGUAGE AND COMMUNICATION (30 Questions; 30 marks) Questions 1-4 Directions: Choose the one options – (A), (B), (C), or (D) – that correctly completes the sentence, then mark the appropriate blank. Choose (E), if there is no correct answer in the aforementioned options.
01. The Pueblo Indians of the American American Southwest were excellent artisans, designing pottery, cloth, household items, items, and _______. (A) goods leather (B) good in leather (C) leathers good (D) leather goods (E) None 02. Only infrequently infrequently _____ arthritis lead to total incapacitation. (A) is (B) are (C) does 03. Not all historical sites that are found found _____. _____. (A) are highly publicized (C) of high publicity
(B) highly publicized (D) to be highly publicized
04. Photographs should should ________ ________ only under proper conditions. (A) exposure (B) to be exposed (C) exposes
(D) be exposed
Questions: 5 - 9 Each of the following questions consists of a related pair of words or phrases, followed by five pairs of words or phrases labeled A through E. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
(A) museum : statue (D) army : soldier (B) beach : strand
(C) snow : bank (D) sun : mist
(E) drift : ocean
Questions 10-14 Each of the following sentences has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are five words or sets of words labeled A through E. Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence, best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
10. The Classical age of Greek art ended with the defeat of of Athens by Sparta; the the ______ effect of the long long war was the weakening and ____ of the Greek spirit. (A) cumulative ... corrosion (B) immediate ... strong (C) imagined. .. cooperation (D) delayed ...rebuilding (E) intuitive... cancellation 11. The bee _____ the the nectar from the different flowers flowers and then _______ _______ the liquid into honey. (A) consumes...conforms (B) observe...pours (C) rejects...solidifies (D) crushes...injects (E) extracts...converts 12. Joining ______ momentum momentum for reform in intercollegiate intercollegiate sports, university presidents have have called for swift steps to correct imbalances between classwork and ______. (A) a maximum...studies (B) a rational...awards (C) an increasing...athletics (D) an exceptional...professors (E) a futile...contests 13. The plan turned out to be _______ because it would have required more more financial backing than was available. available. (A) intractable (B) chaotic (C) irreversible (D) untenable (E) superfluous
14. Thinking nothing can be done, many victims of arthritis ignore or delay _______ countermeasures thus aggravating the problem. (A) tardy (B) injurious (C) characteristic (D) weird (E) effective Direction : Correct the underlined portion of the sentences with most appropriate one from the given options in questions 15-19. 15. In the Renaissance, painters were so impressed with Da Vinci that they ignore their own training and designated as a masterpiece anything he painted. (A) were so impressed with Da Vinci that they ignored (B) were impressed with Da Vinci to such an extent that they were to ignore (C) were so impressed with Da Vinci as to ignore (D) were so impressed with Da Vinci that they had to ignore (E) were is impressed with Da Vinci as to ignore
16. During the war, when it looked as if the German army was going to cross into France, English mercenaries joined the French to resist the assault. (A) it looked as if the German army was going to cross (B) it looked like the German army was going to cross (C) it looked like the German army would have crossed (D) appearances were that the German army would be crossing (E) it appeared that the German army would cross 17. If they would have found the receipt by mid-April, they would have paid less tax. (A) If they would have found the receipt by mid-April, they would have paid less tax. (B) If they would have found the receipt by mid-April, they had paid less tax. (C) If they had found the receipt by mid-April, they would have paid fewer tax. (D) If they had found the receipt by mid-April, they would have paid less tax. (E) If they find the receipt by mid-April, they will pay less tax. 18. The libraries with the Corinthian columns that contain almost a million volumes opened last evening. (A) The libraries with the Corinthian columns that contain almost a million volumes (B) The libraries with the Corinthian columns that contained almost a million volumes (C) The libraries with the Corinthian columns that contains almost a million volumes (D) The libraries with the Corinthian columns and which contain almost a million volumes (E) The libraries which contain almost a million volumes with the Corinthian columns 19. The leader of the Neanderthal tribe rarely hunted for food, and because of it was never acknowledged as a great hunter. (A) The leader of the Neanderthal tribe rarely hunted for food, and because of it (B) Because the leader of the Neanderthal tribe rarely hunted for food, he (C) In that he rarely hunted for food, the leader of the Neanderthal tribe was (D) Rarely hunting for food was the reason that the leader of the Neanderthal tribe (E) Hunts were rare, and because of this the leader of the Neanderthal tribe Questions 20-25 Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The fact that superior service can generate a competitive advantage for a company does not mean that every attempt at improving service will create such an advantage. Investments in service, like those in production and distribution, must be balanced against other types of investments on the basis of direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and increased revenues. If a company is already effectively on a par with its competitors because it provides service that avoids a damaging reputation and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable rate, then investment in higher service levels may be wasted, since service is a deciding factor for customers only in extreme situations.
This truth was not apparent to managers of one regional bank, which failed to improve its competitive position despite its investment in reducing the time a customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not recognize the level of customer inertia in the consumer banking industry that arises from the inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they analyze their service improvement to determine whether it would attract new customers by producing a new standard of service that would excite customers or by proving difficult for competitors to copy. The only merit of the improvement was that it could easily be described to customers. 20. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) contrast possible outcomes of a type of business investment
(B) (C) (D) (E)
suggest more careful evaluation of a type of business investment illustrate various ways in which a type of business investment could fail to enhance revenues trace the general problems of a company to a certain type of business investment criticize the way in which managers tend to analyze the costs and benefits of business investments
21. According to the passage, investments in service are comparable to investments in products and distribution in terms of the (A) tangibility of the benefits that they tend to confer (B) increased revenues that they ultimately produce (C) basis on which they need to be weighed (D) insufficient analysis that managers devote to them (E) degree of competitive advantage that they are likely to provide 22. The passage suggests which of the following about service provided by the regional bank prior to its investment in enhancing that service? (A) It enabled the bank to retain customers at an acceptable rate. (B) It threatened to weaken the bank’s competitive position with respect to other regional banks. (C) It had already been improved after having caused damage to the bank’s reputation in the past. (D) It was slightly superior to that of the bank’s regional competitors. (E) It needed to be improved to attain parity with the service provided by competing banks. 23. The passage suggests that bank managers failed to consider whether or not the service improvement mentioned in line 5 of the second paragraph. (A) was too complicated to be easily described to prospective customers (B) made measurable change in the experiences of customers in the bank’s offices (C) could be sustained if the number of customers increased significantly (D) was an innovation that competing banks could have imitated (E) was adequate to bring the bank’s general level of service to a level that was comparable with that of its competitors 24. The discussion of the regional bank (Second paragraph) serves which of the following functions within the passage as a whole? (A) It describes an exceptional case in which investment in service actually failed to produce a competitive advantage. (B) It illustrated the pitfalls of choosing to invest in service at a time when investment is needed more urgently in another area. (C) It demonstrate the kind of analysis that managers apply when they choose one kind of service investment over another. (D) It supports the argument that investments in certain aspects of service are more advantageous than investments in other aspects of service. (E) It provides an example of the point about investment in service made in the first paragraph. 25. The author uses the word ‘only’ in line the last sentence most likely in order to (A) highlight the oddity of the service improvement (B) emphasize the relatively low value of the investment in service improvement (C) distinguish the primary attribute of the service improvement from secondary attributes (D) single out a certain merit of the service improvement from other merits (E) point out the limited duration of the actual service improvement Questions 26-30 Direction: Select the sentence(s), in each set, where the underlined word is being used correctly. 26. (i) Covert operations against the dictatorship were made to topple it. (ii) The President may not authorize the conduct of a covert action by departments. (iii) Coverting the situation was one of his motives. (A) i only (B) both i & ii (C) both i & iii (D) both ii & iii (E) all three 27. (i) He ignored her words by reverting to the former subject. (ii) When I die, the house will revert to my sister. (iii) Converted Muslims often call themselves reverted as they believe that everyone is born as a Muslim in the first place. (A) i only (B) both i & ii (C) both i & iii (D) both ii & iii (E) all three
(i) We were so bothered by the pervasive odor of garlic. (ii) He indulged in most perversions you could care to name. (iii) The thing which most disturbed him was the perversion of language and truth. (A) i only (B) i and ii (C) i and iii (D) ii and iii (E) all three (i) They came down to the verge of the lake. (ii) I verged into tears when I heard the news of their accidents. (iii) She left her car by the side of the road and walked along the grass verge to the emergency phone. (A) ii only (B) iii only (C) i and ii (D) i and iii (E) all three (i) Numerous studies have shown an inverse relationship between exercise and the risk of heart disease. (ii) Her account of the case was an inversion of the facts. (iii) The power is the inversible to independence. (A) i only (B) ii only (C) i and ii (D) ii and iii (E) all three
02. Which of the following is NOT equal to the square of an integer? (A)
03. How many positive integers less than 20 are equal to the sum of a positive multiple of 3 and a positive multiple of 4? (A) Two (B) Five (C) Seven (D) Ten (E) Nineteen 04. Two tanks, x and y, are filled to capacity with jet fuel. Tank x holds 600 gallons more than tank y. If 100 gallons of fuel were to be pumped from each tank, tank x would then contain 3 times as much fuel as tank Y. What is the total number of gallons of fuel in the two full tanks? (A) 1,400 (B) 1,200 (C) 1,000 (D) 900 (E) 800
05. The quadrilateral ABCD is a trapezoid with x=4. The diameter of each semicircle is a side of the trapezoid. What is the sum of the lengths of the 4 dotted semicircles? (A) 8π (B) 10π (C) 12π (D)14π (E) 20 π 06. If the profit on an item is $4 more than cost of the item and the sum of the cost and the profit is $20, what is cost of the item? (A) $ 24 (B) $ 20 (C) $16 (D) $ 12 (E) $8
07. AG is divided into six equal segments in the figure above. A circle, not visible, with center F and radius length of AG, will intersect AG between. (A) F and G (B) E and F
(C) D and E
(D) C and D
(E) A and B
08. In the figure above, AB=BC and AC = CD. How many of the angles have a measure of 45 degrees?
09. 2 10-5 8 102 5 102 = (A) .00008 (B) .008
10. After giving $5 to Greg, David has $25. Greg now has with? (A) $0
as much as David does. How much did Greg start
11. Envelopes can be purchased for $1.50 per pack of 100, $1.00 per pack of 50, or $0.03 each. What is the greatest number of envelopes that can be purchased for $7.30? (A) 426 (B) 430 (C) 443 (D) 460 (E) 486 12. (A) 4
13. An automobile’s gasoline mileage varies, depending on the speed of the automobile, between 18.0 and 22.4 miles per gallon, inclusive. What is the maximum distance, in miles, that the automobile could be driven on 15 gallons of gasoline? (A) 336 (B) 320 (C) 303 (D) 284 (E) 270 14. (A) 0.001
RST above, RS and ST have lengths equal to the same integer. All of the following could be the area of
17. Kelly and Chris packed several boxes with books. If Chris packed 60 percent of the total number of boxes, what was the ratio of the number of boxes Kelly packed to the number of boxes Chris packed? (A) 1 to 6 (B) 1 to 4 (C) 2 to 5 (D) 3 to 5 (E) 2 to 3 18. A train travels from New York City to Chicago, a distance of approximately 840 miles, at an average rate of 60 miles per hour and arrives in Chicago at 6:00 in the evening, Chicago time. At what hour in the morning, New York City time, did the train depart for Chicago? (Note: Chicago time is one hour earlier than New York City time.) (A) 4:00 (B) 5:00 (C) 6:00 (D) 7:00 (E) 8:00
19. In the figure above, S is a point on the circle (not shown) such that segment RS divides the area of circle O in two equal parts. What are the coordinates of S? (A) (6.-8) (B) (6.8) (C) (8.-6) (D) (-6.-8) (E) (8.6)
20. Given that ax is an integer and bx is an integer, which of the following must also be an integer? 1. a and b II. x III. (a+b)x (A) None (B) I only (C) III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II. and III 21. The average (arithmetic mean) of 10, 30, and 50 is 5 more than the average of 20, 40, and (A) 15 (B) 25 (C) 35 (D) 45 (E) 55 22. What number when multiplied by (A)
23. If y = 4+(x-3)2, then y is least when x = (A) -4 (B) -3
as the result? (C)
24. If 3 pounds of dried apricots that cost x dollars per pound are mixed with 2 pounds of prunes that cost y dollars per pound, what is the cost, in dollars, per pound of the mixture? (A)
(E) 3x + 2y
25. A cashier mentally reversed the digits of one customer’s correct amount of change and thus give the customer an incorrect amount of change. If the cash register contained 45 cents more than it should have as a result of this error, which of the following could have been the correct amount of change in cents? (A) 14 (B) 45 (C) 54 (D) 65 (E) 83
26. If AB is a diameter of circle O in the figure above, and CB=OB than (A) 60
27. An artist wishes to paint a circular region on a square poster that is 2 feet on a side. If the area of the circular region is to be
(A) 28. If x >0, (A) 6%
the area of the poster, what must be the radius of the circular region in feet?
is what percent of x? (B) 23%
29. In the figure above, m ACB=110 and AC=CD. What is the value of 2y? (A) 45 (B) 70 (C) 90 (D) 110
30. The ratio, by volume, of soap to alcohol to water in a certain solution is 2:50:100. The solution will be altered so that the ratio of soap to alcohol is doubled while the ratio of soap to water is halved. If the altered solution will contain 100 cubic centimeters of alcohol, how many cubic centimeters of water will it contain? (A) 50 (B) 200 (C) 400 (D) 625 (E) 800
SECTION – 3 : ANALYTICAL ABILITY (15 Questions; 20 marks) Directions: Each question or group of questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each question, select the best answer choice given. Questions 1-4 A group of three objects must be selected from six objects – K, O, S, T, and W – according to the following conditions: Either K or S, or both, must be selected. Either O or V must be selected, but neither V nor S can be selected with O.
01. Which of the following is an acceptable selection of objects? (A) K, O and S (B) K, S, and T (C) K, S, and V
(D) O, S, and V
(E) O, T and V
02. Which of the following pairs of objects CANNOT both be among the objects selected? (A) K and O (B) K and T (C) O and W (D) T and W (E) V and W 03. If S is selected, which of the following must also be among the objects selected? (A) K (B) O (C) T (D) V
04. If V is not selected, which pair of objects must be among those selected? (A) K and O (B) K and T (C) K and W (D) O and T
(E) O and W
Questions 05-11 The manager of a radio program is going to feature six vocalists – M, N, P, Q, R and S – on her half hour radio show during the course of one week. She will feature one vocalist on the show each day from Monday through Saturday. The manager must schedule the vocalists for the show according to the following conditions: M must be featured earlier in the week than R. P must be featured on Tuesday. Q must be featured on the day immediately before or immediately after the day on which N is featured.
05. If N is to be featured on Thursday, the earliest day on which R can be featured is (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday (E) Saturday 06. If S is to be featured on Friday, M must be featured on (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday
07. If Q is to be featured on Thursday, the latest day on which M can be featured is (A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Friday
08. Which of the following vocalists can be featured on Monday? (A) N (B) P (C) Q (D) R
09. If S is to be featured on Thursday, which of the following is true? (A) M must be featured on Wednesday. (B) N must be featured on Saturday. (C) Q must be featured exactly two days after R is featured. (D) R must be featured on Wednesday. (E) R must be featured later in the week than S. 10. If S is to be featured on Friday, what is the total number of acceptable schedules available to the manager? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5
11. A dog hears higher pitches than a human hears; a cat has a greater capacity to see in dim light than a human normally has; a platypus picks up weak electric signals to which a human is normally insensitive. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements above? (A) Most animals have sensory capacities superior to those demonstrated by humans. (B) Some animals have sensory capacities that are different from those of humans. (C) During evolution the eyes and ears of human beings were modified to make human sense perception less acute. (D) Researchers should not be surprised to find that all the sensory capacities of platypuses are greater than any of those demonstrated by humans. (E) Any human who can see in dim light does so less well than any cat. 12. I. Neither Carol nor Eric will travel by air. II. Neither Carol nor Eric will travel to Burgundia. Statement II must be true if both Statement I and which of the following statements are true? (A) Immigration officials do not allow travelers without valid visas to enter Burgundia. (B) The cost of travel to Burgundia other than by air is almost prohibitive. (C) Until recently, Burgundia was closed to foreign visitors. (D) It is equally possible to reach Burgundia by commercial as by private airplane. (E) It is impossible to reach Burgundia except by air. Questions 13-14 Mercury, one of the deadliest toxins, makes up approximately fifty percent of the amalgam used by dentists in silver fillings. The effects of acute mercury poisoning are well known – kidney failure, muscle tremors, memory loss, and even death. It is clear that responsible dentists should remove all of their patients silver fillings and replace them with fillings of plastic composites.
13. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the author’s argument? (A) Plastic composite fillings are more expensive than silver fillings. (B) Most patients are satisfied with the durability of their silver fillings. (C) A patients’ exposure to mercury from multiple silver fillings is at a harmless level. (D) Most dental insurance plans do not consider the replacing of silver fillings to be necessary. (E) Mercury is also present in certain sea foods, alcoholic beverages and medications. 14. Which of the following. It true, most strengthens the author’s argument? (A) Silver fillings gradually corrode and small amounts of mercury leak from the amalgam. (B) It is difficult to measure the amount of mercury in a person’s body. (C) Some patients have more than one filling per tooth. (D) Mercury poisoning produces a range of subtle but distinctive symptoms. (E) The materials for plastic composite fillings are readily available to dentists. 15.
To be mentally healthy, people must have self-respect. People can maintain self-respect only by continually earning the respect of others they esteem. They can earn this re spect only by treating these morally. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn form the statements above? (A) People who are mentally healthy will be treated morally by others. (B) People who are mentally healthy will have treated morally those they esteem. (C) People who are mentally healthy must have self-respect in order to be treated morally by others. (D) People can expect to be treated morally by others only if they esteem these others. (E) People who have self-respect seldom treat morally whose they esteem.
Part-2 (Writing Section) 01. Direction : Write an essay on the following topic. “Great talkers are never great doers.”
03. Write a paragraph using the words given below and give a suitable title to it.