NTSE STAGE-2 Booklet

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION STAGE - 2 (LAST FIVE YEAR PAPERS WITH SOLUTIONS )

INDEX TEST PAPERS MENTAL ABILITY TEST -

2013

–

01 - 06

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST - 2013

–

07 - 17

MENTAL ABILITY TEST -

2014

–

18 - 22

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST -

2014

–

23 - 32


2015

–

33 - 37


–

38 - 47


2016

–

48 - 53


–

54 - 63


2017

–

64 - 69


–

70 - 79

HINT AND SOLUTIONS MENTAL ABILITY TEST -

2013

–

80 - 81


2013

–

82 - 85


2014

–

86


2014

–

87 - 91


2015

–

92 - 93


–

94 - 98


2016

–

99 - 102


2016

–

103 - 107


2017

–

108 - 112


2017

–

113 - 120

VIBRANT ACADEMY (India) Private Limited

Roll No.

NTSE 13_MAT

National Talent Search Examination, 2013 (For student Studying in Class-10)

Mental Ability Test Time : 45 minutes

Max. Marks : 50

Instructions to Candidates 1.

Mental Ability Test shall be administered in first 45 minutes. Thereafter scholastic Aptitude Test shall be administered. Answer to Part-I. Mental Ability Test are to be given on the given answer sheet. The Mental Ability answer sheet will be collected after first 45 minutes. After 5 minute Part-II Scholastic Aptitude answer sheet & after 20 minutes Question booklet will be supplied to you which will also be collected after the time is over.

2.

Please write your Roll No. as given on your Admission Card very clearly (only one digit in one box) Please see that no box is left unfilled even zeroes appearing in the Roll No. are correctly transferred to the appropriate boxes on the booklet and the Answer Sheet.

Example : For N.T.S.E.

3.

Mental Ability Test consist of 50 questions. Each question carry one marks.

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 (www.vibrantacademy.com)

[1]

NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2013 1.

Here are some words translated from an artificial language mie pie is blue light mie tie is blue berry aie tie is rasp berry Which words could possible mean “light fly” ? (1) pie zie (2) pie mie (3) aie zie (4) aie mie

2.

If in a certain code, STUDENT is written as RSTEDMS, then how would TEACHER be written in the same code ? (1) SZZDGEQ (2) SZDDGEQ (3) SDZDGDQ (4) SDZCGDQ

3.

Which group of letters is different from others ? (1) CBAED (2) IJHGK (3) SRQPT (4) TVWYX

4.

In the following letter sequence, some of the letters are missing. These are given in order as one of the alternatives below. Choose the correct alternative. a b _ a a _ b b b _ a a a a _ b b b ..... (1) abba (2) baba (3) aaab (4) abab

5.

7.

Ramesh started going for regular morning walks for controlling his blood sugar level. He did so for a month and also started taking Yoga lessons, without going for any pathological examination. He underwent pathological test after two months and found that the blood sugar level has come down. Presuming that he had not changed his food habits during these two months, which statement among the alternative given below follows most logically? (1) Blood sugar level comes down after doing regular morning walk. (2) Blood sugar level comes down after doing Yoga. (3) Blood sugar level comes down on doing regular morning walk and Yoga. (4) Regular morning walk, Yoga or both may bring down sugar level despite not changing food habits.

8.

Find the number in the position of ‘?’

Fill in the missing number

- C 2B - 3 A 2A ? -B - 3 C - A - 2B (1) – 3C (3) 3C 6.

(1) 41 (3) 50 (2) – 2C (4) 2B

Vimla used to board the train from Metro Station A for going to her office. Since Station A is a terminus, she had no problem in getting a seat. Ever since she shifted to Locality B she finds it difficult to get a seat, as by the time the train reaches Locality B it becomes crowded. Find the statement among the alternatives which must be true as per the given information. (1) Vimla would prefer to take a bus rather than the metro. (2) Vimla’s travel to office has become less comfortable ever since she has shifted. (3) Commuters staying in and around Locality B would demand metro services originating from station near Locality B. (4) Vimla would look for a job close to her home

9.

(2) 45 (4) 52

Identify the number in the position of ‘?’

(1) 2 (3) 5

(2) 3 (4) 6

10.

Find the next number in the sequence 0, 2, 24, 252, __________ (1) 620 (2) 1040 (3) 3120 (4) 5430

11.

Find the next number in the sequence 6, 24, 60, 120, __________ (1) 180 (2) 210 (3) 240 (4) 360


[2]

12.

Find the letter to be placed in place of ‘?’ in the figure given.

(1) M (3) Q 13.

17.

(2) N (4) R

In this multiplication question the five letters represent five different digits. What are the actual figures ? There is no zero. 18. (1) (2) (3) (4)

14.

M = 3, M = 3, M = 4, M = 4,

E = 9, A = E = 9, A = E = 3, A = E = 9, A =

7, T 7, T 9, T 3, T

= 4, S = 8 = 8, S = 4 = 7, S = 8 = 7, S = 8

Identify which among the pieces given below will not be required to complete the triangular pattern shown below.

(1) q (3) s

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

On the basis of the four positions of a dice given below find the colour of the face opposite ‘Yellow’.

(1) Indigo

(2) Red

(3) Pink

(4) Blue

19.

If the given figure is folded to form a box, which among the boxes below will be formed ?

20.

Two positions of a dice are shown. Which number will appear on the face opposite the one having 5 ?

(2) r (4) t

15.

Find the missing number in the series 2, 10, 26, ______ , 242 (1) 80 (2) 81 (3) 82 (4) 84

16.

A pattern is given below. You have to identify which among the following pieces will not be required to complete the pattern.

(1) q (3) s

Which symbol replaces the ‘?’ Figure below represent a balance.

(2) r (4) t

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 4

(4) 6


[3]

21.

In the figure, the circle represents youth, the triangle represents footballers and the rectangle represents athletes. Which letter(s) represent(s) athletes among youths who are not footballers ?

(1) g (3) f 22.

28.

Question given below has a problem and two statements I & II. Decide if the information given in the statement is sufficient for answering the problem. K, R, S and T are four players in Indian Cricket team. Who is the oldest among them ? I : The total age of K & T together is more than that of S II : The total age of R & K together is less than that of S (1) Data in statement I alone is sufficient (2) Data in statement II alone is sufficient (3) Data in both statement together is sufficient (4) Data in both statement together is not sufficient

29.

Which of the following diagram/sets indicate the relation between women, mothers and parents?

(2) g and c (4) f and d

(2) B (4) D

Identify the number corresponding to the ‘?’

(1) 3 (3) 7

(2) 5 (4) 8

24.

Which of the given alternative is the mirror image of REASON, if the mirror is placed below the word ? (1) (2) (3) (4)

25.

A sprinter goes off the starting block for 100m run and at that instant the second-hand of a stopwatch had pointed towards North. He touches the finishing line exactly after 12 seconds. In which direction did the second hand point when he just crossed the finishing line ? (1) 18º North of East (2) 18º East of North (3) 72º North of East (4) 82º East of North

26.

Mother was asked how many gifts she had in the bag. She replied that there were all dolls but six, all cars but six, and all books but six. How many gifts had she in all ? (1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 27 (4) 36

Find the odd one out

(1) A (3) C 23.

27.

2 7

(2)

5 7

(3)

3 5

(4)

4 5

(2)

(3)

(4)

30.

In a dairy, there are 60 cows and buffalos. The number of cows is twice that of buffalos. Buffalo X ranked seventeenth in terms of milk delivered. If there are 9 cows ahead of Buffalo X, how many buffalos are after in rank in terms of milk delivered? (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13

31.

What is the mirror image of b3k4s I ? b3k4s ? (1) (3)

(2) (4)

32-36

Question 32 to 36 are based on the following information: a, b, g, d , Î ,f , y , h are sitting on a merry-go-round facing at the centre. d is second to the left on h who is third to the left of a. b is fourth to the right of g who is immediate neighbour of h . y is not a neighbour of b or g . f is not a neighbour of b.

32.

Who is third to the left of b. (1) a (2) g (3) f (4) Y

Two candles are of different lengths and thicknesses. The short and the long ones can burn respectively for 3.5 hour and 5 hour. After burning for 2 hour, the lengths of the candles become equal in length. What fraction of the long candle’s height was the short candle initially ? (1)

(1)


[4]

33.

In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person ? (1) d, Y (2) b, Î (3) h , b (4) Y , h

34.

What is f‘s position with respect to Y ? (1) Third towards right (2) Third towards left (3) Second towards right (4) Second towards left

35.

Who is sitting between a and b ? (1) Both Î and h (2) Both f and g (3) Only Î (4) Only f

36.

How many of them are sitting between g and b ? (1) 0 or 6 (2) 1 or 5 (3) 2 or 4 (4) 3

37.

In a school 120 boys have registered for a singles carrom tournament. Each match eliminates one player. How many matches are to be organized to determine the champion? (1) 60 (2) 61 (3) 119 (4) 120

38.

Amongst five friends, Lata, Alka, Rani, Asha and Sadhana. Lata is older than only three of her friends. Alka is younger to Asha and Lata. Rani is older than only Sadhana. Who amongst them is the eldest? (1) Asha (2) Lata (3) Alka (4) Sadhana

39.

Twenty four teams are divided into 4 group of six teams each. Within each group the teams play each other exactly once. The winners of each group then play in the semifinals. Winners of the semifinals play in the finals and losers for the 3rd place. How many matches are played? (1) 60 (2) 63 (3) 64 (4) 66

40-41. Take the given statement(s) as true and decide which of the conclusion logically follows from the statements. 40. Statement: All Actors are Musicians. No Musician is a Singer. Some Singers are Dancerss. Some Dancers are Musicians.

41.

Statement : All Clocks are Alarms. No Clocks are Cuckoos. All Cuckoos are Alarms. Some Cuckoos are Birds . Conclusion : I. Some Alarms are Birds. II. No Clock is a Bird III. All Birds are Alarms (1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Only conclusion III follows. (4) Both conclusion II and III follows.

42.

Two players X and O play a game of “doughts and crosses” on a 3 × 3 grid. The purpose of the game is for a player to get 3 symbols belonging to the player in a straight line (vertically, horizontally or diagonally). Each player marks one symbol on his or her turn. After two moves (1 turn each), the grid looks as follows with X to play next. Where should X put his symbol next so that he will always win this game finally regard less of how well O plays ?

(1) Bottom row right corner (2) Bottom row middle cell (3) Middle row left most cell (4) It is not possible to always ensure X wins if O plays carefully 43.

An electrical circuit for a set of 4 lights depends on a system of switches A, B, C and D. When these switches work they have the following effect on the lights: They each change the state of two lights (i.e. on becomes off and off becomes on). The lights that each switch controls are as follows.

In configuration 1 shown below, switches CBDA are activated in turn, resulting in configuration 2. One switch did not work and had no effect at all. Which was that switch?

Conclusions : I. Some Actors are Singers II. Some Dancers are Actors III : No Actor is a Singer (1) Only conclusion 1 follows. (2) Only conclusion III follows. (3) Exactly one of conclusion I, III follows. (4) Only conclusion II follows. (1) A (3) C

(2) B (4) D


[5]

47.

44.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

48.

I left home for bringing milk between 7am and 8am. The angle between the hour-hand and the minute-hand was 90° I returned home between 7 am and 8 am. Then also the angle between the minute-hand and hour-hand was 90°. At what time (nearest to second) did I leave and return home? (1) 7h 18m 35s & 7h 51 m 24s (2) 7h 19m 24s & 7h 52m 14s (3) 7h 20m 42s & 7h 53m 11s (4) 7h 21 m 49s & 7h 54m 33s I left home at 3:00pm and returned at 3:48pm. The clock was rotated by 45°, so that when I left, the hour-hand of a clock was pointing along the southeast direction. In which direction would the hour-hand point when I returned? (1) 15° East of South (2) 21º East of South (3) 63° South of East (4) 27° South of East

45.

49. (1)

(3)

46.

(2) When the above is folded into a cube, which is the only cube that can be produced amongst the following?

(4)

A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting next to E, who is sitting on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. Counting from the left in which position is A sitting? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) Cannot be determined from the given conditions .

50.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

What will be water image of CHICK? (1) CHIC (2) C (3) K (4)


[6]

Roll No.

NTSE 13_SAT


Scholastic Aptitude Test Time : 90 minutes

Max. Marks : 100

Instructions to Candidates Read These instructions very carefully before attempting questions 1.



2.

There are 100 questions in this paper Each question is to be answered.


[7]

NTSE STAGE_II (SAT) PAPER-2013 1.

An animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium share the following structural features : (1) Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles (2) Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria (3) Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm (4) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes

2.

Given below are figures of three kinds of muscle fibres.

(1)

3.

4.

5.

6.

(2)

7.

Photosynthesis in an aquatic plant was measured by counting the number of O2 bubbles coming out of the cut end of the plant . What wiill happen to O2 production if you use a pipe to blow air from your mouth into water in the beaker ?

(1) Air from mouth contains O2 which is being added to the plant. Hence increase in O2 production

(3)

Which one/ones would you find in the grass hopper’s legs? (1) A only (2) B only (3) A and C (4) B and C

(2) Air from mouth contains CO2 which is utilized in photosynthesis. Hence increase in O2 production.

A Plant that has well differentiated body, special tissues for transport of water and other substances, but does not have seed or fruits is a (n) : (1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm (3) Gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyte

(4) Water is already in Contact with air. Hence air from mouth will have no effect.

Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain and the doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from peptic ulcers and treated him with antibiotics. He was relieved of pain. What could be the reason for peptic ulcers? (1) Reduced secretion of hormones. (2) Reduced water content (3) Growth of Helicobacter pylori (4) Excess secretion of enzyme The average temperature of the Earth remains fairly steady as compared to that of the moon because of the (1) Atmosphere (2) Lithosphere (3) Biosphere (4) Hydrosphere In flowers which one of the following conditions will increase chances of self-pollination ? (1) Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower (2) Stamens are just above the stigma of pistil in a flower (3) In all flowers of the plant only pistil is present (4) In all flowers of the plant only stamens are present.

(3) Bacteria from mouth will infect plant. Hence reduction in O2 production.

8.

A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB' because it (1) has both 'A' and 'B' antigens. (2) has only 'A' antigen and 'B' antibodies. (3) has only 'B' antigen and 'A' antibodies (4) does not have any antigens and antibodies

9.

What would happen to the person if cerebellum of his brain is damaged? (1) He will lose his memory power. (2) He will not be able to swallow food properly. (3) He will be unable to coordinate and stand properly. (4) He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.

10.

Which of the following statements are correct? A.. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilization. B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilization. C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertiIization. D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilization (1) A and B (3) C and D

(2) B and C (4) D and A


[8]

11-12

A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. Beetles multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny. Crows on the tree eat beetles.

11.

Some green beetles appear among the red beetle because (1) Beetles become green by accumulating chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat. (2) Natural variations occur during sexual reproduction. (3) Red beetles mimic green colour of leaves whenever they see crows. (4) Beetles change colour from red to green with change of season.

12.

13.

16.

There is a mixture of three solid compounds A, Band C. Out of' these compounds A and C are soluble in water and compound C is sublimable also. In what sequence the following techniques can be used for their effcctive separation? I. Filtration II. Sublimation Ill. Crystallisation from water extract IV. Dissolution in water (1) (II), (I), (IV), (Ill) (2) (IV), (I), (II), (III) (3) (I), (II), (m), (IV) (4) (II), (IV). (I), (III)

17.

Which of the following is a suitable example for illustrating the law of conservation of mass? (Atomic mass of O = 16; H = l ) (1) 18g of water is formed by the combination of 16g oxygen with 2g of hydrogen. . (2) 18g of water in liquid state is obtained by heating 18g of ice. (3) 18g of water is completely converted into vapour state on heating. (4) 18g of water freezes at 4°C to give same mass of ice.

18.

An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell. What is true about the elemt:nt X? I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic table. II. Its atom contains 9 protons. III. It has a valency of 7. IV. Its atoms can accept an electron to acquire noble gas configuration. (1) (I) and (II) (2) (II) and (Ill) (3) (Ill) and (IV) (4) (II) and (IV)

19.

The reaction between carbon and oxygen can be represented as C(S) + O2(g) ¾® CO2(g) + heat

The colour compasItIon of beetle population is likely to change in the following manner: (1) Both red and green beetle survive equally. (2) Only the red beetle survives. (3) More red beetles survive than the green. (4) More green beetles survive than the red. In the following food chain who gets less energy than the tertiary consumer and more than the primary consumer? Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Snake ® Eagle (1) Grasshopper (2) Frog (3) Snake (4) Eagle

14.

15.

If a non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such as DDT enters the food chain, the pollutant (1) magnifies in concentration at each trophic level. (2) degrades at first trophic level. (3) accumulates in the body fat of organism at first trophic level and does not pass to second trophic level. (4) decreases in concentration at each trophic level. A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating liquids A and B at a temperature of 22ºC are placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid B.Which of the following can be said about the liquids A and B? (1) Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of liquid B. (2) Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B. (3) Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B. (4) The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal.

In which of the following type(s), the above reaction can be classified? I. Combustion reaction II. Displacement reaction III. Endothermic reation IV. Combination reaction (1) (I) and (III) (2) (I) , (III) and (IV) (3) (I) and (IV) (4) (I) only 20.

A metal carbonate X on treatment with a mineral acid liberates a gas which when passed through aqueous solution of a substance Y gives back X. The substance Y on reaction with the gas obtained at anode during electrolysis of brine gives a compound Z which can decolorise coloured fabrics. The compounds X,Y and Z respectively are (1) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2, CaOCI2 (2) Ca(OH)2, CaO, CaOCI2 (3) CaCO3, CaOCl2, Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3, CaOCI2


[9]

21.

A salt can be produced by reaction between

26.

A. a weak acid and weak base. B. metal oxide and water. C. metal and a mineral acid.

A. Has 3 valence electrons.

D. metal oxide and a mineral acid. (1) A, Band C (3) C,D and A

An element X combines with hydrogen to form a compound XH3. The element X is placed on the right side of the periodic table. What is true about the element X ? B. Is a metal and is solid.

(2) B,C and D (4) 0, A and B

C. Is a non-metal and is a gas. D. Has 5 valence electrons.

22.

Which of the following is true about the two statements?

E. XH3 reacts with water to form a basic compound.

Statement I : Reactivity of aluminium decreases when it is dipped in nitric acid

(1) A, B and C

(2) B, C and D

(3) C, D and E

(4) E, A and B

Statement II : A protective layer of aluminium nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in nitric acid.

27.

An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with another element Y (atomic number 17) to form a compound Z. Which of the following statements are true regarding this compound ? I. Molecular formula of Z is XY2 II. It is soluble in water III. X and Y are joined by sharing of electrons IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten state (1) (II) and (III) (2) (I) and (III) (3) (I),(III) and (IV) (4) (I) and (IV)

28.

A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which is flat and measured several times over a large area. One day the reflected sound wave takes longer time than in previous measurements. The possible reason is : (1) The frequency of the sonar wave, generated by the equipment is lower than previous measurements. (2) There is a solid object of large size in the path of sonar wave. (3) there is a huge air bubble in the path of sonar wave. (4) the loudness of the sonar wave, generated by the equipment is lower than previous measurement.

29.

Which of the following ray diagram is correct?

(1) I is correct but II is incorrect (2) I is incorrect but II is correct (3) Both the statements are correct and II is also the correct explanation of I (4) Both the statements arc correct but II is not correct explanation of I 23.

24.

A silvery white metal X reacts with water at room temperature to produce a water soluble compound Y and a colourless gas Z. The reaction is highly exothermic and the Z catches fire immediately during the reaction. The solution of Y in water on reacting with stoichiometric amount of dilute solution of hydrochloric acid gives a solution of pH = 7.0. The compounds X, Y and Z respectively are : (1) AI, AI(OH)3 and H2

(2) Ag, AgOH and H2

(3) K, KCI and H2

(4) Na, NaOH and H2

A compound X is obtained by the reaction of alkaline KMnO 4 with "mother compound Y followed by acidification. Compound X also reacts with compound Y in presence of few drops of H2SO4 to form a sweet smelling compound Z. The compound X, Y and Z are, respectively

(1)

(1) Ethanol, Ethene, Ethanoic Acid (2) Ethanoic Acid, Ethanol, Ethylethanoate

(2)

(3) Ethanoic Acid, Ethanal, Ethene (4) Ethanol, Ethanoic Acid, Sodium Ethanoate 25.

Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon will undergo combustion as well as addition reaction ? (1) CH4 and C2H6.

(2) C2H6O and C3H8O

(3) C2H4O2 and C3H6O

(4) C2H2 and C3H6

(3)

(4)


[10]

30.

31.

32.

33.

A concave lens always gives a virtual image. In optical lenses worn by humans which of the following statements is true? (1) The lens can never be concave. (2) In some cases the lens can be concave if the focal length is much larger than 2.5 cm. (3) All focal length concave lenses are possible. (4) All focal length convex lenses are possible. A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around earth at height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the earth is taken as 6000 km. The geostationary satellite comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly 24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s2 and mass of satellite be 1000 kg; calculate the work done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational force. (1) 3.6p × 1014 J (2) 2p × 7.2p 1014 J (3) 1.8p x 1014 J (4) 0 J

34.

235 231 4 92 U ® 90 Th + 2He

(1) Each decay product has the same kinetic energy. (2) The decay products tend to go in the same direction. (3) The thorium nucleus has more momentum than the helium nucleus. (4) The helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus. 35.

Consider a simple circuit containing a battery and three identical incandescent bulbs A, B and C. Bulb A is wired in parallel with bulb B and this combination is wired in series with bulb C. What would happen to the brightness of the other two bulbs if bulb A were to burn out? (1) Only bulb B would get brighter. (2) Both A and B would get brighter. (3) Bulb B would get brighter and bulb C would get dimmer. (4) There would be no change in the brightness of either bulb B or bulb C.

Which of the graph below is a possible graph of the position x(t)?

36.

(2) II < III < IIII (4) II > III = IIII

The figure below shows the position of a ball at t = 0, t = 1 s, t = 2 s, t = 3 s and t = 4 s

Position of ball at five successive times

Three different circuits (I, II and III) are constructed using identical batteries and resistors of R and 2R ohm. What can be said about current I in arm AB of each circuit?

(1) III< II < IIII (3) II = III = IIII

A uranium nucleus at rest decays into a thorium nucleus and a helium nucleus, as shown below. Which of the following is true?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

The graph shows position as a function of time for two trains A and B running on parallel tracks. For times greater than t = 0, which of the following statement is true?

(1) At time tB both trains have the same velocity. (2) Both trains speed up all the time. (3) Both trains may have the same velocity at some time earlier than tB. (4) Graph indicates that both trains have the same acceleration at a given time.


[11]

37.

The figure shown below depicts the distance travelled by a body as a function of time.

41.

An open box is made from a square lamina of side 12cm, by cutting equal squares at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. The volume of this box cannot be (1) 115 c.c. (2) 120 c.c. (3) 125 c.c.

42.

A has a pair of triangles with corresponding sides proportional, and B has a pair of pentagons with corresponding sides proportional. S1 = A's triangles must be similar S2 = D's pentagons must be similar Which of the following statement is correct? (1) S1 is true, but S2 is not true. (2) S2 is true, but S1 is not true. (3) Both S1 and S2 are true. (4) Neither S1 nor S2 is true.

43.

DABC is an equilateral triangle of side 2 3 cms. P is any point in the interior of D ABC. If x, y, z are the distances of P from the sides of the triangle, then x + y + z =

The average speed and maximum speed between 0 and 20 s are (1) 1 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively. (2) 1 m/s, 1.6 m/s respectively. (3) 2.0 m/s, 2.6 m/s respectively. (4) 1.3 m/s, 2.0 m/s respectively. 38.

39.

A hypothetical planet has density p, radius R, and surface gravitational acceleration g. If the radius of the planet were doubled but the planetary density stayed the same, the acceleration due to gravity at the planet's surface would be : (1) 4g (2) 2g (3) g (4) g/2 Three rings P. Q and R are dropped at the same time over identical hollow magnets as shown below :

Which of the following describes the order in which the ring P, Q and R reach the bottom of the magnet? (1) They arrive in the order P, Q, R. (2) They arrive in the order P, R, Q. (3) Rings P and R arrive simultaneously, followed by Q. (4) Rings Q and R arrive simultaneously, followed by P. 40.

An electron moving with uniform velocity in x direction enters a region of uniform magnetic field along y direction. Which of the following physical quantity(ies) is(are) non-zero and remain constant? I. Velocity of the electron. II. Magnitude of the momentum of the electron. III. Force on the electron. IV. The kinetic energy of electron. (1) Only I and II. (2) Only III and IV. (3) All four. (4) Only II and IV.

(4) 130 c.c.

(1) 2 + 3 cms. (3) 3 cms.

(2) 5 cms. (4) 4 cms.

44.

Which of the following numbers is the fourth power of a natural number? (1) 6765201 (2) 6765206 (3) 6765207 (4) 6765209

45.

The square of an odd integer must be of the form (1) 6n + 1 (2) 6n + 3 (3) 8n + 1 (4) 4n + 1 but may not be 8n + 1

46.

ABCD is a square with side a. With centers A, B, C and D four circles are drawn such that each circle touches externally two of the remaining three circles. Let d be the area of the region In the interior of the square and exterior of the circles. Then the maximum value of d is æ4-pö

(1) a2( 1 – p )

(2) a2 ç 4 ÷ è ø

(3) a2(p – 1)

(4)

pa2 4

47.

The value of tan1º tan2º tan3º......... tan89º is (1) 0 (2) 1 1 (3) 2 (4) 2

48.

ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has real roots if (1) a, b, c are integers. (2) b2 > 3ac. (3) ac > 0 and b is zero. (4) c = 0.


[12]

49.

An open box A is made from a square piece of tin by cutting equal squares S at the comers and folding up the remaining flaps. Another open box B is made similarly using one of the squares S. If U and V are the volumes of A and B respectively, then which of the following is not possible? (1) U > V (2) V > U (3) U = V (4) minimum value of U > maximum value of V.

56.

A solid metal sphere of surface area S1 is melted and recast into a number of smaller spheres. S2 is the sum of the surface areas of all the smaller spheres. Then (1) S1 > S2 (2) S2 > S1 (3) S1 = S2 (4) S1 = S2 only if all the smaller spheres of equal radii

57.

Which of the following is an irrational number? (1)

41616

(2) 23.232323 ... 50.

Which of the following statements holds always? (1) Every rectangle is a square. (2) Every parallelogram is a trapezium (3) Every rhombus is a square (4) Every parallelogram is a rectangle

51.

Which of the following polygons are uniquely determined when all the sides are given? (1) Quadrilateral (2) Triangle (3) Pentagon (4) Hexagon

52.

There are several human beings and several dogs in a room. One tenth of the humans have lost a leg. The total numbers of feet are 77. Then the number of dogs is (1) not determinable due to insufficient data (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

53.

All the arcs in the following diagram are semicircles. This diagram shows two paths connecting A to B. Path I is the single large semicircle and Path II consists of the chain of small semicircles.

(1) Path I is longer than Path II (2) Path I is of the same length as Path II (3) Path I is shorter than Path II (4) Path I is of the same length as Path II, only if the number of semi circles is not more than 4 54.

55.

One integer is chosen out of 1, 2, 3, ...,100. What is the probability that it is neither divisible by 4 nor by 6 (1) 0.59 (2) 0.67 (3) 0.41 (4) 0.33 (a - b )2 +

(b - a )2 is

(1) Always zero (2) Never zero (3) Positive if and only if a > b (4) Positive only if a ¹ b

(3)

(1 + 3 )3 - (1 - 3 )3 3

(4) 23.10100100010000 ... 58.

Re.1 and Rs.5 coins are available (as many required). Find the smallest payment which cannot be made by these coins, if not more than 5 coins are allowed. (1) 3 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) 18

59.

Median of a data set is a number which has an equal number of observations below and above it. The median of 1,9,4,3,7,6,8,8,12,15 is (1) 7·5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) any number between 7 and 8

60.

Suppose you walk from home to the bus stand at 4 km/h and immediately return at x km/h. If the average speed is 6 km/h then x is (1) 8 km/h (2) 10 k m/h (3) 12 km/h (4) cannot be detennined unless the distance from home to bus stand is known.

61.

From about 13th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be followed strictly to: (1) regulate the behaviour of the royalty. (2) regulate the income of people by social rank. (3) control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors. (4) provide religious sanctity to social behaviour.

62.

Choose the correct response from the given options. On 3rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed to: a. establish dictatorship in Germany. b. give Hitler the power to rule by decree. c. ban all trade unions. d. ban all political parties and their affiliates. (1) only a and b are correct (2) only c and d are correct (3) a, band c are correct (4) only d is correct


[13]

63.

Enclosures in England were seen as : (1) hindrance to agricultural expansion and crop rotation. (2) hindrance to commercialization of agriculture. (3) necessary to make long-term investment on land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to improve the soil. (4) necessary to protect the interests of those who depended on the commons for their survival.

64.

The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region comprising of : (1) Romaina, Germany, Poland, Bulgaria (2) Romania, Prussia, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland. (3) Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland (4) Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Croatia, Romania

70.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter : Statement I : The major cricket tournament of colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not represent regions but religious communities. Statement II : The victory of the 'Hindus' in the 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's war on 'untouchability'. (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (3) Both statement I and statement II are true and II is correct explanation of statement I. (4) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement l. Match the following columns :

71.

Column A Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association Gandhiji began the Civil (II) Disobedience Movement Gandhiji ended the Civil (III) Disobedience Movement (I)

65.

66.

What was Rinderpest? (1) A disease of cattle plagues that spread in Africa in the 1890s (2) Bubonic plague which spread in the region of Maharashtra in the 1890s. (3) A type of cholera that spread in Assam in the 1890s. (4) A devastating bird disease that was imported to Italy from British Asia, through chicken meat. Which of the following is a correct match ? (1) Rashsundari Debi -lstri Dharma Vichar (2) Ram Chadda - Amar Jiban (3) Kashibaba - Chote Aur Bade ka Sawaal (4) Sudarshan Chakra - Gulamgiri

67.

Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God? (1) Martin Luther (2) Menocchio (3) Roman Catholic Church (4) Gutenberg

68.

The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into : (1) reserved and protected forests. (2) protected and village forests. (3) bio-sphere reserves and wild life sanctuaries. (4) reserved, protected and village forests.

69.

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I : Hitler said 'In my state the mother is the most important citizen', Statement II : In Nazi Germany while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel hearted; girls were told that they had to become good mothers. (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (2) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the: correct explanation of statement I. (3) Both the statements are false. (4) Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

(IV)

Congress adopted the demand for 'Puma Swaraj'

Column B (A) December,1929 (B) August, 1930 (C) March, 1930 (D) March, 1931

(1) (I). (3), (II) - (4), (III) - (2), (IV)· (1) (2) (I) - (2), (II) - (3), (III) - (4), (IV) - (1) (3) (I) -(3), (II) - (1), (III)· (2), (IV) - (4) (4) (I) - (4), (II) - (3), (III) • (2), (IV)· (1) 72.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given there after : Statement 1: The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great Britain". Statement II : The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members. (1) Both statement I and statement II are false. (2) Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the result of statement I. (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (4) Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not a result of statement I.

73.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I : Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled. Statement II : Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily. Statement III : Potato reached the West through travellers and became the staple diet of the poor. (1) Statement I and statement III are true. (2) Statement II and statement III are true. (3) All three statements are true. (4) Statement I and statement II are true.


[14]

74.

Assertion (A) : Gandhiji’s idea of satyagraha emphasised on the power of truth and the need to search for truth.

78.

Assertion (A) : In India, east coast has more seaports than the west coast. Reason (R) : The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

Reasoning (R) : Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

(1) A is true and R is false.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(4) (A) is false and (R) is true

(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

79.

W hich pie diagram represents India's age composition in 2001?

(4) Both A and R are false. 75.

(1)

Assertion (A) : The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement. Reason (R) : People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(3) 80.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are false (3) A is false but R is true (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 76.

Assertion (A) : Coal is a fossil fuel. Reason (R): It is formed due to compression of inorganic material over millions of years.

81.

(4)

Assertion (A) : The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter. Reason (R) : The winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A) (2) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

(1) Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore, Marmagao

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

(3) Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla, Mangalore

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

(4) Kolkata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam, Chennai

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true 77.

(2)

(2) Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore, Mumbai

82.

Match the fishing ports indicated on the map of India (I, II, III and IV) with their respective names. A. Kakinada B. Alappuzha C. Porbandar D. Tuticorin

Assertion (A) : The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat. Reason (R) : Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A) (2) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

(1) II-A, (2) I-A, (3) l-C, (4) I-D,

III-B, II-B, II-B, II-B,

I-C, III-D, III-A, III-A,

IV-D IV-C IV-D IV-C


[15]

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

Which figure relates the trend of population Growth rate of India from 1951-2001?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Assertion (A) : The Himalayan ranges show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra. Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A). (3) (A) is true and (R) is false. (4) (A) is false and (R) is true. Which of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion? A. Ploughing along contour lines B. Strip cropping C. Jhumming D. Mixed farming (1) A and B (2) A and C (3) B and D (4) B and C Assertion (A) : Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate. Reason (R) : Himalaya mountain ranges protect it from the north cold winds. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false. (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(1) Advancement of summer monsoon on 1st June. (2) Line dividing tropical evergreen and deciduous forest. (3) Water divide between east and west flowing rivers. (4) Line dividing annual rainfall above and below 100 cm. 88.

W hich of the following feature has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills? (1) Aravalli Range (2) Purvanchal Hills (3) Siwaliks (4) Chotanagpur Plateau

89.

Assertion (A) : Sex Ratio in India is low. Reason (R):Indian society has been unfavourable to females. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

90.

A pilot takes off from an airport at 15º S latitude and flies 55º due North. What latitude the pilot has reached? (1) 55º N (2) 40º N (3) 70º N (4) 15º N

91.

Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (1) The Constitution creates a strong Centre. (2) The Constitution provides for a single judiciary. (3) The Constitution provides for a common All India Services. (4) The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of the Parliament.

92.

Which of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution? (1) No external power can dictate to the Government of India. (2) The head of the State is a hereditary position. (3) All people are equal before law. (4) Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion.

93.

According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following is the 'heart and soul' of our Constitution? (1) The Preamble (2) Right to Equality (3) Right against Exploitation (4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

What does the zig-zag line indicate on the map of India?


[16]

94.

Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the following statements support this claim? A. It is a more accountable form of government. B. It improves the quality of decision making. C. It ensures rapid economic development of citizens. D. It enhances the dignity of citizens (1) A,B and D (2) A and C (3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D

95.

The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the third·tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because (1) women are good at managing resources. (2) although women constitute nearly half of the population, they have inadequate representation in decision-making bodies. (3) we have many powerful women leaders. (4) women are obedient and would follow the constitutional provisions well.

96.

In which of the following economies are people more of a resource? (1) Country A with 78% of the working age population illiterate and with very low life expectancy (2) Country B with 10% of the working age population illiterate and with high life expectancy (3) Country C with 60% of people in the working age illiterate, but with high life expectancy (4) Country D with only 10% of population is the working age illiterate, but has very low life expectancy.

97.

Which of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and 2003? (1) The sectorial share of agriculture in employment has decreased far more than its share on total output (2) The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has decreased, but its share in employment has increased. (3) The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has increased, but its share in employment has decreased. (4) The sectorial share of agriculture in output has decreased far more than its share in total employment.

98.

Which of the following considered as Foreign Investment made in India ? A.The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad. B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed company. C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala . D. The US multinational Google opens its fullfledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.

99.

(1) (1) and (4)

(2) (1) and (2)

(3) (4) only

(4) (2) and (3)

W e accept paper money as a medium of exchange because (1) it has gold hacking. (2) the law legalizes it. (3) Reserve Bank of India has precious metals against which it prints notes. (4) everyone else accepts it.

100.

Which of the following refers to trade barrier in the context of WTO? I. Restrictions on domestic trade Il. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies (1) (I), (II) and (III)

(2) (II), (III) and (IV)

(3) (III) and (IV)

(4) (I), (II) and (IV)


[17]

Roll No.

NTSE 14_MAT



Max. Marks : 50



2.



3.



[18]


2.

3.

4.

Select the correct number that is missing in the number series given below : 214, 265, 367, ?, 724 (1) 520 (2) 501 (3) 525 (4) 571 Select the correct alphabet number that is missing in the alphabet-number series given below : NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, ?, YAM31 (1) RPA31 (2) PRA30 (3) RPA30 (4) PAR31

8.

(1) 14 (3) 15 9.

P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is thewife of Q; P × Q means P is the brother of Q. Which of the following means A is the materanal uncle of D ? (1) A × B – C + D (2) D × C – B × A (3) A × C + B – D (4) A – C × B + D Select from the alternatives two signs which need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 36 ¸ 12 × 6 + 9 – 6 = 38 (1) – and × (2) ¸ and × (3) – and + (4) ¸ and +

5.

According to a certain code, ‘=’ means ‘>’, ‘_’ means ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘_’. If a, b and c are positive integers and a = b =c, then which of the following is true ? (1) b = a + c (2) ac = b2 (3) a – c = 2b (4) ab = c2

6.

Find the correct group of letters in place of ‘?’ in the following series. FNHLJ, WOUQS, BNEKH, ?, DTHPL (1) N B K E H (2) N V P T R (3) N F L H J (4) N D R Z V Directions: (Questons 7–8) : Each of the following questions contains three figures in which numbers are written according to a pattern. Find the missing number for each question from among the alternatives.

7.

(1) 13 (3) 12

(2) 14 (4) 18

(2) 16 (4) 11

Two faces of a cube are given below, which number will be opposite 3?

(1) 1 (3) 4

(2) 5 (4) 2

Directions: (Questions 10-11) : Each of the follwoing questions has a problem followed by a few numbered statements. Decide which of the statements are sufficient for answering the problem and choose your answer from the alternatives. 10.

A, B and C together can complete a work in ‘x’ days. How many days would B alone take to complete the work ? Statements : I. C can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A. II. B can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A and C together. III. A and C taken together can complete the work in ‘z’ days. (1) Both I and II and required (2) I alone is sufficient (3) II and III taken together are sufficient (4) Either II or III is sufficient

11.

A boat travels in a stream from A to B and then from B to A. What is the speed of the boat in still water ? Statements : I. The speed of the boat in still water is 2 km/h more than the speed of the current. II. The speed of the current is 1 km/h more than the speed of the boat. III. Boat covers the distance of y kilometres between A and B both downstream and upstream in x hours. (1) All of I, II and III are required (2) Both II and III are required (3) I and III taken together are sufficient (4) Either I and II together or II and III together are sufficient


[19]

12.

How many triangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 20 (3) 22 13.

(2) 18 (4) 17

There are two statements given below as prem ises, which support the conclusion suggested in the answer options. You may select the conclusion that makes the whole argument valid : Statements : I. No film actors are Cricketers. II. Some Cricketers are poets. (1) Therefore, some poets are film actors. (2) Therefore, some poets are not film actors. (3) Therefore, all poets are film actors. (4) Therefore, all film actors are poets.

14.

Find the missing term (?) in the following series 2, 6, 30, 260, ? (1) 470 (2) 510 (3) 630 (4) 3130

15.

One term in the following number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 2, 6, 18, 82, 650 (1) 2 (2) 18 (3) 82 (4) 650

16.

If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as (1) NFN (2) UMU (3) UNU (4) MFM

17.

If FAST is coded as 798 and LAST is coded as 906 then BUSY is coded as (1) 1759 (2) 1431 (3) 952 (4) 948

18.

19.

20.

Six students A, B, C,D, E and F are in a class, A and B are from Town and C, D, E and F are from village. D and F are studious while others are casual. A, C, D are girls and B, E, F are boys. Who is the studious girl from village ? (1) C (2) D (3) E (4) F Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. (A) Gopal is shorter than Ashok but taller than Kunal (B) Navin is shorter than Kunal (C) Jayesh is taller than Navin (D) Ashok is taller than Jayesh Who among them is the tallest ? (1) Gopal (2) Ashok (3) Kunal (4) Navin

Five persons are standing in a line. One of two persons at the extreme ends is a professor and the other is businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is to the left of the businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the advocate. Counting from the left, the advocate is at which place. (1) 1st (2) 2nd rd (3) 3 (4) 5th Directions (Questiosn 21 - 24) : A code language has been used to write the words in capital letters in English in Column I as Greek letters in Column II. Greek letters in Column II do not appear in the same order as letters in Column I. Decode tha language and choose the correct code for the word given in each question from amongst the alternatives provided.

21.

22.

23.

24.

LIVER (1) nhlmp (3) rswen

(2) dgqpe (4) abdgh

TROUBLE (1) nabdghl (3) dghlwen

(2) nswdgqe (4) slrpagq

BROWN (1) wenlw (3) aplhn

(2) wdprn (4) prbne

CYCLE (1) bqgmb (3) prpew

(2) bmbnp (4) plbnp

Direction (Questions 25 - 28) : P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different profession-Lawyer, Chartered Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or Chartered Accountant. Each of them has a different monthly income. The Chartered Accountant (CA) earns the most. S, the engineer, earns less than V, the doctor. R, the teacher earns more than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the least. T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and m ore than only Q. The pharmacist’s income is not the lowest.


[20]

25.

Which of the following pairs of professional represents the professions of hushand and wife? (1) Pharmacist, Architect (2) Chartered Accountant, Architect (3) Engineer, Pharmacist (4) Chartered Accountant, Engineer

26.

Which of the following statements is false ? (1) The Architect earns more than the Lawyer (2) The Teacher earns less than the Engineer (3) The Doctor earns more than the Engineer (4) The Pharmacist earns more than the Lawyer

27.

What is P’s profession ? (1) Pharmacist (2) Lawyer (3) Teacher (4) None of the above

28.

Which of the following represents the three female members of the family ? (1) PTQ (2) TRQ (3) VTQ (4) Data inadequate

29.

Which of the following Venn diagram correctly represents Ocean, Indian Ocean Pacific Ocean and Mariana Trench ?

30.

If RAJASTHAN = 9R17J8L19H13 in a coded language, then what is the encrypted form of the MANIPUR in the same language ? (1) 14R13H11G9 (2) 13M14W11B9 (3) 13R14J11F9 (4) 14M13V11J9

31.

What is the next number in the series 7, 23, 55, 109, ... (1) 199 (2) 189 (3) 191 (4) 209

32.

Find out the missing number in the second figure on the basis of numbers arranged in the first figure.

33.

If urban population is 350 find out the non educated non working urban females ? (1) 13 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 20

34.

Find out the urban males who are educated but not working. (1) 110 (2) 40 (3) 30 (4) 7

35.

If rural population is 150, how many non working rural males who are not educated ? (1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 3

36.

Find out total non-working females but educated (1) 80 (2) 79 (3) 51 (4) 19

37.

Find out the total rural male population ? (1) 111 (2) 187 (3) 180 (4) 114

38.

Crime : Police :: Flood : ? (1) Dam (2) River (3) Rain (4) Reservoir

39.

When the given sheet of paper (X) is folded to make a cube, choose the cube that may be formed.

(1) 1 only (3) 2 and 3 only 40.

(1) 30 (3) 160

(2) 58 (4) 32

(2) 1,2 and 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

In the following diagram, there are four inter locked figures of a circle, a square, a triangle and a rectangle representing number of students passing in English, Maths, Science and Hindi, respectively. Different regions of the diagrams are also lattered form A through Q.

Direction: (Questions 33-37) : In the Venn diagram given below, sample data of a small town having total population of 500, the square represents persons form urban areas, the triangle represents women, the circle represents persons who are working and the rectangle represents the persons who are educated. Number given are number of persons.


[21]

Now consider the following statements : statements : I. There is no letter that represents a student who passed in all the four subjects. II. There are only two letters that represent a student who passes on three subject only. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I and II 41.

What is ‘X’ in the following table ?

(1) 16 (3) 18 42.

(2) 17 (4) 21

Consider the question and two statements that follow : What is the total cost of one pen, and one pencil and 1 note book ? Statements : I. The total cost of 5 pen, 6 pencils and 7 note books is Rs. 178 II. The total cost of 6 pens, 4 pencils and 2 note books, is Rs. 124 Which one of the following is correct ? (1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the quaetion (2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question (3) Statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question (4) Both statements are not sufficient to answer the question

43.

Which one of the following differs the rest ? (1) MGDLFC (2) JQVIPU (3) ZUBXTA (4) DYSCXR

44.

Which one of the following fits inside the bracket? 714 ( ) 65 if 953 (RVXYS)28 (1) UWZSR (2) UWZRS (3) TZWVU (4) TZWUV

45.

If ‘X’ was born on December 6, 1983 and ‘Y’ on February 4, 1984, then when will ‘Y’ be half in age as compared ot ‘X’ ? (1) April 4, 1984 (2) April 5, 1984 (3) April 6, 1984 (4) April 8, 1984

46.

47.

Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q in between P and T. To find who among them is in the middle, which of the following information given in the following statements is/are sufficient? Statements : I. P is left of Q and right S. II. R is at the right end. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (1) I only (2) II only (3) Either I or II (4) Both I and II

48.

Certain blank spaces are left in the following series. Which is the group of letters given below, if put in the blank spaces in sequence, will complete the series ? _ ab _ a _ ba _ ab _ _ ab _ (1) bbaabbb (2) babaaaa (3) abaaaba (4) aaaaaaa

49.

If the letters of the word ‘BLUE’ are arranged according to dictionary, what is the position of the word ‘UBLE’ ? (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 22

50.

All except one does not belong to the same group. Which one is that ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Famine : Hunger : : War : ___________ (1) Enmity (2) Insecurity (3) Destruction (4) Infantry


[22]

Roll No.

NTSE 14_SAT



Max. Marks : 100




2.



[23]

NTSE STAGE_II (SAT) PAPER-2014 1.

Which one of the following statements is NOT true about evolution ? (1) Evolution leads to generation of diverse forms of life. (2) Time dating and fossil studies help in understanding of evolution. (3) Evolution is not always progressive series of changes that occur in organism. (4) Human beings have not evolved from chimpanzees.

2.

Which one of the following is known as energy currency of cell ? (1) Adenosine diphosphate (2) Adenosine triphosphate (3) Pyruvate (4) Glucose

3.

An analysis of soil sample revealed 0.1 mg of a pesticide and 1 mg of the same pesticide was found in grains. However in the adipose tissue of birds the concentration was 2 mg. The reason for this is the phenomenon known as (1) Bio-absorption (2) Bio-translocation (3) Bio-magnification (4) Bio-multiplication

4.

Diseases that spread by vectors such as mosquitoes are (1) Encephalitis and Malaria (2) Syphilis and AIDS (3) Tuberculosis and sleeping sickness (4) Kala-azar and SARS

5.

Which one of the following is correct route for passage of sperms ? (1) Testes — scrotum — vasdeferens — urethra — penis (2) Scrotum — testes — urethra — vasdeferends — penis (3) Tetes — vasdeferens — urethra — seminal vesicles (4) Testes — vasdeferens — urethra — penis

6.

Suggest which among the following is NOT a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum (1) Detoxification of poisons and drugs (2) Digestion / egestioin of foreign materials outside the cell (3) Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules (4) Biogenesis of membranes

7.

In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by bacteria and converted into ammonia. Ammonia is further converted into other forms of nitrogen . At the end of the cycle it returns to the atmosphere by the process of : (1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification (3) Denitrification (4) Assimilation

8.

Cell organelles that are involved in the waste diposal system of the cell are : (1) Golgi apparatus. (2) Lysosomes (3) Chromosomes (4) Ribosomes

9.

Sequence of events which occure in a reflex action are (1) Receptor — motor neuron — CNS — sensory neurong — effector muscle (2) Effector muscle — CNS — sensory nerve — sensory organ (3) CNS — sensory neuron — motor neuron — effector muscle (4) Receptor organ — sensory neuron — CNS — motor neuron — effector muslce

10.

Movement of food in digestive tract is due to (1) Concentration gradient (2) Secretions (3) Peristalsis (4) Villi A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is crossed another pea plant with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds What would be the nature of seed in the first generation (F1 generation) ? (1) Round green (2) Wrinkled green (3) Wrinkled yellow (4) Round yellow

11.

12.

Some organisms are sensitive to different levels of air pollution and are used as pollution indicators. Suggest which among the following fits into the category (1) Fungi (2) Fresh water algae (3) Bacteria (4) Lichens

13.

A group of laboratory mice having tails are bred together and their progeny studied. The progeny and again bred them for four successive generations. What do you think would be the nature of the new progeny ? (1) All mice born will have tails. (2) All mice born will have no tails. (3) The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 3 (4) The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 4

14.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (1) Tendons are tissues with great strength and flexibility (2) Bones are connected to each other by tendons (3) Cartilage smoothens bone surface at joints (4) Tendons connect muslces to bones


[24]

15.

Which of the following are the correct examples of matter ? (1) Glass bottle, water and noise (2) Air, wood and vacuum (3) Silver foil, hot air and chalk (4) Sand, oxygen and light flash

16.

Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) contain 100 cm3 of water each at 20ºC . To the water in the beaker (X) 100 g of water at 0ºC was added and stirred to mix thoroughly.To the beaker (Y) 100g of ice at 0ºC was added and stirred till it melten into water. The water in the beaker (Y) will be (1) hotter than water in beaker X (2) Colder than water in beaker X (3) heavier than water in beaker X (4) lighter than water in beaker X

17.

18.

19.

20.

At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be prepared by dissolving 210g of it in 100 g of water.The maximum amount of X which can be dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 620 g. An attempt is made to dissove 50.0 g of X in 100g of water at 313 K. A. All the 50.0 g of X will dissove at 313 K. B. At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissoved C. Solubility of X decreases with increases of temperature D. On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 210 g of X will crystallize out. Which of the above statements are correct ? (1) A and B (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) A,C and D Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 protons respectively. If the number of neutrons in them happen to be 14 and 8 respectively ; the formula unit mass for the compound between And B unit would be : (1) 43 (2) 75 (3) 102 (4) 112 The reaction of burning of carbon in oxygen is represented by the equation: C(s) + O2(g) ¾®CO2(g) + Heat + Light When 9.0 g of solid carbon is burnt in 16.0 g of oxygen gas, 220g of carbon dioxide is produced.The mass of carbon dioxide gas formed on burning of 30g of carbon in 320 g of oxygen would be (Note : atomic mass of C = 120 u, O = 16.0u) (1) 6.60 g (2) 7.33 g (3) 8.25 g (4) 1100g An atom of an element (X) has its K, L and M shells filled with some electrons. It reacts with sodium metal to form a compound NaX. The number of electrons in the M shell of the atom (X) will be (1) Eight (2) Seven (3) Two (4) One

21.

Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to produce water. The reaction is represented by the equation : O2 (g) + H2(g) ¾® H2O (g) The above reaction is an exampleof (a) Oxidation of hydrogen (b) Reduction of oxygen (c) Reduction of hydrogen (d) Redox reaction (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)

22.

Match the items of Column I with the items of the Column II Column I

Column II

a) NH4OH + CH3COOH ® (i) Thermal CH3COONH4 + H2O decomposition (ii) Thermite reaction (iii) Photochemical reaction

b) 2AgBr ®2Ag + Br2 c) ZnCO3 ® ZnO + CO3 d) 2AI + Fe2O3 ® 2Fe + Al2O3

(1) d-ii, c-iv, b-i, a-iii (3) b-ii, d-i, a-iii, c-iv

(iv) Neutralization reaction

(2) c-i, a-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

23.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidic strength for equimolar aqueous solutions of HCl, H2SO4, NH4OH and NaOH (1) HCl < NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 (2) NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 < HCl (3) HCl < H2SO4 < NH4OH < NaOH (4) NaOH < NH4OH < HCl < H2SO4

24.

Metals like sodium, potassium calcium and magnesium are extracted by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state. These metals are not extracted by reduction of their oxides with carbon because a) reduction with carbon is very expensive b) carbon readily makes alloys with these metals. c) carbon has less affinity for oxygen d) carbon is a weaker reducing agent than these metals. (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (d) and (a)

25.

A hydrocarbon has a molecular formula as C6H12 . It does not react with hydrogen to give C6H14 nor does it react with chlorine to give C6H12Cl2 . The hydrocarbon C6H12is a) A saturated hydrocarbon b) An unsaturated hydrocarbon c) An open chain hydrocarbon d) A cyclo-alkane (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) (3) (d) and (b) (4) (a) and (d)


[25]

26.

27.

An organic compound is a clear liquid having a molecular formula C4H8O. It has an open chain structure. Without any carbon-carbon double bond. The compound can be a) an alcohol b) an ester c) an aldehyde d) a ketone (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) (3) (b) and (d) (4) (d) and (a) An element with atomic number 17 is placed in the group 17 of the long form periodic table. Element with atomic number 9 is placed above and with atomic number 35 is placed below it. Element with atomic number 16 is placed left and with atomic number 18 is placed right to it. Which of the following statements are correct . a) Valency of the element with atomic number 18 is zero. b) Elements with same valency will have atomic number 16,17 and 18. c) Valency of elements with atomic number 9,17 and 35 is one. d) Element with atomic number 17 is more electronegative that element with atomic numbers 16 and 35 (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) , (b) and (d)

28.

A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/ h. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) The acceleration of the car is definitely zero. (2) The car has an acceleration only if it is moving along a curved path (3) The car may have an acceleration even if it is moving along a straight path (4) The car may not have an acceleration even if it is moving along a curved path

29.

A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor with a velocity 2 m/s and then let go. The box moves 5 m on the floor before coming to rest. What must be the frictional force acting on the box ? (1) 4 N (2) 2 N (3) 20 N (4) 8 N

30.

Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, are approching each other under their mutual graitational attraction. When the sepration between the objects is 100 km, the acceleration of the lighter object is 1 m/s2 When the separation between them is 25 km, the acceleration of the heavier object is (1) 1m/s2 (2) 2m/s2 2 (3) 8m/s (4) 4m/s2

31.

A spring balance measures the weight of an object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of 0.08 N when the object is completely immersed in water. If the value of acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s2 the volume of the object is (1) 20 cm3 (2) 80 cm3 3 (3) 200 cm (4) 2 cm3

32.

A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass 1 kg for 2 s, which was initially at rest. What is the work done on the object by the force? (1) 200 J (2) 20 J (3) 16 J (4) 180J

33.

Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is based on the principle of (1) SONAR (2) Reverberation (3) Multiple reflection (4) Echo

34.

A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface that separates medium 1 from medium 2 Let v1 and v2 represent the velocity of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. Also let n12 and n21 represent the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 and refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1, respectively. If i and r denote the angle of incidence and angle of refraction, thenv1 v2 sin i sin i (1) = n21 = v (2) = n21 = v sin r sin r 2 1 (3)

v1 sin i = n12 = v sin r 2

(4)

v2 sin i = n12 = v sin r 1

35.

A convex lens has a focal length of 0.5 m. It has to be combined with a second lens, so that the combination has a power of 15 diopter. Which of the following could be the second lens? (1) A concave lens of focal length 2 m. (2) Another convex lens of focal length 0.5 m. (3) A concave lens of focal length 0.5 m. (4) A convex lens of focal length 2 m.

36.

Which of the following statement is correct ? (1) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly (2) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly (3) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly (4) A person with hypermetropia can not see distant objects clearly

37.

Consider two conducting plates A and B between which the potential difference is 5 volt, plate A being at a higher potential. A proton and an electron are released at plates A and B respectively. The 2 particales then move towards the opposite plates- the proton to plate B and the electron to plate A. Which one will have a larger velocity when they reach their respective destination plates ? (1) Both will have the same velocity. (2) The electron will have the larger velocity. (3) The proton will have the larger velocity. (4) None will be able to reach the destination point.


[26]

38.

Which one of the statement best describes the nature of the field lines due to a bar magnet? (1) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Any number of field lines can pass through a point. (2) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Only one field line passes through a point. (3) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Only one field line passes through a point. (4) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Any number of field lines can pass through a point.

39.

Which of the following statements is correct? (1) AC generator generates a higher voltage (2) DC generator generates a higher voltage (3) AC generator has a permanent magnet whereas a DC generator has an electromagnet (4) There is a split-ring commutator in a DC generator but not in an AC generator

40.

A star produces its energy through the process of (1) Nuclear fusion (2) Chemical reaction (3) Nuclear fission (4) Gravitational atraction between different parts of the star.

41.

If f is an acute angle such that tanf = 2/3 then evaluate æ 1 + tan f ö çç ÷÷ . è sin f + cos f ø (1) –

(3) 42.

(2) –

(1) 4 5

(2) 4 6

(3) 4 7

(4) 4 11

In DABC, XY is paralled to A C and divides the triangle into the two parts of equal area. Then the

(1)

2 +1 2

(2)

2- 2 2

(3)

2+ 2 2

(4)

2 -1 2

47.

P is point in the interor of an equilateral triangle with side a units. If P1, P2 and P3 are the distance of P form the three sides of the triangle, the P1 + P2 + P3 2a (1) equals units 3 a 3 (2) equals units 2 (3) is more than a unit (4) Cannot be determined unless the location of P is specified

48.

In how many ways can given square be cut into two congruent trapeziums? (1) Exactly 4 (2) Exactly 8 (3) Exactly 12 (4) More than 12

49.

In how many ways can you position 6 into ordered summands? [For exp, 3 can be partitioned into 3 ways as 1 + 2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1] (1) 27 (2) 29 (3) 31 (4) 33

50.

The number of integers n (<20) for which n2 – 3n + 3 is a perfect square is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

51.

For positive x and y, the LCM is 225 and HCF is 15 There. (1) is exactly one such pair (2) are exactly two such pair (3) are exactly three such pair (4) are exactly four such pair

4

4

(4)

In DABC, D is a point on BC such that 3BD = BC. If each side of the triangle is 12 cm, then AD equals

AX equals AB

13

1 5

13

Value of the expression :

11 - 2 30 (1) 30 (3) 1

44.

46.

æ ö 1 - cot f çç ÷÷ è sec f + cos ecf ø

1 5

1

43.

45.

–

3

4

–

7 - 2 10

8+4 3

(2) 2 10 (4) 0

The minumum value of the polynomial p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 is 1 1 (1) – (2) 6 6 1 1 (3) (4) – 12 12 For the equation |x|2 + |x| – 6 = 0 (1) There are four roots (2) The sum of the roots is – 1 (3) The product of the roots is –4 (4) The product of the roots is –6


[27]

52.

In the figure, a semicircle with centre O is drawn on AB. The ratio of the larger shaded area to the smaller shaded area is.

(1)

(3)

4p - 2 3 2p - 2 3 4p - 3 3 2p - 3 3

(2)

(4)

59.

If a,b, c be the 4th, 7th and 10th term of an AP respectively then the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 – 2bx + c = 0 b 2b c+a (1) – (2) – (3) a a a (4) Can not be determined unless some more information is given about the AP

60.

PQRS is a smallest square whose vertices are on respective sides of the square ABCD. The ratio of the area of PQRS to ABCD is

4p - 3 3

(1) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3

3p - 3 3 3p - 2 3 2p - 2 3

53.

In DABC, angle B is obtuse. The smallest circle which covers the triangle is the (1) Circumcircle (2) Circle with AB as diameter (3) Circle with BC as diameter (4) Circle with AC as diameter

54.

Which of the following can be expressed as the sum of square of two positive integers, as well as three positive integers ? (1) 75 (2) 192 (3) 250 (4) 100

55.

If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC such that DAPB, DBPC and DCPA have the same area then P must be (1) in centre of DABC (2) circumcentre of DABC (3) centroid of DABC (4) orthocenter of DABC

56.

If the line segment joining the midpoint of the consecutive side of quadrilateral ABCD form a recatangle then ABCD must be (1) rhombus (2) square (3) kite (4) all of the above

57.

C1 and C2 are two circle in a plane. If N is the total number of common tangent then which of the following is wrong (1) N = 2 when C1 and C2 interset but do not touch (2) N = 4 when C1 and C2 are disjoint (3) when C1 and C2 touch then N must be 3 (4) N can never be more than 4

58.

The side of a triangle are of length 20, 21 and 29 units. The sum of the lengths of altitude will be (1)

1609 units 29

(2) 49 units

(3)

1609 units 21

(4) 40 units

(2) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3

61.

Consider the following events related to the French Revolution and identify the correct chronological response from the options given thereafter: a. Convocation of Estates General b. Storming of the Bastille c. Peasant revolts in the countryside d. Third Estate forms National Assembly (1) a, c, d, b (2) d, b, c, a (3) a, d, b, c (4) b. a, c, d

62.

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: a. The colonies in the Caribbean were important suppliers of tobacco, indigo, sugar and coffee. b. The slave trade began in the 15th century. c. French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the flourishing slave trade. d. Slavery was finally abolished in the French colonies in 1848. (1) a, c, d (2) a, b, d (3) b. c, d (4) b. c, a

63.

Match the List-I with List-II and select the 6: correct response from the options given thereafter: List l I. Liberals II. Radicals Ill. Conservatives IV. Socialists List II a. Government to be based on the majority of country's population b. The past has to be respected and change has to be brought about through a slow process c. Property to be controlled by society as a whole d. Men of property mainly should have the right to vote (1) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d (2) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c (3) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (4) I-d, II-a, IIl-b, IV-c


[28]

64.

65.

66.

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: Nazism became a mass movement after the Great Depression. Statement II; After 1929, banks collapsed and businesses shut down, workers lost their jobs and the middle classes were threatened with destitution. (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (2) Statement II is true and Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

67.

a) Cricket, in Victorian England, was an all season leisure game for aristocrats. b) The captain of the team was traditionally a batsman in Victorian England as amateurs played only as batsmen c) Len Hutton was the first professional Yorkshire batsman to lead the English test team. d) There was a clear social hierarchy between the batsmen and the bowlers in Victorian England.

68.

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: According to the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, nomadic pastoralists were forced to live only in notified village settlements Statement II: Colonial state wanted to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter : List I a) The British government established monopoly in opium trade in Bengal. b) The British government exported 50,000 chests of opium from Bengal annually. c) Opium production in British occupied territories declined rapidly. d) Village headmen started paying peasants for producing opium in advance. List ll 1. 1780s 2. 1820s 3. 1870 4. 1773 (1) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 (3) a-3, b-2, c-1 d-4 (4) a-I, b-2, c-4, d-3

Consider the following statement and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter

(1) a, b and c

(2) a, b and d

(3) a, c, and d

(4) b, c and d

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter : Statement I : Campaign for dress reforms by women started with the development of the suffrage movement. Statement II : Dress reform emphasized differences between men and women and established the status of women as obedient and dutiful. (1) Statement I is false & statement II is true. (2) Statement I is true & statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

69.

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: Schools became an important place for political and cultural battles in Vietnam under the French rule. Statement II: Teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum but sometimes modified the text and criticized what was stated. (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I


[29]

70.

71.

72.

73.

Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: In 1921 as the Non Cooperation movement spread houses of talukdars were looted and merchants were attacked, Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi had declared that tax was not to be paid and land was to be redistributed amongst the poor. (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: In Victorian Britain, the upper classes - the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie preferred things produced by machine. Statement II: Machine goods were mass produced and were easily available. (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter: Statement I: In the 19th century, London was a colossal city. Statement II: London had many large factories. (1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given thereafter: People of depressed classes found it difficult to find housing in Bombay during the late nineteenth century. (1) Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards average space per person. (2) Wages of depressed classes were usually less than that of others. (3) Most people of depressed classes were kept out of chawls. (4) People belonging to the depressed classes had fixed space allotted per family.

74.

Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses given thereafter: In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was passed. (1) Englishmen criticized the printed matter objectionable to the Government. (2) After the Revolt of 1857 the British wanted to clamp down the Indian press. (3) British rule needed to be celebrated by journals and paper . (4) Nationalist newspapers grew in numbers and needed to be controlled.

75.

By the 18th century which of the following commodities were produced on large plantation in America by slave labour and exported to other countries. (1) Grains such as wheat and barley (2) Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges (3) Animal products such as wool and beef (4) Cash crops such as sugar and cotton

76.

My stems are succulent, my leaves are mostly thick In which category of the following vegetation type I am largely found? (1) Tropical deciduous forest (2) Montane forest (3) Tropical thorn forest and scrubs (4) Mangrove forest

77.

78.

The following diagram shows the general land use category in India. Identify the shaded category .

(1) Net sown area

(2) Forest

(3) Current Fallow

(4) Barren and waste land

Assertion (A): Since 1981 growth rate of population in India has started declining gradually Reason (R): Birth rate is declining Select the correct option from the given alternatives (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are false. (3) A is false and R is true. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


[30]

79.

Which of the following diagram shows the approximate relief of India around, 20°N latitude from Daman to Bhubaneswar ?

83.

a. Dyeing and finishing b. Fiber production c. Garment manufacture d. Weaving (1) 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d (2) 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a (3) 1b, 2d, 3a, 4c (4) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c

(1)

(2)

The process of manufacturing of cotton garment is depicted in the following flow diagram. Identify the correct sequence.

84.

Match the fresh water lakes on the map of India (I, ll, III, IV) with their respective names. A. Bhimtal B. Loktak C. Barapani D. Dallake

(3)

(4)

80.

81.

82.

Identify the right pair from the following : Place Source of Energy A. Ennore 1. Nuclear B. Rawat Bhata 2. Thermal C. Kopili 3. Hydor electric D. Naarcoil 4. Wind (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (4) A-2, B-1, C -4, D-3 The peninsular part of India experience peak summers earlier than northern India (1) Due to apparent northward movement of the sun, the global heat belts shift northwards. (2) Cold waves from central Asia weeps through the northern plains during that time. (3) There is less rainfall in the peninsular India during that time. (4) Clouds do not form in those months. National Highway-7 is the longest national highway in India, which traverses between Varanasi and Kanya Kumari. Identify the places on route from North to South. (1) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad - Madurai (2) Jabalpur - Nagpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore - Madurai (3) Jabalpur - Nagpur - Bangalore - Hyderabad Madurai (4) Nagpur - Jabalpur - Hyderabad - Bangalore Madurai

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) A-III, B-I, C-II. D-lV

(2) A-IV, B-Ill, C-II, D-I (4) A-IV, B-Ill, C-I, D·II

85.

A major line of latitude that passes through ~ Mizoram also passes through which one of the following state _______ . (1) Nagaland (2) Odisha (3) Bihar (4) Jharkhand

86.

Observe the following graph of a particular place. It is situated at an altitude of 224 meters above Mean Sea Level and at latitude 26°18'N. Identify the type of natural vegetation most likely to be found in this place (1) Montane forest (2) Mangrove forest (3) Tropical thorn forest (4) Tropical evergreen forest

87.

Identify the state from given names which has all the following characteristics A. Its annual rainfall is 200-400 cm B. Most of the area is covered under with alluvial soil C. Rice is the predominant crop of this state (1) Punjab (2) Assam (3) Odisha (4) TamilNadu

88.

With the help of given map identify the dates of advancing Monsoon in India. (1) I- 1 June -10 June ; III - 15 July (2) I-1 June; II- 10 June ; III - 1 July (3) I- 15 June; II- 15 July; III- 15 August (4) I- 15 July; II- 10 June; III - 1 June


[31]

89.

90.

91.

92.

93.

Match the places with altitude Column I Column II (Altitude in meters above (Place) Mean Sea Level) I. 1461 A. Nagpur II. 6 B. Shillong III. 224 C. Jodhpur IV. 312 D . Kolkata (1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B (2) I-C, lI-A, Ill-B, IV-D (3) I-B, II- D, III-C, IV-A (4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D What as the local time in Tokyo situated at 139°45' East longitude, when the President of India was hoisting the Indian National Flag in the presence of Japanese Prime Minister at 10 a.m. in New Delhi? The viewer in Japan were watching live telecast of this event. (1) 6.11 a.m. (2) 149 a.m. (3) 249 a.m. (4) 149 p.m. The following statements are about democracy in the contemporary world. A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th century. B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout the world. C. All the member states of the International Monetary Fund (lMF) are democracies. D. All the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are democracies. (1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) A, B and D (4) B. C and D Match the following : A. Abraham B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar D. Jawaharlal Nehru (i) How long shall we continue to deny equality in our social and economic life? If we continue to deny it for long, we will do so only by putting our political democracy in peril. (ii) Democracy is 'government of the people, by the people and for the people'. (iii) The service of India means the service of the million who suffer. It means ending of poverty and ignorance: and disease and inequality of opportunity (iv) I shall work for an India in which ... all communities shall live in perfect harmony. There can be no room in such an India for the curse of untouchability. (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV Parliament of India consists of (1) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha (2) President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha (3) Election Commission, Rajya Sabha and LokSabha (4) President, Election Commission. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

94.

Which of the following is not a feature of a non democratic form of government? (1) Majority rule (2) Rights of minorities (3) Universal adult franchise (4) Majoritarianism

95.

Which of the following institutions have reserved seats for women? A. Lok sabha B. Rajya Sabha C. Legislative Assemblies D. Municipalities E. Panchayats (1) A, C, D, E (2) B, C, D, E (3) D and E (4) E only

96.

The following are major changes that occurred in agriculture in the post-Independent India. A. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds B. Introduction of Genetically modified (OM) crops C. Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides D. Organic fanning Which of the above signifies Green Revolution of late 1960s and 1970s? (1) A and B (2) B and (3) A and C (4) B and D

97.

Information relating to which of the following aspects are used to determine the human development in a country? (1) Heath, education and poverty (2) Inequality, health and education (3) Health, education and income (4) Women's health, education and income

98.

A father in a farm produces 100 kg of padd in one acre of land, during every ea. on. One year, his son joined him in farming. Which of the following definitely indicates disguised unemployment ? (1) Output remains at 100 kilograms (2) Output increased to 150 kilograms (3) Output increased to 200 kilograms (4) Output increased to 250 kilograms

99.

How membership in a Self Help Group helps a poor rural woman? (1) Facilitates her how to help herself in daily work. (2) To work together in factories and get regular employment (3) To overcome the problem of lack of collateral as borrowing is based on the group. (4) To get free money from the government.

100.

Though consumers in India has the right to information about the product he/she purchases, which of the following aspects of a product, the producer need not inform the consumer ? (1) Date of production (2) Date of expiry (3) Address of the producer (4) The production process


[32]

Roll No.

NTSE 15_MAT



Max. Marks : 50



2.



3.



[33]


If RESPOND is coded as EMPOTDS and SENSE is coded as FRODT, then CLARIFY will be coded as : (1) EDTOJME (2) ZEJSBMD (3) ZEJQBKD (4) ZDKSBKD

2.

Madhu walks 15 metres towards north, then she turns left at 90° and walk 30 metres, then turns right at 90° and walks 25 metres. How far, she is form the starting point and in which direction ? (1) 55 mt., north -east (2) 50 mt., north-west (3) 60 mt., north (4) 50 mt., west

3.

Five friends A,B,C,D and, E are standing in a row facing south but not necessarily in the same order. Only B is between A and E, C is immediate right to E and, D is immediate left to A. On the bais of above information, which of the following statement is definitely true ? (1) B is to the left of A (2) B is to the right of E (3) A is second to the left of C (4) D is third to the left of E

Direction (Question 4-8) : A, B, C, E, F, G and H are seven employees in an organisation working in the departments of Administration, Accounts and Operations. There are at least two employees in each department. There are three females, one in each department. Each of seven employees earns different amount. The only bearded employee F works in administration and his only other colleague G earns the maximum. C, the least earner works in Accounts. B and E are brothers and do not work in the same department. A, husband of H. works in Accounts and earns more than each of F, B and E. The wife in the couple earns more than the husband. 4.

Which of the following is a group of females : (1) GCE (2) GEH (3) GCH (4) GHB

5.

In which department(s) do three people work ? (1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Operation or Account (4) Data inadequate

6.

What will be position of A from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their income ? (1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth

7.

In which of the following department does B work? (1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Administration (4) Data inadequate

8.

Which of the following statments is definitely true? (1) B earns less than F and H (2) F earns more than B and E (3) B earns more than E and C (4) B earns less than A and H

Direction ( Question 9-11) : Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows : Input : these icons were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the 9.

What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a day, if the input is “four of the following five form a group” ? (1) a five following form four group the of (2) a five following form group the of four (3) a five following form four of the group (4) a five following form four group of the

10.

If the pass code for the Batch IV on a day was ‘back go here people who settle want to’, what was the pass code for the Batch V on that day? (1) back go here people settle who want to (2) back go here people to want settle who (3) back go here people settle to want who (4) cannot be determined

11.

The pass code for the Batch I on a day was 'he so used to sell the surplus items’.What was the input on that day ? (1) items surplus the sell to used so he (2) he items surplus the sell to used so (3) so used to sell the surplus items he (4) cannot be determined

12.

What is the total number of triangeles and total numbers of squares in the give figure ?

(1) 28 triangles, 10 squares (2) 28 triangles, 8 squares (3) 32 triangles, 10 squares (4) 32 triangles, 8 squares


[34]

13.

A cube whose two adjacent faces are coloured is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many of those small cubes are not coloured at all ? (1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 36 (4) 48

14.

If 54/32 =4, 36/42 = 3, 92/22 = 7 then what is 28/ 33 = ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 9

15.

In a certain code language, ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’ ‘ ‘Kop Ja ki ma’ means’ Asha is playing tennis’, ‘ki top sop ho’ menas ‘they are playing football’ ; and ‘ po sur kop’ means ‘cards and tennis’. Which word in this language means ‘Asha’ ? (1) Ja (2) ma (3) kop (4) top

16.

17.

A ship navigating in the Indian Ocean is hit by a sea storm and drifts as follows : 40 km North 28 km north west 36 km west 52 km south and 29 km south east. The ship had finally drifted in...................direction from its original position. (1) South West (2) South (3) West (4) South East Four diagrams marksed A,B,C and D are given below.The one that best illustrates the relationship among three given classes : Women, Teachers, Doctors

(1) A (3) C 18.

19.

21.

Find the number that does not belong to the group : 111,331,482,551,263,383,362,284 (1) 263 (2) 331 (3) 383 (4) 551

22.

Which letter replaces the question mark ?

(1) L (3) P 23.

Certain blank spaces are left in the following sequence.Which is the group of letters given below, will complete the sequence ? c_bba_cab_ac_ab_ac (1) acbcb (2) bcacb (3) babec (4) abebe

24.

A boat starts with the speed of 1km per hour. After every 1km. the speed of boat becomes twice. How much will be the average speed of the boat at the end of journey of 25 km ? (1)

2. 5 1.5125

(2)

2 .5 1 .75

(3)

2.5 1.625

(4)

2 .5 1 .50

25.

Using the total number of alphabets in your solution as a parameter, find the number that represents G if, A-0,B-0,C-2, D-2,E-1,F-2,G (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

26.

Rs.1000 is given to A,B and C in some ratio, A is

(2) B (4) D

wrongly given double and C is wrongly given half, which is Rs. 500 and Rs. 250 repectively.how

Identify the missing number in the following squence 2,17,52,_________,206 (1) 73 (2) 85 (3) 113 (4) 184 Select the missing number

(2) N (4) R

much is given to B ?

27.

(1) 500

(2) 250

(3) 750

(4) None of above

Given that the total cost of 5 erasers, 7 sharpeners and 9 pencils is Rs. 100 and the total cost of 2 ersers, 6 sharpeners and 10 pencils is Rs. 80.What is the total cost (in Rs.) of one eraser, one sharpender and one pencil ? (1)10

(1) 184 (3) 241 20.

(2) 210 (4) 425

Select the missing numbers in the following sequence 3,6,24,30,63,72,?,?,195,210 (1) 117, 123 (2) 120,132 (3) 123,135 (4) 135,144

(2)15 (3) 20 (4) Data are not sufficient


[35]

28.

Renu went to the market betwen 7 am and 8 am.

33.

The angle between the hour-hand and the minurehand was 90º. She returned home between 7 am

source

and 8 am.Then also the angle between the minutehand and hour-hand was 90º. At what time (nearest to second) did Renu leave and return home ? (1)7h 18 m 35 s and 7h 51 m 24 s

Choose the correct mirror-image most closely resembles the word-source, from the four given alternatives.

34.

(2) 7 h 19 m 24 s and 7 h 52 m 14s (3) 7h 20 m 42 s and 7 h 53 m 11 s

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

In the problem figure a unfolded cuboid is given. Choose from the four given alternatives the box that will be formed when problem figure is folded.

(4)7 h 21 m 49 s and 7 h 54 m 33 s 29.

Stimulant : Activity :: ? (1) Symptom : Disease (2) Food : Hunger

(1) 1 only (3) 1,2 and 3 only

(3) Fertilizer : Growth

(2) 1 and 2 only (4) 2 and 3 only

(4) Diagnosis : Treatment 30.

35.

A work can be completed by 40 workers in 40 days. If 5 workers leave every 10 days, in how many days work will be completed ? (1) 55, 66 (2) 56, 44 (3) 56, 66 (4) 58, 66

36.

From among the four alternatives given below, which figure replaces the question mark ?

Choose the missing number form among the four alternatives :

31.

(1)15

(2)20

(3)25

(4)40

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

From among the four alternatives given below, which numbr replaces the question mark ?

32.

(1)9

(2)10

(3)18

(4)23

37.

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows, three persons are sitting in each row E is not at the end of any row D is second to the left of F C, the neighbour of E, is sitting diagonally opposite to D B is the neighbour of F Who are sitting in each column (1) A and D ; E and F ; and B and C (2) A and F ; D and E ; and B and C (3) B and D ; A and C ; and E and F (4) A and D ; B and E ; and F and C

38.

The sum of the incomes of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of incomes of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the incomes of B and D. Whose income is highest ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

From among the four alternatives given below, which letter replaces in the given figure the question mark ?

(1) A (3) S

(2) B (4) Y


[36]

39.

A letter number series is given with one or more terms missing as shown below. Choose the alternative next in the sequence.

44.

A4X, D9U, G16R,.............. (1) K25P (3) J25O 40.

(2) J25P (4) J25C

Study the following information and answer the question given below it : Rohit, Kunal, Ashish and, Ramesh are students of a school. Three of them stay far from the school and one near it. Two studies in class IV, one in class V and one in class VI. They study Hindi, Mathematics, Social Science and Science. one is good at all four subjects while another is weak in all of these. Rohit stay far from the school and is good at mathematics only while Kunal is weak in mathematics only and stay close to the school. Neither of these two nor Ashish studies in class VI. One who is good at all the subjects study in class V. Name the boy who is good at all the subjects. (1) Rohit (3) Kunal

41.

(2) Ramesh (4) Ashish

Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One –third of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true? (1) At least 10 percent villagers who have their own houes are literate. (2) At least 25 percent of the villagers who have their own huses cultivate paddy. (3) At least 50 percent of the villagers who cultivate paddy are below twenty five. (4) At least 1333 percent literate must be below twenty five

42.

A tank is filled by three pipes with each pipe having uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during in which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe ot fill the tank is : (1) 6 hours (3) 15 hours

43.

45.

46.

47.

RINSE (1) = ? + * @ (3) * $ # @ +

(2) % * $ # & (4) $ & # = ?

INTEREST (1) = ? * + % & = * (3) + $ @ + $ = * %

(2) ? # = ? + # * $ (4) @ # * # @ $ % &

48.

How many tourists have visited at least two states? (1) 46 (2) 50 (3) 54 (4) 58

49.

How many tourists have visited only two states ? (1) 46 (2) 50 (3) 54 (4) 96

50.

If BREAKTHROUGH is as EAOUHRBRGHKT, DISTRIBUTION will be coded : (1) STTIBUDIONRI (2) TISTBUONDIRI (3) STTIBUONRIDI (4) RISTTIBUDION

(2) 10 hours (4) 30 hours

(2) 114 (4) 122

The codes do not appear in the same order of the letters in English words. Decode the language and based on these codes identify the code for English word given in each question from the alternatives provided. MINT (1) % = & * (2) = # ? % (3) @%=$ (4) * @ ? +

Direction (Question 48–49) There are three circles in the following diagram. A total number of 100 persons were surveyed and the number in the diagram indicates the number of tourists who visited different states. 46 tourists visited Sikkim and 42 tourists visited Karnataka.

If FEED is coded as 47 and TREE is coed as 91, then MEET will be coded as : (1) 110 (3) 118

One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 am on Friday When did it show the correct time ? (1) 5.00 am on Wednesday (2) 9.00am on Wednesday (3) 5.00 pm on Wednesday (4) 9.00 pm on Wednesday Direction: (Question 45 -47) : A coding language is used to write English words in coded form givenbelow :


[37]

Roll No.

NTSE 15_SAT



Max. Marks : 100




2.



[38]

NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2015 1.

A segment of DNA contains 1200 nucleotides, of which 200 have adenine base. How many cytosine bases are present in this segment of DNA? (1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 400 (4) 800

7.

The gene for hemophilia is present on X chromosome. If a hemophilic male marries a normal female, the probability of their son being hemophilic is (1) Nil (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100%

2.

You are observing a nonchlorophyllous, eukaryotic organism with chitinous cell wall under a microscope. You shall describe the organism as a (1) Fungus. (2) Alga (3) Protozoas (4) Bacterium

8.

Abundance of coliform bacteria in a water body is indicative of pollution from (1) petroleum refinery. (2) metal smelter (3) fertilizer factory (4) domestic sewage.

9.

Prolonged exposure to the fumes released by incomplete combustion of coal may cause death of a human because of (1) Inhalation of unburnt carbon particles. (2) Continuous exposure to high temperature. (3) Increased level of carbon monoxide. (4) Increased level of carbon dioxide.

10.

The phenomenon of normla breathing in a human being comprises (1) An active inspiratory and a passive expiratory phase (2) A passive inspiratory and an active expiratory phase. (3) Both active inspiratory and expiratory phases. (4) Both passive inspiratory and expiratory phases.

11.

Which one of the following statements is true with respect to photosynthesis ? (1) Oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from CO2 (2) Chlorophyll a is the only photosynthetic pigment in plants. (3) Photosynthesis occurs in stem of some plants. (4) Photosynthesis does not occur in red light.

12.

The girth of stem increases due to the activity of (1) Lateral meristem. (2) Apical meristem. (3) Intercalary meristem (4) apical and intercalary meristem.

13.

Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of reflex action ? (1) Receptor ® sensory nerve ® motor nerve ® spinal cord ® muscle (2) Receptor ® motor nerve ® spinal cord ® sensory nerve ® muscle (3) Receptor ® sensory nerve ® spinal cord ® muscle ® motor nerve (4) Receptor ® sensory nerve ® spinal cord ® motor nerve ® muscle

3.

Match the items given in Column A and Column B, and identify the correct alternative listed below. Column-A (a) Flying fish (b) Flying lizard (c) Egg laying mammals (d) Flightless bird

Column B (i) Draco (ii) Echidna (iii) Exocoetus (v) Struthio

(1) (a)-(i), (b)(iii), (c)-(ii), (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) -(ii), (d) - (iv) (3) (a) - (iii), (b) -(i), (c)-(iv) (d) -(ii) (4) (a) -(i), (b)-(iii), (c) -(iv), (d)-(ii) 4.

5.

6.

Which one of the following statements about cell organelles and their funciton is correct ? (1) Mitochondria are associated with anaerobic respiration. (2) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis. (3) Lysosomes are important in membrane biogenesis. (4) Golgi bodies are involved in packaging and dispatching of materials. A leguminous plant grown in an autoclaved, sterilized soild fails to produce root nodules because (1) Autoclaved soil is not good for root growth. (2) Autoclaved soil is devoid of bacteria. (3) Autoclaving reduces N2 content of soil. (4) Plants cannot form root hairs in such a soil. The causative agent of the disease ‘sleeping sickness’ in human beings is an (1) Intracellular parasite found in RBC. (2) Extracellular parasite found in blood plasma (3) Intracellular parasite found in WBC. (4) Extracellular parasite found on the surface of platelets.


[39]

14.

In human female, immature eggs are for the first time seen in ovary (1) At puberty (2) Before birth, at the fetus stage (3) During the first menstrual cycle (4) After the first year birth.

15.

What happens when a fixed amount of oxygen gas is taken in a cylinder and compressed at constant temperature ? (i) Number of collisions of oxygen molecules at per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increases. (ii) Oxygen (O2) gets converted into ozone (O3). (iii) Kinetic energy of the molecules of oxygen gas increases. (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (iii) only (4) (i) only

16.

The solubility of a substance S in water is 28.6% (mass by volume) at 50º C. When 50 mL of its saturated solution at 50ºC is cooled to 40ºC, (2)4 g of solid S separates out.The solubility of S in water at 40ºC (mass by volume) is : (1) (2)4 % (2) 1(1)9% (3) 26.2% (4) 2(3)8%

17.

What mass of CO2 will be formed when 6g of carbon is burnt in 32 g of oxygen ? (1) 38 g (2) 12g (3) 26 g (4) 22 g

18.

The law of conservation of mass is valid for which of the following ? a. Reactions involving oxidation b.Nuclear reactions. c. Endothermic reactions (1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) only

19.

How many sub-atomic particles are present in an a-particle used in Rutherford’s scattering experiment ? No. of protons No. of Neutrons No. of Electrons (1) 4 0 0 (2) 2 0 2 (3) 2 2 0 (4) 2 2 1

20.

22.

A substance A reacts with another substance B to produce the product C and a gas D. If a mixture of the gas D and ammonia is passed through an aqueous solution of C, baking soda is formed. The substances A and B are : (1) HCl and NaOH (2) HCl and Na2CO3 (3) Na and HCl (4) Na2CO3 and H2O

23.

A metal occurs in nature as its ore X which on heating in air converts to Y.Y reacts with unreacted X to give the metal. The metal is : (1) Hg (2) Cu (3) Zn (4) Fe

24.

Assertion (A) : Nitrate ores are rarely available. Reason (R) : Bond dissociation energy of nitrogen is very high. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A. (3) A is correct and R is false (4) Both A and R are False

25.

The number of structural isomers of the compound having molecular formula C4H9Br is : (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 2

26.

The total number of electrons and the number of electrons involved in the formation of various bonds present in one molecule of propanal (C2H5CHO) are respectively : (1) 32 and 20 (2) 24 and 20 (3) 24 and 18 (4) 32 and 18

27.

Consider following as a portion of the periodic table from Group No. 13 to 17. Which of the following statments is are true about the elements shown in it ? I. V, W, X and Z are less electropositive than X. II.V, W, X and Y are more electronegative than Z. III. Atomic size of Y is greater than that of W. IV. Atomic size of W is smaller than that of X.

A certain sample of element Z contains 60% of Z and 40% of 71Z. What is the relative atomic mass of element Z in this sample ? (1) 69.2 (2) 69.8 (3) 70.0 (4) 70.2

69

21.

Compound A on strong heating in a boiling tube gives off reddish brown fumes and a yellow residue. When the aqueous solution of A is treated with a few drops of sodium hydroxide solution, a white precipitate appeared in the compound A. Identify the cation and anion present in the compound A. (1) Copper (II) and nitrate (2) Lead (II) and chloride (3) Zinc and sulphate (4) Lead (II) and nitrate

V W

Z Y

X

(1) I, II and III (3) I and IV 28.

(2) II and III (4) III and IV

A man running with a uniform speed 'u' on a straight road observes a stationary bus at a distance 'd' ahead of him. At that instant, the bus starts with an acceleration 'a'. The condition that he would be able to catch the bus is

u2 a u2 (3) d £ 3a (1) d £

u2 2a u2 (4) d £ 4a (2) d £


[40]

29.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a given velocity 'u' such that it rises for T seconds (T > 1). What is the distance traversed by the ball during the last one second of ascent (in meters)? (Acceleration due to gravity is g m/s(2))

1 2 gT 2 g (3) 2 (1)

30.

(3)

32.

1 g[T 2 - (T - 1) 2 ] 2

1 2 2 (4) g[T - (T - 1) ] 2

The disc of a siren containing 60 holes rotates at a constant speed of 360 rotations per minute. The emitted sound is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency (1) 270 Hz (2) 360 Hz (3) 480 Hz (4) 540 Hz

34.

A tuning fork is excited by striking it with a padded hammer. W hat would be the nature of the vibrations executed by the prongs as well as the stem of the fork respectively ? (The reference direction is that of the propagation of the sound wave.) (1) Both vibrate longitudinally (2) Both vibrate transversely (3) The prong vibrate longitudinally whereas the stem vibrates transversely (4) The prong vibrate transversely whereas the stem vibrates longitudinally

35.

Find the reading of the ammeter in the circuit given below.

The radius of a planet A is twice that of planet B. The average density of the material of planet A is thrice that of planet B. The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of planet A and that on the surface of planet B is (1)

31.

(2) uT +

33.

2 3

4 3

(2)

3 2

(4) 6

A small spherical ball of mass 'm' is used as the bob of a pendulum. The work done by the force of tension on its displacemetn is W 1 The same ball is made to roll on a frictionless table. The work done by the force of normal reaction is W 2 Again the same ball is given a positive charge 'g' and made to travel with a velocity v in a magnetic field B. The work done by the force experienced by the charged ball is W 3 If the displacements in each case are the same, we have (1) W 1 < W 2 < W 3 (2) W 1 > W 2 > W 3 (3) W 1 = W 2 = W 3 (4) that W 1, W 2, W 3 cannot be related by any equation

36.

(1)

V 2R

(2)

3V 4R

(3)

2V 7R

(4)

11V R

Three bulbs with individual power ratings of 12 W, 2 W and 6 W respectively are connected as per the circuit diagram below. Find the amount of heat dissipated by each in 10 seconds.

The variation in the kinetic energy (K.E.) adn the potential energy (P.E.) of a particle moving along the x-axis are shown in the graphs below. Which one of the following graphs violates the law of conservation of energy ?

(1)

(2)

(1) 8 J, 133 J, 4 J (3) 10 J, 0.277 J, 25 J (3)

(4)

37.

(2) 120 J, 20 J, 60 J (4) 12 J, 166 J, 5 J

Which of the following can produce a magnetic field ? (1) Electric charges at rest (2) Electric charges in motion (3) Only by permanent magnets (4) Electric charges whether at rest or in motion


[41]

38.

A wire is lying horizontally in the north-south direction and there is a horizontal magnetic field pointing towards the east. Some positive charges in the wire move north and an equal number of negative charges move south.The direction of force on the wire will be

43.

If the zeros of the polynomial 64x3 – 144 x2 + 92x –15 are in AP, then the difference between the largest and the smallest zeroes of the polynomial is (1) 1

(2)

7 8

3 1 (4) 4 2 x and y are two non-negative numbers such that 2x + y =10. The sum of the maximum and minimum values of (x+y) is (1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 15 (3)

44.

(1) east (3) up, out of the page 39.

(2) down, into the page (4) west

45.

æ æ 1ö 1ö 7çç y + ÷÷ – 2ç y 2 + 2 ÷ = 9 ç yø y ÷ø è è

Match the following : Phenomenon

Reason

(i)

Rainbow

A. Scattering of light

(ii)

Twinkling of stars

B. Dispersion of light

(iii)

Blue colour of sky

C. Fluctuation of the refraction index in atmosphere layers

(iv) Advancement of sunrise and delay of sunset

D.

46.

Refraction of light

(1) (i)-B, (ii)-D, (iii)-A, (iv)-C (2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A, (iv)-D (3) (i)-B, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv) - D (4) (i) - D, (ii)-B, (iii)-A, (iv)-C 40.

41.

42.

A person is suffering from both near sightedness and far sightedness. His spectacles would be made of (1) two convex lenses with the upper lens having a larger focal length than the lower lens. (2) two concave lenses with the upper lens having a smaller focal length than the lower lens. (3) a concave lens as the upper lens and a convex lens as the lower lens (4) a convex lens as the upper lens and a concave lens as the lower lens

47.

48.

LCM of two numbers x and y is 720 and the LCM of numbers 12x and 5y is also 720. The number y is. (1) 180 (2) 144 (3) 120 (4) 90 When a natural number x is divided by 5, the remainder is 2 When a natural number y is divided by 5, the remainder is 4, The remainder is z when 2z - 5 x + y is divided by 5. The value of is 3 (1) –1 (2) 1 (3) –2 (4) 2

The number of integral solution of the equation

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 A circle with area A cm2 is contained in the interior of a larger circle with area (A + B) cm 2 and the radius of the larger circle is 4 cm. If A, B, A + B are in airthmatic progression, then the diameter (in cm) of the smaller circle is : (1)

3 2

(3)

8 3 3

(2)

4 3 3

(4) 2 3

Each of sides of a triangle is 8 cm less than the sum of its other two sides. Area of the triangle (in cm2) is (1) 8

(2) 8 3

(3) 16

(4) 16 3

1 , where x ¹ 0, then the 3 value of cos2 x – sin2 x is If cosec x – cot x =

(1)

16 25

(2)

9 25

8 7 (4) 25 25 A sector with acute central angle q is cut from a circle of diameter 14 cm. The area (in cm2) of the circle circumscribing the sector is : (3)

49.

(1)

22 q sec2q 7 2

(2)

77 sec2q 2

(3)

77 q cos2q 2 2

(4)

77 q sec2 2 2


[42]

50.

51.

52.

53.

54.

In the figure PQSO, is a trapezium in which PQ || OS, ÐPOS = 135° and ÐOSQ = 90° points P, Q and R lie on a circle with centre O and radius 12 cm. The area of the shaded part, in cm2, is 2 (1) 61 7 5 (2) 61 7 5 (3) 73 7 2 (4) 73 7 A solid sphere is cut into identical pieces by three mutually perpendicular plane passing through its centre. Increase in total surface area of all the pieces with respect to the total surface area of the original sphere is (1) 250% (2) 175% (3) 150% (4) 125% A right circular cylinder has its height equal to two times its radius. It is inscribed in a right circular cone having its diameter equal to10 cm and height 12 cm, and the axes of both the cylinder and the cone coincide. Then, the volume (in cm3) of the cylinder is approximately. (1) 107.5 (2) 118.6 (3) 127.5 (4) 128.7

55.

(1) 30° (3) 80° 56.

(2) 1 +

2

(3) 2 2 – 1

(4) 1 +

3

(2) 60° (4) 90°

In the figure, DAPB is formed by three tangents to the circle with centre O. If ÐAPB = 40°, then the measure of ÐBOA is :

(1) 50° (3) 60°

(2) 55° (4) 70°

57.

(5, –10), (–15, 15) and (5,5) are the coordinates of vertices A, B and C respectively of DABC and P is a point on median AD such that AP : PD = 2 : 3 Ratio of the areas of the triangle PBC and ABC (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 5

58.

P is a point on the graph of y = 5x + 3 The coordinates of a point Q are (3, –2). If M is the mid point of PQ, then M must lie on the line represented by : (1) y = 5x + 1 (2) y = 5x – 7

In the figure, ABCD is a square of side 1 dm and ÐPAQ = 45°. The perimeter (in dm) of the triangle PQC is

(1) 2

In the figure, BC is a chord of the circle with centre O arc A is a point on the minor arc BC. Then ÐBAC – ÐOBC is equal to

5 7 5 1 x– (4) y = x + 2 2 2 2 Three - digit number formed by using digits 0, 1,2 and 5 (without repetition) are written on different slip with distinct number on each slip, and put in a bowl. One slip is drawn at random from the bowl. The probability that the slip bears a number divisible by 5 is : (3) y =

59.

In the figure, ABC is a triangle in which AD bisects ÐA, AC = BC, ÐB = 72° and CD = 1 cm, Length of BD (in cm) is (1) 1

5 4 (2) 9 9 2 1 (3) (4) 3 3 The mean of fifteen different natural numbers is 13 The maximum value for the second largest of these numbers is : (1) 46 (2) 51 (3) 52 (4) 53 (1)

1 (2) 2 (3)

5 -1 2

(4)

3 +1 2

60.


[43]

61.

Assertion (A) : During eighteenth century France witnessed the emergence of a middle class. Reason (R): The emergence of the middle class happened on account of royal patronage. (1) A is true, R is false. (2) A is false, R is true. (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

62.

Assertion (A) : The lives of pastoralists in , India underwent dramatic changes under colonial rule. Reason (R): In most areas the lands regularly used by pastoralists for grazing were taken over by the colonial state and given to select individuals for cultivation. (1) A is true, R is false. (2) A is false, R is true. (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

63.

Assertion (A) : By the early twentieth century, America became the biggest supplier of wheat to Europe. Reason (R): The expansion of the railways during the period greatly facilitated the transport of grain. (1) A is true, R is false. (2) A is false, R is true. (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

64)

Match the following table and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter. Column-I Column-II A. 1910 I. Establishment of Tonkin Free School. B. 1930 II. Formation of French Indo-China. C. 1907 III. Completion of the Trans-China rail network. D. 1887 IV. Formation of the Vietnamese Communist Party.

65.

Arrange the following Indian novels in accordance with their year of writing/publication a. Indulekha b. Rajasekhara Caritramu c. Yamuna Paryatan d. Pariksha-Guru (1) c, b. d, a (2) a, d. b, c (3) c, d. b, a (4) a, b. d, c

66.

The main tenets of April Theses during the Bolshevik Revolution were: (1) Closing the war, shifting of banks, land pooling by government. (2) Formation of labour government, bank nationalisation and land distribution. (3) Communist government, land fragmentation and merger of banks. (4) Ending the war, bank nationalisation and land transfer.

67.

Mahatma Gandhi changed his dressing style from Western to Indian over a period of time. Match those changes as given in Column-I and Column-II and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter. Column-I Column-II A. Suit I. 1915 B. Lungi-Kurta II. 1890 C. Peasant Dress III. 1921 D. Short Dhoti IV. 1913 (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

68.

In late 19th and early 20th centuries, nationalism captured the imagination of the Indian people through a variety of cultural processes. Which of the following was not a part of those processes? (1) Rewriting history to show India's continuous progress from the ancient to the modern times. (2) Creation of different images of Bharat Mata. (3) Recording, collection and publication of folk tales and folk songs. (4) Designing flags as inspiring symbols of nationalism.

69.

Choose the correct response from the given options. Nomadic people move over long distances because (1) They do not like to settle down in anyone place. (2) They constantly look for good pasture land for their cattle. (3) They follow a life style which is very different from the settled communities. (4) Economically they are very poor to own land.

70.

Choose the correct response from the given options. In 19th century England grain production grew as quickly as the population because (1) Farmers used simple agricultural technology to greater effect. (2) Radical innovations were made in agricultural technology. (3) Larger and larger areas were brought under cultivation. (4) Increasing number of poor people found work as agricultural labourers.


[44]

71.

Choose the correct response from the given options. By the late 19th century Indians began searching for a national dress because they wanted to (1) Show that in terms of dress they were not inferior to the British . (2) Get rid of the blame of blindly aping the west (3) Define the cultural identity of the nation. (4) Culturally synthesize the traditions of the East and the West.

76.

Assertion (A) : The EI Nino, a cold ocean current flows along the coast of Peru during Christmas. Reason (R) : The presence of the EI Nino leads to an increase in sea - surface temperatures and weakening of the trade winds in the regions. (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) A is true and R is false. (4) A is false and R is true.

72.

Choose the correct response from the given options. The unification of Germany in 1871, for a change, demonstrated (1) The triumph of the democratic aspirations of the German middle-class. (2) The fulfillment of the liberal initiative to nationbuilding. (3) The power of the common people, das volk. (4) The dominance of the state power and conservatives' success in mobilising nationalist sentiments.

77.

Assertion (A): Air temperature decreases from the equator toward the poles. Reason (R) : As one move from the sea level to higher altitude, the atmosphere become less dense and temperature decreases. (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (2) Both A and R are true but R doe not explain A. (3) A is true and R is false. (4) A is false and R is true.

78.

Match List-I (local name of shifting cultivation) with List-II (States/Region) and elect the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (local name of List-II (States/Region) shifting cultivation) A. Dahiya I. Jharkhand B. Kumari II. Madhya Pradesh C. Bringa III. Odisha D. Kuruwa IV. Western Ghats (1) A-III. B-IV, C-lI, D-I (2) A-II. B-IV, C-III, D-I (3) A-I. B-III, C-IV, D-1I (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III. D-II

79.

Assertion (A): Most nuclear power stations in India have been constructed near sources of water. Reason (R): Nuclear power stations require a great quantity of water for cooling purposes. (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) A is true and R is false. (4) A is false and R is true.

80.

Assertion(A) : Peninsula rocks contain many reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals. Reason (R) : Sedimentary rocks on the western and eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the famous minerals. (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) A is true and R is false (4) A is false and R is true

81.

Which one of the following states has common bounders with the least number of countries. (1) Uttarakhand (2) West Bengal (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Sikkim

73.

74.

75.

Choose the correct response from the given options. The formation of the 'United Kingdom of Great Britain' in 1707 meant, in effect, (1) Equal representation of all the British Isles in the British Parliament. (2) Recognition to the ethnic identities of the Welsh, the Scot and the lrish. (3) The cessation of conflicts between the Catholics and the Protestants. (4) The dominance of England on Scotland through the English supremacy in Parliament. Choose the correct response from the given options. Many within the Congress were initially opposed to the idea of non-cooperation because (1) They did not think that British rule in India would collapse if Indians refused to cooperate. (2) They were not yet sure of Gandhiji's ability to successfully lead a nationwide movement (3) They were reluctant to boycott the council election scheduled for November 1920. (4) They did not agree with Gandhiji's proposal to carry the movement forward in stages. Choose the correct response from the given options. The main reason why the Society of Revolutionary and Republican Women was set up during the French Revolution was because (1) Women wanted laws that would help improve their lives. (2) Women wanted the same political rights as men. (3) Women wanted their interests to be properly represented in the new government. (4) Women wanted access to education, training for jobs, and wages on par with men.


[45]

82.

Match List - 1(Rivers) with List -II (National Waterways) and select the correct answer using the code given below : List-I (Rivers)

84.

85.

86.

Arrange these hills from west to east direction. A. Khasi hills B. Garo hills C. Naga hills D. Jaintia Range (1) C,A,B,D (2) D, B, A, C (3) A, B, C, D (4) B, A, D, C

88.

Assertion (A): The Earth does not receive an equal amount of solar energy at all latitudes. Reason (R): As one goes from low altitude to high altitude temperature decreases because atmosphere becomes less dense. (1) Both A and R are true and R explains A. (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) A is true and R is false. (4) A is false and R is true.

89.

Match the vegetation zones in Column-I with the associated mean annual average temperature (in degree Celsius) in Column-II Column - I Column–II A. Tropical I. 17°C to 24°C, B. Sub-tropical II. above 24°C C. Temperate III. 7°C to 17°C D. Alpine IV. Below 7°C (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

90.

Match the given crops with their major producing areas shown on the map of India.

List-II (National Waterways)

A.

Ganga

I.

National Waterway No.4

B.

Brahmaputra

II.


C.

Godavari and Krishna III.


D.

Mahandi and Brahmani


IV.

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 83.

87.

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II B (Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below List-I (Rivers) List-II (Tributaries ) A. Godavari I. Lohit B. Ganga II. Koyana C. Krishna III. Wainganga D. Brahamputra IV. Son (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II Arrange these hill ranges from north to south direction I. Zaskar Range II. Shiwalik Range III. Karakoram Range IV. Ladakh Range l. III. IV. I. II (2) Ill. I. IV. II (3) I. II. Ill. IV (4) IV. III. I. II Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II Origin and select the correct answer using the codes given below List-l (Rivers) List-II (Origin) A. Godavari I. Cardamom hills B. Krishna II. Amarkantak Hills C. Narmada III. Nasik Hills D. Vaigai IV. Mahabaleshwar (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV Assertion (A): In India, most migrations have been from rural to urban areas Reason (R): The urban areas offer greater employment opportunities and better living condition. (1) Both and R are true and R explains A. (2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A. (3) A is true and R is false. (4) A is false and.R is true.

A. Wheat C. Rice (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

B. Coffee D. Tea (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

91.

Which of the following statement is/are true about federal system? a. All federations have a similar scheme of distribution of powers. b. The origins of different federations are dissimilar. c. Federalism promotes unity at the cost of diversity. d. Federalism promotes unity in diversity. (1) Only b (2) a and c (3) b and d (4) a. b and c

92.

I do not contest elections. but 1 try to influence the political process. I have a specific policy agenda. I have no interest in seeking political power. Who am I ? (1) Bureaucracy (2) Court (3) Pressure group (4) Media


[46]

93.

Which of the following statement’s is/are true ? a. India is among the bottom group of nations in the world when it comes to the representation of women in legislatures. b. Women in the Arab countries are most active in public life. c. India has lesser representation of women in legislatures as compared to Sub-Saharan Africa. d. The share of women in legislative assemblies in India is lower than that of their representation in Parliament. (1) a and b (2) b and c (3) a, b and d (4) a, c and d

94.

Which of the following issues has been most successfully addressed by the Indian democracy? (1) Social inequality (2) Economic inequality (3) Political inequality (4) Natural inequality

95.

Match List 1 (Leaders) with List II (Political parties) and select the answer using the codes given below. List - I List-II I. E.M.S. Namboodiripad a. Bahujan Samaj Party II. Sheikh Abdullah b. Telugu Desam III. N.T. Rama Rao c. Communist Party of India (Marxist) IV. Kanshi Ram d. Jammu & Kashmir National conference (1) I-c , II-d, III-a, IV-b (2) I-b , II-d, III-c, IV-a (3) I-b , II-c, III-a, IV-d (4) I-c , II-d, III-b, IV-a

96.

Economic growth is growth in ___________. (1) value of total output (2) value of total investment (3) value of industrial output (4) value added of all sectors.

97.

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act aims at providing (1) employment to rural people in government offices. (2) 200 days of work/year in rural areas. (3) 100 days of wage employment in a year to rural households (4) 365 days work in rural areas.

98.

A landless worker in a village takes a kind loan of two bags of rice form the village landlord. The condition is that she will repay the loan in two and half bags of rice at the end of one year. The interest paid equals _________ (1) the difference between the money value of rice between now and at the end of the year. (2) 3125 percent of the original amount of loan. (3) 25 percent of the original amount of loan (4) the difference between the rates of interest charged by banks between beginning and at the end of the year. Non-marker activity is ___________. (1) a state of unemployment. (2) producing for self consumption. (3) selling the products nearby temples. (4) selling the products through the Regulated Market.

99.

100.

A typical farmer’s capital includes tractor, turbines, plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand. Which of these combinations can be classified as working capital ? (1) Tractor, turbines and plough (2) Seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand (3) Plough, seeds, fertilisers and pesticides (4) Plough, seeds, fertilisers, pesticides and cash in hand


[47]

Roll No.

NTSE 16_MAT



Max. Marks : 50



2.



3.



[48]

NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY PAPER-2016 Q.1

Complete the series : D3Y104, G9U91, J27Q78, M81M65 (1) P243139 (2) Q243152 (3) P243152 (4) Q162J39

Q.2

Which of the following can replace the question mark?’

0.8

0.512

0.04

?

(1) 0.0064 (3) 0.000064

(2) 0.0016 (4) 0.000016

Statements : All teachers are professors No professor is male Some males are designers Conclusion : I No designer is professor II Some designers are professors III No male is teacher (1) Only III follows (2) Both I and II follows (3) Either I or II follows (4) Either I and III follows; or II and III follows Q.8

Direction : (Q.3 to Q.5) There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a circular table facing centre. B is sitting second to the left of G who is sitting third to the right of F. Only E is sitting between A and C. C is sitting third to the left of B. Only one person is sitting between E and H. Q.3

Q.4

(A)

Based on the given information, which of the following is the correct position? (1) A and C are sitting next to each other (2) F and G are sitting next to each other (3) H and F are sitting third next to each other (4) D is sitting next to H Which of the following is the correct order of sitting of persons right of A? (1) E C H D G B F (2) E C H F B D G (3) E B H D C F G (4) C H B E D G F

Q.6

Amita is standing at Point A facing north direction. She walks for 5 kilometers In the north-east direction. Then she turns at an angle of 90° at her right and once again travels the same distance. She reaches at Point B. Now she takes a turn at 90° to her left and walks for 3 kilometres and once again takes right turn at 90° and travels 3 kilometres and reaches at Point C. What is the direction of Point B and C respectively with respect to point A? (1) East, East (2) East, North-East (3) North-East, East (4) North-East, North-East

Q.7

?

Which of the following is correct? (1) D is sitting third to the left of H (2) F is sitting third to the left of G (3) C is sitting to the left of D (4) H is sitting second to the right of C

Q.5

In the question given below, there are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

In the following questions, there are four figures A, B, C and D called problem figures. A and b are related in the same way as C and D are related. Which figure out of four given options will come in place of figure C?

Q.9

(B)

(C)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(D)

In the following figure, square represents professors, circle represents males, triangle represents cricketers and rectangle represents trainers. A B K G J I F

D C H E

On the basis of information given in the above diagram, which of the following is correct? (1) C represent male professors who are cricketers (2) I represents male trainers who play cricket (3) B represent males professors who are trainers (4) F represents male trainers who are not cricketers Direction : (Q.10 to Q.12) Five periods of Hindi. English, Science. Mathematics and Sanskrit are to be taken by five different teachers A, B, C, D and E in five different periods. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Each teacher will teach only one subject and takes only one period.


[49]

Science is not the 3rd period 5th period is taken by D who doest not teach Hindi or Sanskrit A takes 3rd period. The one who teaches Sanskrit takes 4th period. There are two periods after and two periods before Mathematics period. Hindi period is between Science and Mathematics period. B teachers Science. E takes period just before D’s period. After reading the above information, answer the following questions. Q.10

Which of the following is the correct sequence of subject-period-teacher ? (1) Mathematics-3-D (2) Sanskrit-4-E (3) Mathematics-2-A (4) Hindi-2-E

Q.12

The subject taught by teachers A, B, C, D and E respectively are (1) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, Sanskrit, English (2) Mathematics, Science, English, Hindi, Sanskrit (3) Mathematics, Hindi, English, Sanskrit, Science (4) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, English, Sanskrit

Direction : (Q.17 to Q.18) Pritam, Zeba, Joy and Anu were assigned duties in the English language alphabetical order of their names. Only one of them is assigned a duty on a day. This assignment is repeated in the same sequence. Working week starts from Monday and ends of Friday. Answer the following: Q.17

Who worked for least number of days and for how many days if the duties are assigned for 3 weeks? (1) Anu, 3 days (2) Anu, 4 days (3) Zeba, 3 days (4) Zeba, 4 days

Q.18

Who were assigned duties on Wednesday in 1st, 2nd and 3rd weeks respectively? (1) Pritam,. Zeba, Anu (2) Pritam, Anu, Zeba (3) Pritam, Joy, Anu (4) Joy, Zeba, Anu

Q.19

In a showroom, 60 per cent discount is given to everybody on all the articles. The successive discount of 40 per cent is offered to female students. If printed price of an article of Rs 1000/ - is bought by a female student, how much she will have to pay for that article? (1) Inconclusive (2) Zero (3) Rs 160/(4) Rs 240/-

Q.20

From among the four alternatives given below, which number replaces the question mark?

A cuboid is painted in 6 colours, i.e. red, green, blue, yellow, orange and black, one colour on each side. Three position are shown below :

Q.15

If × stands for +, ¸ stands for –, + stands for ¸ and – stands for ×, then what is the value of the following expression? ¸ 33 × 11 ¸ 9 × 28 + 4 – 5 (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2 If REASON is coded as PGYUMP, then DIRECT will be coded as? (1) BKPGAV (2) FKTGEV (3) FGTCER (4) BGPCAR

1 time the present age 2

of C. If C is 12 years old at present, what is the present age of husband’s friend Ram who is 15 years younger than husband (him)? (1) 30 years (2) 50 years (3) 60 years (4) 80 years

What is the colour of the side having question mark? (1) Red (2) Yellow (3) Green (4) Blue Q.14

Read the information carefully and answer the following question: A family has husband, wife and three children A, B and C. The present age of husband is 5 years more than the wife’s present age. Wife’s present age is twice the present age of A. The present age of A is 12 years more than the present age of B. B’s present age is 1

Who teaches Hindi and in which period? (1) C teaches Hind in 2nd period (2) E teaches Hindi in 1st period (3) C teaches Hindi in 4th period (4) Data is inadequate

Q.11

Q.13

Q.16

4 5 2 5

= 13

6 4 7 2

= 15

9 3 4 5

= 18

8 3 4 6

=?

(1) 11 (3) 16 Q.21

(2) 14 (4)17

Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation among men, father and teachers? (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


[50]

Q.22

Guitar : Music : : Book : ? (1) Pages (2) Writer (3) Publisher (4) Knowledge

Q.23

Reena, Rita and Zoha are three friends. Reena is the eldest followed by Rita and Zoha. Reena is 2 years elder to Rita and 5 years elder to Zoha. The sum of the present age of Reena and Zoha is 3 times the age of Rita 5 years ago. What is the current age of Rita? (1) 12 years (2) 14 years (3) 16 years (4) 18 yeras Direction (Q.24 to Q.26) : Lata was cutting a cuboid –shaped cake at her birthday party which has 12 inches length, 8 inches breadth and 2 inches height. Two faces measuring 8 inches length × 2 inches are coated with chocolate cream. Two faces measuring 12 inches × 2 inches are coated with vanilla cream. Two faces measuring 12 inches × 8 inches are coated with butter scotch cream. The cake is cut into 24 cubes of size, 2 inches each side.

Q.24

How many cake pieces are there which have only two types of coatings of cream (any two out of chocolate, vanilla and butter scotch)? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16

Q.25

How many cake pieces will have only one type of coating of cream? (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 20

Q.26

Kasim, Rajni, Pema and Gurpreet loved the chocolate cream and they decided to take all pieces with chocolate coating for them. How many cake pieces will be available for others? (1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 20

Q.27

Q.28

During her morning walk in the park, Tanya saw Monica coming from the opposite direction. They greeted each other and had a face-to-face chatting. If Monica’s shadow was to the right of Tanya, then which direction was Monica facing? (1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South Given below is a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements carefully and give the answer. Question : A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, not in that order. A is sitting next to E. Is E sitting between A and C? Statements : I. B and D are sitting at the two ends of the row. II. C is not sitting next to A. (1) I along is sufficient (2) II alone is sufficient (3) Both I and II together are sufficient (4) Both I and II together are not sufficient

Q.29

A person need to find the fastest two horses from 16 horses. Only a race of 4 horses can be conducted at a time. What is the minimum number of races to be conducted to determine the fastest two? Assume that horses will not get tired at all, and time cannot be measured. (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 15

Q.30

Which letter replaces the question mark? bcegk?qs (1) 1 (2) m (3) n (4) o

Q.31

From among the four alternative given below, which figure replaces the question mark?

Q.32

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

How many points will be on the face opposite to the face which contains 2 points.

(1) 1 (3) 4

(2) 5 (4) 6

Q.33

Identify the missing number in the following sequence 2, 10, 30, 68, _______, (1) 120 (2) 130 (3) 134 (4) 150

Q.34

A + B means A is the daughter of B, A × B means A is the son of B and A – B means A is the wife of B. If T–S × B – M, which of the following is NOT true? (1) M is the husband of B (2) B is the mother of S (3) S is the daughter of B (4) T is the wife of S

Q.35

In the question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider every given statements as true, even if it does not conform to the well-known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can be logically derived from the given statement.


[51]

Statements : All frogs are snakes Some snakes are birds All birds are apples Conclusions : I. Some apples are frog II. No apple is a frog III. Some snakes are apples IV. All birds are snakes (1) Either I or II ; and III follows (2) III and IV follows (3) Either I or II follows (4) Either I or II; and either III or IV follows Q.36

In the following sequence, one number is wrong. Find the wrong number. 9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643 (1) 23 (2) 51 (3) 106 (4) 219

Q.37

Which option shows the correct water image of the characters given below. SUPE2547DLR (1) (2) (3) (4)

Q.38

Ronald is elder to Veena while Amilia and Shree are elder to Parul who lies between Ronald and Amilia. If Amilia is elder to Veena, then which one of the following statements is necessarily true? (1) Ronald is elder to Amilia (2) Amilia is elder to Shree (3) Parul is elder to Shree (4) Parul is elder to Veena

Q.39

In the following question, a matrix of certain numbers is given. These numbers follow a certain trend, either row-wise or column-wise. Find this trend and choose the missing number from the given alternatives

(1) 20 (3) 89 Q.40

(2) 43 (4) 96

Q.41

A wall clock is placed in a room. It chimes 8 times at 8 o’clock. A person “X” present outside the room listens the 8 beats of chimes in 8 seconds. Assume that each chime of the wall clock takes equal time. To listen 11 chimes at 11 o’ clock how much time will be required by person “X” (1) 11 seconds (2) 11.43 seconds (3) 12 seconds (4) 12.43 seconds

Q.42

A geometrical design has been drawn below. Find out the total number of quadrilaterals.

(1) 8 (3) 11

Direction (Questions 43-45) Study the following information and answer the questions given below it : Six boy Prem, Kamal, Ramesh, Shyam, Tarun and Umesh go to University Sports Centre and play a different game of football, cricket, tennis, kabaddi, squash and volleyball. A. Tarun is taller than Prem and Shyam B. The tallest among them plays kabaddi C. The shortest one plays volleyball D. Kamal and Shyam neither play volleyball nor kabaddi E. Ramesh plays volleyball F. If all six boys stand in order of their height then Tarun is in between Kamal and Prem ; and Tarun plays football Q.43

Who among them play kabaddi? (1) Kamal (2) Ramesh (3) Shyam (4) Umesh

Q.44

Who will be at fourth place if they are arranged in the descending order of their heights? (1) Prem (2) Kamal (3) Tarun (4) Shyam

Q.45

Who plays tennis? (1) Kamal (3) Tarun

The figure given below is the unfolded position of a cubical dice. Select the option figure which is same as the figure, when it is folded.

Q.46 (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(2) 10 (4) 12

(2) Prem (4) Information insufficient

What comes next in the following sequence of codes? 1218199, 1006480, 814963, 643648 ________ (1) 366478 (2) 1442560 (3) 492535 (4) 253634


[52]

Q.47

What value replaces the question mark?

Q.49

A work is expected to be completed by 20 workers in 25 days. The work is started by 10 workers. Then, after every 5 days, 5 more workers join the work. In how many days the work will be completed? (1) 20 (3) 30

Q. 48

(1) 18

(2) 24

(3) 36

(4) 45

Q.50

A coding language writes English words in the coded form as : S TAT qdqg S A Y egd

RAT

dqb

(2) 25 (4) 35

Find the maximum length of a rod with negligible thickness which can be fitted into a cubical box of 1 meter length of each side. (1)

2

(3) 3

(2)

2.25

(4) 2

The code does not appear in the same order of the letters in the English words. On this basis, which of the following will be the code of the word T R A Y? (1) e b q g (2) b g d e (3) b q d e (4) q d g e


[53]

Roll No.

NTSE 16_SAT



Max. Marks : 100




2.



[54]

NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2016 Q.1

Suppose a mutant of a photosynthetic alga has dysfunctional mitochondria. It would affect its ability to perform – (1) Glycolysis (2) Anascrobic respiration (3) Aerobic respiration (4) Photosynthesis

Q.2

Cow has a special stomach as compared to that of lion in order to – (1) Absorb food in better manner (2) Digest cellulose present in the food (3) Assimilate food in a better way (4) Absorb large amount of water

Q.3

Q.4

When touched, the leaflets of Touch-me-not plant are closed. Closing of leaflets starts form the point of contact to the leaflets away. The leaflets are closed due to – (1) Changer in turgor pressure (2) Speciliazed proteins (3) Growth hormone retardation (4) Capillary action Pancreas is composed of (1) Only exocrine cells (2) Only endocrine cells (3) Both (4) Nephron

Q.5

The human embryo gets nutrition form the mother blood with the help of a special organ called – (1) Zygote (2) Ovary (3) Oviduct (4) Placenta

Q.6

Hormones produced in one part of the organism reach the distantly located target via – (1) Muscles (2) Bone (3) Cartilage (4) Blood

Q.7

Q.8

Which of the following are characteristic features of cells of meristematic tissue ? (1) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thick cell all and prominent nuclei (2) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall and no vacuoles (3) Actively dividing cells with little cytoplasm, thin cell wall and prominent nuclei (4) Actively dividing cells with thin cytoplasm, then cell wall and no vacuoles Which one of the following animals is different from others is not having the parried gill pouches? (1) Whale (2) Water snake (3) Star fish (4) Sea horse

Q.9

In the symbiotic relationship between a bacterium and a root of legume the – (1) Bacteria provide N2 and the plant roots provide Carbon (2) Roots provide NH4 and bacterial provide Carbon (3) Bacteria provide NH4 and the roots provide Carbon (4) Bacteria provide N2 and the roots provide NH4

Q.10

Which of the following is a result of biological magnification ? (1) Top level predators may be most harmed by toxic chemicals in environment (2) Increase in carbon dioxide (3) The green-house effect will be most significant at the poles (4) Energy is lost at each tropic level of a food chain

Q.11

Which one of the following signifies ex-situ conservation ? (1) National parks and Biosphere reserves (2) Wild animals in their natural habitats (3) Inhabitants of natural ecosystems (4) Conservation methods practiced in Zoo and Botanical garden

Q.12

What is the main reason for increase in temperature in a glass house ? (1) Sunlight is completely absorbed by plants in the glass house (2) Radiation fails to escape from the glass house completely (3) Plants do not utilize sunlight in a glass house (4) Plants produce heat inside the glass house

Q.13

Match the items in column I with those in column II, and select the correct choice. Column-I Column-II A. Smalls pox I. Bacteria B. Cholera II. Virus C. Malaria III. Deficiency of minerals D. Anaemia IV. Female mosquito (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II In the experiment conducted by Mendel, RRyy (round, green) and rrYY (wrinkled, yellow) seeds of pea plant were used. In the F2 generation 240 progeny were produced, out of which 15 progeny had specific characteristics. What were the characteristics ? (1) Round and green (2) Round and yellow (3) Wrinkle and yellow (4) Wrinkle and green

Q.14


[55]

Q.15

Total number of neutrons in five moles of water molecule is – (1) 3.011 × 1021 (2) 2.409 × 1025 25 (3) 3.111 × 10 (4) 2.711 × 1025

Q.16

The metal used to recover copper from an aqueous solution of copper sulphate is (1) Na (2) Ag (3) Hg (4) Fe

Q.17

Four substances were thoroughly mixed with water separately to obtain mixtures A, B, C and D. Some of their properties are given below : I. Path of a beam of light passing through it was visible in A, B and D but invisible in C. II. On leaving undisturbed, the particles of the substance settle down in A but not in B, C and D. III. The solute particles are visible to naked eye in A but invisible in B, C and D Which of the following is correct about A, B, C and D ? (1) A, B and D are colloids. C is a solution (2) A is a suspension. B and D are colloids. C is a solution (3) A is a colloid. B, C and D are solutions (4) A is a suspension. B, C and D are colloids

Q.18

Q.19

Q.20

Assertion (A) : Aluminum foil cannot be used in a-particle scattering experiment. Reason (R) : Aluminum highly malleable metal. (1) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct reason for A (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A. (3) A is correct and R is incorrect (4) A is incorrect and R is correct. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper before making to burn. The reason of rubbing the ribbon is to (1) Remove moisture condensed over the surface of ribbon (2) Generate heat due to exothermic reaction (3) Remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium (4) Mix silicon from sand paper (silicon dioxide) with magnesium for lowering ignition temperature of the ribbon The reaction that differs from the rest of the reactions given is – (1) formation of calcium oxide form limestone (2) Formation of aluminum from aluminum oxide (3) Formation of sodium carbonate forum sodium hydrogen carbonate (4) Formation of mercury from mercuric oxide

Q.21

An element X reacts with dilute. H2SO4as well as with NaOH to produce salt and H2(g)./ Hence, it may be concluded that – I. X is an electropositive element II. oxide of X is basic in nature III. oxide of X is acidic in nature IV. X is an electronegative element (1) I, II, III (2) IV, I, II (3) III, IV, I (4) II, III, IV

Q.22

An element X has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 and another element Y has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7. They form a compound Z. The property that is not exhibited by Z is – (1) It has high melting point (2) It is a good conductor of electricity in its pure solid state (3) It breaks into pieces when beaten with hammer (4) It is soluble in water

Q.23

The compound containing both ionic and covalent bond is – (1) AlBr3 (2) CaO (3) MgCl2 (4) NH4Cl

Q.24

The element that cannot be used as a reducing agent is – (1) carbon (2) aluminum (3) sulphur (4) sodium

Q.25

Somebody wanted to calculate the number of moles of oxygen atoms comprising of 9.033 × 1023 number of its atoms. The person further thought to calculate its mass and to find the number of moles of hydrogen atoms required to combined completely with this amount of oxygen to form water. The number of moles of oxygen atoms, their mass (in grams) and the number of moles of hydrogen atoms are (1) 1.5, 3 and 24 respectively (2) 15, 18 and 3 respectively (3) 0.15, 27, 3 respectively (4) 1.5,2 5 and 3 respectively

Q.26

The molecular formula of carboxylic acid that differs from the rest is (1) C13H20O2 (2) C2H2O2 (3) C9H18O2 (4) C7H12O2

Q.27

Foam of soap always appears white as – (1) it contains large hydrocarbon chains (2) it absorbs red portion of the visible light (3) it reflects light of all wavelengths (4) it has one hydrophobic end, which is insoluble in water


[56]

Q.28

In a neon gas discharge tube, every second 4.8 × 1018 Ne+ ions move towards the right through a cross-section of the tube, while ‘n’ electrons move to the left in the same time. If the current in the tube is 1.12. Amperes towards the right, n is equal to (given e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb) (1) 1.8 × 1018 (2) 2.2 × 1018 19 (3) 2.4 × 10 (4) 2.8 × 1919

Q.29

Four situations are given below : I. An infinitely long wire carrying current II. A rectangular loop carrying current III. A solenoid of finite length carrying current IV. A circular loop carrying current In which of the above cases will the magnetic field produced be like that of a bar magnet ? (1) I (2) I and III (3) Only III (4) Only IV

Q.30

Q.32

A ray of light in air is incident on an equilateral glass prism at an angle qi to the normal. After refraction, the light travelled parallel to the base of prism and emerged in air at an angle qe to the normal. If the angle between the incident and the emergent ray is 60º, then the refractive index of glass with respect to air is – (1) 1.33 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.73 (4) 1.66

Q.34

You are standing on the shore of a lake. You spot a fish swimming below the lake surface. You want to kill the fish first by throwing a spear and next, by pointing a high-power laser torch. How should you aim the spear and torch, respectively, from the options given below : I. above the apparent position of the fish II. below the apparent position of the fish III. directly at the apparent position of the fish (1) SPEAR : II ; LASER : III (2) SPEAR : I ; LASER : II (3) SPEAR : II ; LASER : II (4) SPEAR : III ; LASER : III

Q.35

A beam of light coming from a rarer medium is partially reflected form the surface of a denser medium and partially refracted into the denser medium. If the reflected and the refracted rays are perpendicular to each other and the ratio of the refractive indices of denser and rarer medium

In the circuit diagram shown below. VA and VB are the potentials at points A and B respectively. Then, VA – VB is –

(1) –10V (3) 0V Q.31

Q.33

is 3 . The angle of refraction will be (1) 60º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 41.5º

(2) –20V (4) 10 V

Assertion (A) : Motion of a charged particle under the action of a magnetic field alone is always with constant speed. Reason (R) : The magnetic force does not have any component either along or opposite to the direction of motion of the charged particles. (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (3) Assertion is a true statement, but reason is false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements When a charged particle passes through an electric field, which among the following properties change ? I. mass II. charge III. velocity IV. momentum (1) II & III (2) Only III (3) III & IV (4) I, III & IV

Q.36

A person can see clearly on the objects situated in the range 50 cm to 300 cm. He went to an Optometrist who prescribed him a lens of certain power to increase the maximum distance of his vision to infinity. i.e., it corrected the nearsightedness. However, upon using the prescribed lens the person discovered that the near point of his vision has shifted from 50 cm to a distance “d”. What is the value of d ? (1) 60 cm (2) 100 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 500 cm

Q.37

A ball of mass m is thrown from a height h with a speed v. For what initial direction of the ball will its speed on hitting the ground be maximum ? (1) horizontally (2) vertically downwards (3) at an angle of 45º from the vertical in the downward direction (4) speed does not depend on the direction in which the ball is thrown


[57]

Q.38

A beaker is filled with two non-mixing liquids. The lower liquid has density twice that of the upper one. A cylinder of height h floats with one-fourth of its height submerged in the lower liquid and half of its height submerged in the upper liquid. Another beaker is filled with the denser of the two liquids alone. If the same cylinder is kept in the second beaker, the height of the submerged position would be –

3h (2) 4 h (4) 4

(1) h (3) Q.39

Q.40

h 2

Q.41

Q.42

Q.43

x1 = x2

m1 m2

(1) equal to –1 (2) greater than –1 (3) less than

Q.45

A truck and a car of masses m1 and m2 respectively are moving with equal kinetic energy. Equal stopping forces are applied and they come to a halt after traveling further distances x1 and x2 respectively. Then –

(3)

(2)

x1 m1 = x2 m2

(4)

x1 = x2

Q.46

Q.47

(3) 0.6878

(4) 0.687

3 2

If the value of quadratic polynomial p(x) is 0 only at x = –1 and p(–2) = 2 then the value of p(2) is (1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 3

a 10 - 2a 8 2a 9

(1) 6.0

(2) 5.2

(3) 5.0

(4) 3.0

If S1, S2, S3 …. Sr, are the sums of first n terms of r arithmetic progressions whose first terms are 1, 2, 3, …. and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5, …….. respectively, then the value of S1 + S2 + S3 + …… + Sr, is (1)

nr - 1 nr + 1 2

(2)

(3)

nr - 1 nr 2

(4)

nr + 1 nr 2 n nr + 1 2

A person walks towards a tower. Initially when he starts, angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30º. On traveling 20 metres towards the tower, the angle changes to 60º. How much more has he to travel to reach the tower? (1) 10 3 metres

(2) 10 metres

(3) 20 metres

(4)

10 Q.48

Expressing 0.34 + 0.34 as a single decimal, we get (2) 0.689

3 2

If a and b are the roots of the quadratic equation x2 – 6x –2 = 0 and if an = an – bn, then the value of

m2 m1

On dividing a natural number by 13, the remainder is 3 and on dividing the same number by 21, the remainder is 11. If the number lies between 500 and 600, then the remainder on dividing the number by 19 is (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 13

(1) 0.6788

The graphs of the equations x –y = 2 and kx + y = 3, where k is a constant, intersect at the point (x, y) in the first quadrant, if and only if k is

(4) lying between –1 and

A spring-loaded toy sits at rest on horizontal frictionless surface. When the spring releases, the toy breaks into three equal-mass pieces A, B and C, which slide along the surface. Piece A moves off in the negative x-direction, while piece B moves off in the negative y-direction. Which of the three pieces is moving the fastest ? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) They move with identical speeds

(1) x1 = x2

Q.44

metres

If cosec x – sin x = a and secx – cosx = b, then (1) a 2 b

2 3

+ ab 2

2 3

(2) ab 2

2 3

+ a 2b2

=1 2 3

=1

(3) a2 + b2 = 1 Q.49

3

(4) b2 – a2 = 1

A calf is tied with a rope of length 12m at a corner of a rectangular field of dimensions 35m × 25m. If the length of the rope is increased to 23m, then the additional grassy area in which the calf can graze is : (Take p =

22 ) 7

(1) 280.0 m2

(2) 300.0 m2

(3) 302.5 m2

(4) 312.5 m2


[58]

Q.50

If Anish is moving along the boundary of a triangular field of sides 35m, 53m and 66m and you are moving along the boundary of a circular field whose area is double the area of the triangular field, then the radius of the circular field is : (Take

p=

Q.51

(1) 14 3m

(2) 3 14 m

(3) 28 3m

(4) 7 3m

A circular metallic sheet is divided into two parts in such a way that each part can be folded into a cone. If the ratio of their curved surface areas is 1 : 2, then the ratio of their volumes is (3) 1: 10

2 3

(3) 4 kg

Q.54

Q.55

Q.57

The centre of the circle passing through the points (6, –6), (3, 3) and (3, –7) is (1) (3, 2) (2) (–3, –2) (3) (3, –2) (4) (–3, 2)

Q.58

If the line segment joining (2, 3) and (–1, 2) is divided internally in the ratio 3 : 4 by the graph of the equation x + 2y = k , the value of k is

(2) 1 : 6

5 7 36 (3) 7

31 7 41 (4) 7

(1)

(4) 2 : 3

A solid metallic block of volume one cubic metre is melted and recast into the form of a rectangular bar of length 9 metres having a square base. If the weight of the block is 90 kg and a biggest cube is cut off from the bar, then the weight of the cube is

1 (1) 6 kg 3

Q.53

ABC is a triangle in which AB = 4cm, BC = 5cm and AC = 6cm. A circle is drawn to touch side BC at P, side AB extended at Q and side AC extended at R. Then AQ equals. (1)7.0 cm (2)7.5 cm (3) 6.5 cm (4) 15.0 cm

22 ) 7

(1) 1: 8

Q.52

Q.56

Q.59

2 3 1 (4) 3 kg 3

(2) 5 kg

Two circles with centres P and R touch each other exernally at O. A line passing through O cuts the circles at T and S respectively. Then, (1) PT and RS are of equal length (2) PT and RS are perpendicular to each other (3) PT and RS are intersecting (4) PT and RS are parallel

Q.60

(2)

The mean of three positive numbers is 10 more than the smallest of the numbers and 15 less than the largest of the three. If the median of the three numbers is 5, then the mean of squares of the numbers is (1) 108

2 3

(2) 116

2 3

(3) 208

2 3

(4) 216

2 3

Three dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 5 of the numbers appearing on their tops is

5 54 49 (3) 54

7 54 53 (4) 54

(1)

(2)

If in triangle ABC, D is the mid-point of side BC, ÐADB = 45º and ÐACD = 30º, then ÐBAD and ÐABC are respectively equal to (1) 15º, 105º (2) 30º, 105º (3) 30º, 100º (4) 60º, 100º

Q.61

Three circles with radii R1, R2 and r tough each other externally as shown in the adjoining figure. If PQ is their common tangent and R1 > R2, then which of the following relations is correct?

B. Manor C. Tithe

II. An estate of Lord' s lands and his mansions III. Tax to be paid directly to the State

D.

IV.

A.

(2) R1 + R2 = 2r

1 1 1 + = (3) R1 R 2 r

(4)

1

R1

+

1

R2

=

1 r

Livre

Taille

I.

A tax levied by the Church

Unit of currency

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-III (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Q.62

(1) R1 – R2 = r

Match the following

(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Assertion (A) : After the 1905 revolution in Russia, Duma or the first elected consultative Parliament came into existence. Reason (R) : The power of Tsar was curbed by it (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true and R is false (4) A is false and R is true


[59]

Q.63

Arrange in correct chronological order I. Dawes Plan II. Crashing of the Wall Street Exchange III. Birth of Weimar Republic IV. Creation of Gestapo (Secret State Police) (1) I, II, III, IV (2) III, II, I, IV (3) IV, II, III, I (4) III, I, II, IV

Q.64

Assertion (A) : Cricket as a game has a long and strong rural connection. Reason (R) : The time limit of a match and vagueness about the size of Cricket ground is a result of the rhythms of village life. (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (3) A is true and R is false (4) A is false and R is true

Q.65

Q.66

Q.67

Q.68

Assertion (A) : In the 17th and 18th Century merchants from the towns in Europe started financing peasants and artisans in the country side for production for them. Reason (R) : In the urban centres powerful crafts and trade guilds with monopoly rights restricted the entry of new people into the trade. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True Assertion (A) : Colonial Forest Act changed the lives of villagers across the country. Reason (R) : Now the villagers could comfortably make use of the forest resources for everyday needs. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True Arrange the following events of nineteenth century Europe in ascending order. I. Unification of Germany II. Beginning of Greek struggle for independence III. Unification of Italy IV. Vienna Peace Settlement (1) III, I, II, IV (2) IV, II, III, I (3) I, III, IV, II (4) IV, III, I, II Arrange the following events descending order with regard Nationalist Movement in Indo-China. I. Creation of Indo-China union II. Formation of Communist Party in Vietnam III. Paris Peace Treaty IV. Declaration of independence by Ho Chi Minh (1) III, IV, II, I (2) III, IV, I, II (3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, IV, III

Q.69

Q.70

Q.71

Find out the correct statements with regards to Rowlatt Act. I. The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919 II. The Act was passed by Imperial Legislative Council III. The Act allowed detention of Political prisoners without trial of three years. IV. Protests against the Act led to Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in April 1920. (1) Only II and III are correct (2) Only I and III are correct (3) Only III and IV are correct (4) Only I and II are correct Assertion (A) : Population growth from the late eighteenth century increased the demand for food grains in Britain. Reason (R) : ‘Corn Laws’ introduced by the government helped in reducing the food prices. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True Match the following A

Gallery

I.

Old Name of Tokyo

B.

Edo

II.

Contained six sheets of text and wood cut illustrations

C.

Vellum

III.

Metal Frame in which types are laid and the text composed

D.

Diamond IV. Sutra

A parchment made from skin of animals

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II Q.72

(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Given below are statements regarding the course of development of Socialism in Europe. Arrange them in chronological sequence. I. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the October Revolution. II. Socialists and trade unionists formed a labour party in Britain and Socialist party in France. III. The Russian Social Democratic Worker’s Party was founded by Socialists who respected Marx’s ideas. IV. Socialists could not succeed in forming a government in Europe and governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals. V. Second International was formed to coordinate the efforts of socialists throughout Europe. (1) V, III, II, IV, I

(2) I, II, III, IV, V

(3) V, II, III, I, IV

(4) IV, V, III, I, II


[60]

Q.73

Q.74

Q.75

Q.76

Q.77

Hitler’s ideology related to the geopolitical concept of Lebensraum, or living space implied: (1) There was no equality between people, but only a racial hierarchy (2) Only those species survived on earth that could adapt themselves to changing climatic conditions (3) New territories had to be acquired for settlement to increase the area of the mother country (4) An exclusive racial community of pure Germans to be created by physically elimination all those who were seen as undesirable. During the mid-eighteenth century Assertion (A) : Indian spinners and weaves were left without work and important centres of textile declined Reason (R) : Large number of people began boycotting British cloth and started adopting khadi. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True Assertion (A) : Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil Disobedience Movement and entered into a Pact with Irwin in 1931. Reason (R) : Industrial workers in Sholapur attacked structures that symbolized British rule. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True Assertion (A) : The latitudinal extent influences the duration of day and night, as one moves from south to north of India Reason (R) : From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True Assertion (A) : Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of India and harvested in September October. Reason (R): Availability of precipitation due to the western temperate cylcones helps in growing of these crops. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True

Q.78

Arrange the shaded states shown on the map of India in descending order of population density and select the right code. (1) II, I, IV, III (2) I, II, III, IV (3) I, II, IV, III (4) I, IV, II, III

Q.79

Which of the following figure is showing the correct direction of movement of the South American Plate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q.80

Based on the data (elevation and latitude) provided below which of the following tourist centers is most probably indicated? Elevation : 3500 meters Latitude : 34°N (1) Shillong (2) Mussoorie (3) Kodaikanal (4) Leh

Q.81

Keeping in mind the location of the following sanctuaries/national park of India, arrange them from south to north: I. Periyar, II. Dachigam, III. Sariska, IV. Kanha (1) I, IV, II, III (2) III, I, IV, II (3) IV, I, III, II (4) I, IV, III, II

Q.82

Match list I (Revolution) with list II (Area) and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List A. B. C. D.

I (Re volution) Blue Green White Yellow

I. II. III. IV.

List II (Area) Dairy development Fisheries development Food produc tion Silk produc tion

(1) A-II, B-III, C-VI, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV


[61]

Q.83

Assertion (A) : The availability of water resources varies over space and time in India. Reason (R) : Water availability is governed by variations in seasonal and annual precipitation although water scarcity is aggravated by over – exploitation and unequal access to water among different social groups. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True

Q.84

Match list I (Type of Resource) with list II (Basis of Classification) and select the codes given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Which one of the following is the correct order of rivers from north to south ? (1) Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum, Indus (2) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi (3) Jhelum, Indus, Ravi, Chenab (4) Chenab, Ravi, Indus, Jhelum

Q.86

Match list I (National Highways of India) with list II (Description) and select the codes given below :

Q.87

(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Which of the following statement is NOT true to the context of Mawsynram? (1) It is considered as the wettest lace on the earth (2) It ........ with stalagmites and ...... (3) It is located very close to Cherrapunji (4) It is located very close to the Myanmar border

Which one of the following facts about the shaded state shown below is incorrect?

(1) Terrace cultivation is widespread in the hill areas (2) The state is a major producer of uranium (3) Population density is well below the national average (4) More than 80 per cent of the area has forest as the land cover Q.89

The topic of Cancer passes through which of the following plateau? (1) Only Malwa (2) Only Chotanagpur (3) Only Maghalaya (4) Both malwa and Chotanagar

Q.90

Assertion (A) : The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. Reason (R) : The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place. (1) Both A and R True and R is correct explanation of A (2) Both A are R are True but R is not correct explanation of A (3) A is True and R is False (4) A is False and R is True

Q.91

W hich of the following arguments against prescribing educational qualification for elected representatives are true ? I. Educational qualification will deprive illiterate citizens of the right to contest elections. II. Relevant qualification for being elected representatives is not education but ability to address people’s problems. III. Educated elected representatives keep distance from the common people. IV. It is easier for the educated elected representatives to use power for personal gains. V. It should be left to the voters to decide how much importance is to be given to educational qualification of a candidate. (1) I, II and IV only (2) I, III and V only (3) I, IV and V only (4) I, II and V only

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Q.85

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Q.88


[62]

Q.92

Which of the following terms were inserted in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, I. Integrity II. Secular III. Socialist IV. Unity (1) I, III and IV (2) II and III (3) I, II and III (4) I, II and IV

Q.93

Which of the following international institutions has a more democratic way of decision-making on matters of global importance? (1) General Assembly of the United Nations (2) International Monetary Fund (3) Security Council of the United Nations (4) World Bank

Q.94

Which of the following factors have contributed to changes in the caste system? I. Economic development II. Language III. Education IV. Elections V. Region (1) I, III and IV (2) II, IV and V (3) II, III and IV (4) I, III and V

Q.95

Match list I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below.

Q.97

Which of these activities contributes to India’s national income? I. Cooking at home II. A teacher teaching his children at home III. A doctor prescribing medicines in a clinic IV. Cooking in a restaurant (1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I and IV

Q.98

In an imaginary economy the monetary value of contributions of primary sector, public sector, secondary sector and service sector are Rs 100, Rs 25, Rs 28 and Rs 77 respectively. The gross domestic product of the economy is : (1) Rs 100 (2) Rs 205 (3) Rs 153 (4) Rs 230

Q.99

Four families in a village, which has only a ration shop, have access to foodgrains as shown in the table. Identify the families that lack food security

Food Food Mone y available to Posse ssin Family require me grain e ach family for g Ration nt in k g price/k g bying food grains card A B C D

50 30 20 40

10 10 10 10

(1) A and B (3) C and D

600 330 180 400

YES NO YES YES

(2) B and C (4) D and A

Q.100 Robinson Crusoe goes to sea with a net for fishing. Classify the factors of production and choose the appropriate option given below.

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I Q.96

(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Calculate the female literacy rate from the given data Gender Total persons Lite rate Pe rsons Males 1200 1050 Females 580 340 Total 1780 1390 (1) 32.5 (2) 19.1 (3) 58.6 (4) 28.3

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV


[63]

Roll No.

NTSE 17_SAT



Max. Marks : 100




2.



[64]

NTSE STAGE_II MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)-2017 1.

2.

Some translated words in an artificial Language (in which the word order is not necessarily same) are given below mie pie sie good person sing pie sie rie sing good lyrics tie rie sie love good lyrics What is the translation for “person love lyrics” ? (1) pie tie rie (2) tie rie sie (3) rie mie tie (4) sie mie pie

Which of the following figures represents the correct balance ?

In the given sequence, some letters are missing. Which of the given options can fill the blanks in the correct order from left to right ? ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb (1) abab (2) abba (3) aabb (4) baba

(1)

(2)

(3) 3.

Identify the number in the position of‘?’ (4)

(1) 24 (3) 32 4.

8.

A coin is in a fixed position. Another identical coin is rolled around the edge of the first one. How many complete revolutions will be made by the revolving coin before it reaches its starting position ?

Find the missing number.

(2) 210 (4) 425

If A, B, C, D are distinct decimal digits, then which of the following options is correct ?

(1) A = 3 (2) A = 2 (3) A = 3 (4) A = 2 6.

Choose appropriate option from given alternatives such that the relationship defined by ':' is preserved. PNIJ : LIFC and VTRP : __________ (1) ROLI (2) SOLH (3) RPOM (4) DMEN

(2) 28 (4) 36

(1) 184 (3) 421 5.

7.

B=7 B=3 B=8 B=3

C C C C

=5 =6 =6 =5

D D D D

= = = =

9 5 5 7

Observe the following figures representing a balance.

(1) 1 (3) 3 9.

(2) 2 (4) 4

If South-East becomes North; and North-East becomes West; then West becomes (1) North - East (2) South - East (3) North - West (4) South - West


[65]

10.

A cube is 6 cm in length, breadth and height. It is painted red on two opposite faces, black on the other two opposite faces and green on the left over faces. It is then cut into 216 cubes of side 1 cm. How many small cubes have no face painted ? (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 64 (4) 24

11.

Find the odd-one out of the following terms : EF22, JK42. GH24. VW90, IJ38

12.

Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements. Statement : All the pens are papers All the papers are boats Some birds are boats. Conclusions : (A) Some boats are pens (B) Some birds are papers (C) None of the pens are birds (1) Only A and B (2) Only A (3) Only C (4) Only A and C

13.

How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure ?

(1) 10 (3) 12

17.

If ‘S’ means ‘x, ‘d’ means ‘¸’, 's' means ‘+’ and ‘ µ ’ means ‘–’ then evaluate the following expression using standard operator precedence. 56d(6 s 8)S 4 µ 1 (1) 52 (2) 24 (3) 15 (4) 43

18.

With what operators, should the symbols @ and < be replaced so that the following expression is valid. 100 – 81 ¸ 27 @ 3< 6 = 115 (1) + and – (2) x and ¸ (3) + and x (4) ¸ and –

19.

x is an integer such that it leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, leaves a remainder of 3 when divided by 5, and leaves a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. What could be a possible value of x from among the following options ? (1) 53 (2) 68 (3) 74 (4) 83

20.

In how many ways can you distribute 10 identical balls into two non-identical boxes so that none are empty? (1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10

21.

One line forms two regions in a plane. Similarity, two lines in a plane can form a maximum of four regions. These are shown in the figures below :

(2) 11 (4) 13

14.

Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’ ? 255, 3610, 4915, M, 8125 (1) 5100 (2) 5420 (3) 6420 (4) 6422

15.

Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’ ? L6, 08, R11, M, X25, A42, D75 (1) U15 (2) U16 (3) W14 (4) U14

16.

Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’ ?

What is the maximum number of regions that can be formed by 4 lines in a plane ? Lines need not be concurrent. (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 11 22.

(1) 6 (3) 4

(2) 5 (4) 3

You need to take n arbitrary points on or inside a square of side 2 cm such that there will always be a pair of points at a distance of not more than 2 cm. What is the minimum value of n ? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 8


[66]

23.

24.

The following facts are known about an unknown number X : I : The sum of digits of X is 15. II: The unit’s digit of X is 6. Then which of the following statement is certainly true about X ? (1) X is divisible by 3 but not by 6 (2) X is divisible by 6 but not by 9 (3) X is not divisible by 6 but divisible by 9 (4) X is divisible by both 6 and 9

28.

DIVERT6475ALE (1) (2) (3) (4) Direction (Questions 29-30) There are 150 students in a class. 20 students play both hockey and kabaddi. The same numbers of students play only football. 35 students play both hockey and football but not kabaddi. 25 play both football and kabaddi but not hockey. The number of students who play only hockey is the same as the number of students who do not play any of three mentioned games and the number of students who play only hockey is half of the number of students who play only football.

The average age of A, B and C is 43 years. Which of the following statements are required to find the eldest among them ? Statements: I : Age of C is 65 years. II: Age of A is 25 years. (1) I is sufficient (2) Both I and II are required (3) I and II together are not sufficient (4) II is sufficient Direction (Questions 25-26) A class is to be taught five subjects - Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics by five different teachers-A, B, C, D and E in five periods (1 to 5). A teacher can teach in only one of the periods. The following details are available about the teaching. •

25.

A teaches mathematics which is not taught in the first period.

•

Physics is taught by D in an even numbered period.

•

Chemistry is taught in an odd period, and it precedes mathematics period.

•

E teaches in the first period.

•

C teaches Chemistry but not in the first or the last periods.

•

Hindi is taught in the last period.

Choose the option which shows the correct mirror image of the characters given below.

29.

How many students play only kabaddi ? (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

30.

How many students play only hockey? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25

31.

What will be the number in the blank box?

(1) 98 (3) 189 32.

(2) 128 (4) 194

What is the total number of circles in the figure given below?

Which of the following statements is necessarily true? (1) Third period is of Hindi taught by B (2) Second period is of Physics taught by C (1) 13

(3) Fourth period is of Mathematics taught by A (4) Fifth period of Biology taught by D 26.

Which subject is taught by B ? (1) Physics (3) Biology

27.

(2) Chemistry (4) Hindi

A solid metallic cylinder of radius 12 cm and height 175 cm is melted and moulded into another solid cylinder of height 63 cm. What is the radius of the new cylinder? (1)14

(2) 4p

(3) 20

33.

(2) 14

(3) 15

(4) 16

A bucket contains milk mixed with water, of which 3 parts are water and 5 parts are milk. A part of the mixture is removed from the bucket and is replaced by water. What portion of the mixture should have been removed so that the new mix contains milk and water in equal proportion? 1 1 (1) (2) 3 4 1 1 (3) (4) 5 6

(4) 5p


[67]

34.

You need to colour the circles in such a way that no two circles connected by a line get the same colour. What is the minimum number of distinct colours needed to colour all the circles in the figure?

(1) 4 (3) 6 35.

36.

In the question given below, there are two statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements? Statements: Some kings are queens All the queens are beautiful. Conclusions: I. All the kings are beautiful II. All the queens are kings. (1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Neither I nor II follows (4) Both I and II follow

40.

If prime numbers are assigned to English alphabets from A to Z in order MAT will be : (1) 31 1 67 (2) 41 1 67 (3) 37 2 71 (4)41 2 71

41.

What number comes inside the square in place of ‘X’

(2) 5 (4) 7

From each box you can move only to the immediate right box or the immediate top box. You cannot move into or through a shaded box. How many ways are there to move from the box marked S to the box marked D ?

(1) 11 (3) 12

39.

(2) 10 (4)14

Which number will come in the place of ‘M’ ?

(1) 5 42.

(1) 21 (3) 40 37.

38.

(2) 32 (4) 63

The square of the length of a rod AB is 72 cm2. If we place the rod in the corner of a room, so that the end A is always on the edge between the two walls of the corner and the end B is always on the floor, what is the maximum possible area of the triangle formed by the rod, the edge between the walls and the floor? (1) 6 cm 2 (2) 12 cm 2 2 (3) 18 cm (4) 24 cm 2 What is the missing term “?” in the following series? 2 , 6 , 6 , 5 , 10 , 4 , 14 , 3 , 18 , ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 19 (4) 22

(2) 6

(3) 7

(4) 8

Find the alphabet that will replace ‘?’

(1) A

(2) D

(3) O

(4) N

43.

In a certain language IMPHAL is coded as JLRFDI. How will MYSURU be coded in the same language? (1) NXUSUR (2) RUSUXN (3) NXSUUR (4) NXTTUR

44.

What time should the IV clock show?

(1) 1:00 (3) 1:40

(2) 1:20 (4) 2:00


[68]

45.

How many crosses should be there in the box marked with '?'?

(1) 1 (3) 3

49.

Mrs. Kirandeep, a driving instructor, has to arrange training schedule for some of her pupils. She has 8 new pupil who wish to book either a morning or evening of a particular day. The appointment can be given for Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday. The instructor instructs only one pupil in morning and one in the evening session. • Mrs. Sabita is only available Tuesday morning but Mr. Aaditya can make any time on a Wednesday. • Mrs. Firdaus is free on Tuesday all day but Mr. Naved is only free Wednesday evening. • Mrs. Seema is only available Friday morning whereas Mrs. Ritu can only make Saturday evening. • Mrs. Shalu is available all day Fridays whereas Mr. Ronald can make any time on a Saturday. Which of the following two should have morning appointments ? (1) Mr. Ronald and Mrs. Shalu (2) Mr. Ronald and Mrs. Firdaus (3) Mr. Aaditya and Mrs. Firdaus (4) Mr. Aaditya and Mr. Ronald

50.

Just before sunset Veena and Zeba were talking to each other standing face-to-face. If Veena sees Zeba’s shadow to be exactly towards the right of Zeba, which direction was Veena facing? (1) South (2) North (3) East (4) North-East

(2) 2 (4) 4

46.

Find the missing term. a, b, d, _,p (1) h (2) i (3) j (4) k

47.

A is East of B and West of C, D is South-West of C, and B is South-East of E. When seen from West to East, which of the following sequences are possible? I: EBDAC II: DEBAC III: EBADC IV: EDBAC (1) I and III (2) I, III and IV (3) I, II and III (4) all, I, II, III and IV

48.

A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. C and D cannot be on adjacent seat. Also, B cannot be at the third place. Which of the following must be false? (1) A is at the fourth place (2) A is at the third place (3) A is at the second place (4) A is at the first place


[69]

Roll No.

NTSE 17_SAT



Max. Marks : 100




2.



[70]

NTSE STAGE_II SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)-2017 1.

Small cut pieces of soft stems are placed in growth medium with following plant hormones. Which combination of plant hormones will show slowest growth? (1) Auxin + Cytokinin (2) Gibberellins + Auxin (3) Gibberellins + Cytokinin (4) Abscisic Acid + Auxin

2.

Which one of the following demonstrates the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells? (1) Involuntary and multinucleated (2) Unbranched and uninucleated (3) Cylindrical and uninucleated (4) Unbranched and involuntary

3.

From the given figure identify the part of human brain controlling most of the involuntary actions:

(1) A & B (3) C & D 4.

5.

6.

(2) B & C (4) D & A

An animal kept in a jar has the following features. I. It is bilaterally symmetrical II. It has coelomic cavity III. The body is segmented IV. It has jointed appendages To which phylum does the animal belong to? (1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Mollusca Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: Nostoc and Bacteria are prokaryotes Statement II. Penicillium and Spirogyra are fungi (1) Only statement I is true (2) Only statement II is true (3) Both statements I & II are true (4) Both statements I & II are false You find a herbaceous flowering plant growing in your school garden having leaves with parallel venation. Choose the correct additional features the given plant would be possessing. I. It has no secondary vascular tissues II. Its flower possesses three sepals III. It possesses tap root IV. Its embryo has 2 cotyledons (1) I & II (2) I & III (3) II & IV (4) III & IV

7.

Varieties of vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower have been produced from a wild cabbage species. Such process of producing new varieties of living organisms in called (1) Natural selection (2) Artificial selection (3) Speciation (4) Genetic drift

8.

Which of the following are pairs of analogous organs? I. Forelimbs of horse - Wings of bat II. Wings of bat - Wings of butterfly III. Forelimbs of horse - Wings of butterfly IV. Wings of bird - Wings of bat (1) I & II (2) II & IV (3) III & IV (4) II & III

9.

Which of the following organisms is used as a biopesticide? (1) Azolla (2) Anabaena (3) Rhizobium (4) Trichoderma

10.

A tall plant(TT) is crossed with a dwarf plant(tt). All F1 plants showed tall phenotype. Which of the following correctly defines a test cross? (1) TT(F1) x Tt(P) (2) Tt(F1) x Tt(P) (3) tt(F1) x Tt(P) (4) Tt(F1) x tt(P)

11.

Which one of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct? I. Leishmania - Sleeping sickness II. Nematode - Elephantiasis III. Trypanosoma - Kala azar IV. Staphylococcus - Acne (1) I & II (2) I & III (3) II & IV (4) III & IV

12.

Pancreatic juice contains more than one enzyme. W hich among the following combination is correct? (1) Pepsin and lipase (2) Amylase and pepsin (3) Pepsin and trypsin (4) Trypsin and lipase

13.

You discover a new species of a plant. You also discover that it produces motile sperms and dominant generation has diploid cells. It belongs to (1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm (3) Gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyte

14.

At every 20 minutes, one bacterium divide into two. How many bacteria will be produced after two hours, if one starts with 10 bacteria? (1) 25 × 10 (2) 25 × 105 (3) 26 × 10 (4) 26 × 106

15.

The metal(M) forms an oxide, M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be (1) M2N3 (2) MN (3) M2N (4) M3N2


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16.

A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following is a solution? (1) Milk (2) Smoke (3) Brass (4) Face cream

17.

1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen atoms in the solution is (1) 12.405 × 1023 (2) 12.405 × 1022 23 (3) 6.022 × 10 (4) 6.022 × 1022

18.

35Cl

19.

The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous solution of (1) potassium acetate (2) copper sulphate (3) sodium sulphate (4) ferric chloride

20.

A metal ‘M’ of moderate reactivity is present as its sulphide ‘X’. On heating in air, ‘X’ converts into its oxide, ‘Y’ and a gas evolves. On heating ‘Y’ and ‘X’ together, the metal. ‘M’ is produced. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are (1) ‘X’ = cuprous sulphide, ‘Y’ = cuprous oxide (2) ‘X’ = cupric sulphide, ‘Y’ = cupric oxide (3) ‘X’ = sodium sulphide, ‘Y’ = sodium oxide (4) ‘X’ = calcium sulphide, ‘Y’ = calcium oxide

21.

22.

and 37Cl are the two isotopes of chlorine, in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. If the isotope ratio is reversed, the average atomic mass of chlorine will be : (1) 35.0 u (2) 35.5 u (3) 36.0 u (4) 36.5 u

Which one of the following statement is incorrect about graphite and diamond? (1) Graphite is smooth and slippery (2) Diamond is good conductor of heat (3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity (4) Physical and chemical properties of graphite and diamond are different

23.

Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict which of the following is a covalent compound. (1) RQ2 (2) AT (3) JQ (4) JX2 24.

A compound ‘X’ reacts with a compound ‘Y’, to produce a colourless and odourless gas. The gas turns lime water milky. When ‘X’ reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated H2SO4, a sweet smelling substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound ‘X’ is (1) C2H4O (3) C2H6O (2) C2H4O2 (4) C2H6O2

25.

The schematic diagram is given below :

Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (1) A and E are chemically same (2) A and D are chemically same (3) D and E are chemically same (4) C and E are chemically same 26.

Which of the following is a feasible reaction? (1) Ba (s) + K2SO4 (aq)¾® BaSO4 (aq) + 2K (s) (2) Zn (s) + 2 AgNO3 (aq) ¾® Zn(NO3 )2 (aq) + 2Ag (s) (3) Mg (s) + Na2SO4 (aq) ¾®MgSO4 (aq) + 2Na (s) (4) Cu (s) + MgSO4 (aq) ¾® CuSO4 (aq) + Mg (s)

27.

Some ice pieces kept at a temperature -5°C are heated gradually to 100°C in a beaker. The temperatures of the contents are plotted against time. The correct plot is :

The functional groups present in the following compound are

(1) alcohol, ketone and ester (2) ester and carboxylic acid (3) carboxylic acid and ketone (4) ester and alcohol

A part of the modern periodic table is presented below in which the alphabets represent the symbols of elements.

(1)


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29.

To read a poster on a wall, a person with defective vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4 m from the poster. A person with normal vision can read the poster from a distance of 2.0 m. Which one of the following lens may be used to correct the defective vision? (1) A concave lens of 0.5 D (2) A concave lens of 1.0 D (3) A concave lens of 2.0 D (4) A convex lens of 2.0 D

30.

A ball released from rest at time t = 0 hits the ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity 5 ms-1 and reaches the top at t = 1.5 s, what is the net displacement of the ball from its initial position after 1.5 s? (g = 10 ms–2)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28.

The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown below :

31. Which one of the following graphs represents the acceleration(a)–time(t) graph for the above motion?

(1) 32.

(2)

(1) 1.25 m (3) 5.00 m (2) 3.75 m (4) 6.25 m A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed of water from the jet is u, the diameter of the jet is ‘d’ and the density of water is ‘r’ then the force exerted on the wall by the jet of water is (1)

p 2 d ru 4

(2)

p 2 2 d ru 4

(3)

p 2 2 d ru 8

(4)

p 2 2 d ru 2

Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively, lie on a horizontal frictionless surface as shown in the figure. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. The force exerted by B on A is

(3) (1) 1.5 N (3) 4.5 N

(2) 3.0 N (4) 6.0 N

(4)


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33.

A beaker half-filled with water is put on a platform balance which is then set to zero. A 800 g mass is immersed partially in water using a spring balance as shown in the figure. If the spring balance reads 300 g, what will be the reading on the platform balance?

38.

39.

(1) 200 g 34.

(2) 300 g

(3) 500 g

(4) 800 g

An object falls a distance H in 50 s when dropped on the surface of the earth. How long would it take for the same object to fall through the same distance on the surface of a planet whose mass and radius are twice that of the earth? (Neglect air resistance) (1) 35.4 s (2) 50.0 s (3) 70.7 s (4) 100.0 s

35.

A source produces sound waves under water. Waves travel through water and then into air. Which of the following statements about the frequency(f) and the wavelength(l) is correct as sound passed from water to air? (1) f remains unchanged but l decreases (2) f remains unchanged but l increases (3) l remains unchanged but f decreases (4) l remains unchanged but f increases

36.

The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of its original value by stretching it. If its initial resistance is R, what would be its resistance after reduction of the diameter? (1)

37.

R 625

(2)

R 25

(3) 25 R

1 m2 u2 2 (M + m) (4) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to 1 M2 u2 2 (M + m)

(1) 1.41 (3) 1.63 (2) 1.50 (4) 1.73 A charged particle placed in an electric fields falls from rest through a distance d in time t. If the charge on the particle is doubled, the time of fall through the same distance will be (1) 2t (2) t (3)

40.

t 2

(4)

t 2

AB is a long wire carrying a current l1, and PQRS is a rectangular loop carrying current I2 (as shown in the figure)

Which among the following statements are correct? (1) Arm PQ will get attracted to wire AB, and the arm RS will get repelled from wire AB (2) Arm PQ will get repelled from wire AB and arm RS attracted to wire AB. (3) Forces on the arm PQ and RS will be unequal the opposite. (4) Forces on the arms QR and SP will be zero (1) Only A (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) B and D

(4) 625 R

An object of mass ‘m’ moving along a straight line with a velocity ‘u’ collides with a heavier mass ‘M’ and gets embedded into it. If the compound system of mass (M + m) keeps moving in the same direction then which of the given options is true? (1) The kinetic energies before and after collision are same 1 (2) The kinetic energy after collision is (M + m)u2 2 (3) There will be a loss of kinetic energy to

A vessels is filled with oil as shown in the diagram. A ray of light from point O at the bottom of vessels is incident on the oil - air interface at point P and grazes the surface along PQ. The refractive index of the oil is closed to -

41.

The sum of all the possible remainders which can be obtained when the cube of a natural number is divided by 9, is (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9

42.

When a polynomial p(x) is divided by x –1, the remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by x –3, the remainder is 5. If r(x) is the remainder when p(x) is divided by (x –1) (x–3), then the value of r(–2) is (1) –2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) 4


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43.

For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations in two variables will have infinitely many solutions? px + 3y - (p -3) = 0 12x +py - p = 0 (1) 6 (2) –6 (3) 0 (4) 2

44.

Two quadratic equations x2 - bx + 6 = 0 and x2 – 6x + c = 0 have a common root. If the remaining roots of the first and second equations are positive integers and are in the ratio 3:4 respectively, then the common root is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

45.

46.

47.

First term of an arithmetic progression is 2. If the sum of its first five terms is equal to one-fourth of the sum of the next five terms, then the sum of its first 30 terms is (1) 2670 (2) 2610 (3) –2520 (4) –2550 A circle C is drawn inside a square S so that the four sides of S are tangents to C. An equilateral triangle T is drawn inside C with its vertices on C. If the area of S is k times the are of T, then the value of k is 16 16 (1) (2) 3 3 3 32 32 (3) (4) 3 3 3 Let AP be a diameter of a circle of radius r and PT be the tangents to the circle at the point P such that the line AT intersects the circle at B. If PT = 8 units and BT = 4 units, then r is equal to (1) 4 3 units (3)

48.

49.

Three circular wires are attached in series such that, if one wire is rotated, other two also get 4 rotated. If the diameter of a wire is times that 5 of immediate left wire and the left most wire rotates at the speed of 32 revolutions per minute, then the number of revolutions made by right most wire per minute will be (1) 40 (2) 49 (3) 50 (4) 60

52.

Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. If the co ordinates of A are (1, 2) and co–ordinates of B are (2,–1) then (1) C cannot lie in the first quadrant (2) C cannot lie in the second quadrant (3) C is the origin (4) C cannot lie in the third quadrant

53.

Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape structure from 400 wooden cubes of unit volume each. If the sides of the solid brick have the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then the maximum number of cubes, which can be used, will be (1) 400 (2) 288 (3) 300 (4) 384

54.

Positive integers from 1 to 21 are arranged in 3 groups of 7 integers each, in some particular order. Then the highest possible mean of the median of these 3 groups is (1) 16 (2) 12.5 (3) 11 (4) 14

55.

On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder in each case. The sum of the digits of N is (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13

56.

A line l passing through the origin makes an angle q with positive direction of x–axis such that 3 sinq = . The co–ordinates of the point, which 5 lies in the fourth quadrant at a unit distance from the origin and perpendicular to l are

(2) 4 units

4

units (4) 2 3 units 3 If the quadratic equation x2 + bx + 72 = 0 has two distinct integer roots, then the number of all possible values for b is (1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 15 (4) 18 If the area of a square inscribed in a semicircle is 2 cm2, then the area of the square inscribed in a full circle of the same radius is (1) 5 cm2 (2) 10 cm2 (3) 5 2 cm2

50.

51.

3ö æ4 (2) ç , – ÷ 5 5 è ø

(3) (3, –4)

(4) (4, –3)

57.

The values(s) of k for which x2 + 5kx + k2 + 5 is exactly divisible by x + 2 but not by x + 3 is (are) (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 1, 9 (4) 9

58.

If cos4 q + sin2 q = m, then

(4) 25 cm2

If the discriminants of two quadratic equations are equal and the equations have a common root 1, then the other roots (1) are either equal or their sum is 2 (2) have to be always equal (3) are either equal or their sum is 1 (4) have their sum equal to 1

4ö æ3 (1) ç , – ÷ 5 5 è ø

(1) 1 £ m £ 2 (3)

3 £m£1 4

(2)

1 £m £1 2

(4)

13 3 £m£ 16 4


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59.

Cost of 2 apples, 3 bananas and one coconut is ` 26. Also the cost of 3 apples, 2 bananas and two coconuts is ` 35. Then the cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconuts is (1) ` 172 (2) ` 148 (3) ` 143 (4) ` 126

60.

ABC is a field in the form of an equilateral triangle. Two vertical poles of heights 45 m and 20 m are erected at A and B respectively. The angles of elevation of the tops of the two poles from C are complementary to each other. There is a point D on AB such that from it, the angles of elevation of the tops of the two poles are equal. Then AD is equal to 10 5 (1) 17 m (2) 20 m 13 12 (3) 20

61.

62.

63.

64.

5 m 13

(4) 17

10 m 12

Arrange the developments related to European history in a chronological sequence. I. Napoleon invaded Italy. II. Unification of Italy. III. Unification of Germany IV. Vienna Settlement (1) I, III, II and IV (2) I, II, IV and III (3) I, IV, II and III (4) I, II, III and IV Which of the following statements about Liberals in 19th century Europe are correct? I. They favoured the Catholic Church. II. They opposed dynastic rule with unlimited power. III. They were democrats. IV. They did not want any voting rights for women (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) II and IV (4) III and IV Which of the following statements are correct? I. In the beginning Bombay was under the Portuguese control. II. Control of Bombay passed onto the French in the 17th century. III. The Marathas replaced the French in Bombay IV. Bombay became the capital of the Presidency in early 19th century (1) I, II and IV (2) I and IV (3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV Which of the following statements are correct? I. The Chinese introduced printing II. The Buddhist missionaries introduced printing in Japan III. The Chinese developed printing to facilitate their expanding trade. IV. Printing reached Europe through Italy. (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV

Direction (Questions 65 - 72): Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below. 1. Statement 1 is true, Statement II is false. 2. Statement 1 is false, Statement II is true 3. Both Statement are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I 4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I 65.

Statement I : During the years of the Great Depression the economic crisis was worse in Germany Statement II : The President of the Weimar Republic had the power of impose emergency

66.

Statement I : The Forest Act of 1878 categorized some forests as ‘reserved forests’. Statement II : They were considered the best forests for people’s use.

67.

Statement I : Shifting cultivation was widely prevalent in different parts of India in the 19th century. Statement II : More and more people took to shifting cultivation when forest laws were enacted.

68.

Statement I : Cricket emerged as a colonial game. Statement II : Cricket was started in England.

69.

Statement I : Mahatma Gandhi wished everyone had clothes to wear. Statement II : He wanted everyone to wear the single loin cloth as he did.

70.

Statement I : The Spanish conquest of America was not a conventional military conquest. Statement II : One of the most powerful weapon was the spread of smallpox.

71.

Statement I : The silk routes led to trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. Statement II: Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia through this route.

72.

Statement I : The French used forced labour in Indo - China for building canals. Statement II : Vietnam became a major exporter of rice in the world. Match List I (Layers of Atmosphere) and List II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the code given below List I (Layers of Atmosphere) List II (Characteristics) A. Ionosphere I. Contains Ozone B. Stratosphere II. Reflects radio Waves C. Exosphere III. Fall in Temperature D. T roposphere IV. Extremely low air density (1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I (2) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D– III (3) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV (4) A– III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

73.


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74.

Which of the following statements are correct? I. Rann of Kachchh is formed by the recession of the sea II. Kuchaman, Sambhar and Didwana are salt water lakes III. The land to the east of Aravallis is known as Bagar IV. The fertile flood plains formed by small streams in Rajasthan are known as Rohi (1) I, II and IV (2) I, III and IV (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV

75.

Observe the graph given below :

78.

Observe the given map.

Which one of the following statement is NOT true about the shaded state indicated on the map? (1) Society predominantly follows right of female ultimogeniture (2) The state is an example of areas with karst topography (3) The state is a major producer of potatoes in India (4) Some parts of the state receive extremely high rainfall. 79.

Match List I (Mineral Oil Refineries with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I List II (Mineral Oil Refineries) (States) A. Numaligarh I. Punjab B. Bathinda II. Andhra Pradesh C. Tatipaka III. Madhya Pradesh D. Bina IV. Assam (1) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I (2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III (3) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III (4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

80.

‘Slash and Burn Agriculture’ is known by specific name in different states of India. Match the shaded states marked in the given map with codes given in the Table (Different name of Slash and Burn Agriculture) and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Identify the state with population growth rate marked by ‘X’ (1) Goa (2) Kerala (3) Sikkim (4) Nagaland 76.

River Alaknanda forms confluences (Prayags) in Uttarkhand. Match the codes given in Figure with Table (Prayags) and select the correct answer using the code given below. Figure Table (Prayags) I. Karn Prayag II. Rudra Prayag III. Nand Prayag IV. Vishnu Prayag (1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (2) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV (3) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV (4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV

77.

Match List I (Original Rocks) with List II (Metramorphic Rock) and select the correct answer List I List II (Original Rock) (Metamorphic Rock) A. Granite I. Diamond B. Coal II. Marble C. Limestone III. Slate D. Shale IV. Gneiss (1) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I (3) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III (2) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I (4) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III


[77]

81.

Match List I (Industries) with List II (Important Centers) and select the correct answer using the codes given below. List I List II (Industries) (Important Centers) A. Cotton textile I. Ludhiana B. Hosiery II. Rishra C. Jute III. Coimbatore D Silk textile IV. Mysuru (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

82.

Which one of the following island is closest to the equator? (1) Minicoy (2) Car Nicobar (3) Little Nicobar (4) Great Nicobar

83.

Which of the following characteristics are true about plantation agriculture? I. Generally plantation agriculture is considered as an example of subsistence farming. II. Generally single crop is grown on a large area in plantation agriculture. III. It has an interface of agriculture and industry. IV. It uses capital intensive inputs. (I) I and IV (2) III and IV (3) I. II and III (4) II, III, and IV

84.

86.

Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj Institutions after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992 are false? I. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in the elected bodies of the Panchayati Raj Institutions . II. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are supervised by the Election Commission of India III. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are held regularly after every five years. IV. Half of the seats in all the States are reserved for women. (1) I and III (2) I and II (3) III and IV (4) II and IV

87.

Match List I (Political Systems) with List II (Nations) and select the answer using the codes given below. List I (Political Systems) A. Federal, Presidential, Republic B. Federal, Parliamentary, Republic C. Unitary, Parliamentary, Monarchy D Presidential cum Parliamentary Republic List II (Nations) I. India II. United Kingdom III Germany IV. United States of America V. France (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-V, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV

88.

Which of the following statements about the federal system in India are true? I. The Constitution of India provides for a threefold distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the State Governments. II. Both the Union and the State Governments can legislate on residuary subjects. III. The Parliament cannot on its own change the power-sharing arrangement between the Union and the State Governments. IV. The High Courts have no role in resolving disputes about the division of powers between the Union and the State Governments. (I) I and III (2) II, III and IV (3) I. III and IV (4) I, II and IV

89.

Which of the following group of States/Union Territories have only one Lok Sabha constituency? (1) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep (2) Goa, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands (3) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram (4) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry

Match List-I (Vegetation zones) with List-II (Mean Annual Temperature Range) and select the correct answer using the code given below List I (Vegetation Zones)

List II (Mean Annual Temperature Range)

(1) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV (2) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV (3) A–V, B–IV, C–II, D–III (4) A–V, B–II, C–III, D–IV 85.

‘In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme.’ Which of the following statement concerning democracy in India best reflects this? (1) The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the political party possessing a majority in the Lok Sabha (2) An assembly of elected representatives exercises political authority on behalf of the people. (3) In case of a difference between the two Houses of Parliament, the final decision is taken in a joint session of the two Houses. (4) The permanent executive has more powers than the political executive.


[78]

90.

Which of the following statements best reflects the ‘socialist’ feature of the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (1) There are no unreasonable restrictions on how the citizens express their thoughts. (2) The traditional social inequalities have to be abolished. (3) Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socioeconomic inequalities. (4) No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

91.

Which of the following statements about the Indian judiciary is true? (1) India has an integrated judiciary. (2) The judiciary in India is subordinate to the Executive. (3) The Supreme Court is more powerful than parliament. (4) The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the Prime Minister.

92.

Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the right to Education? (1) Right to Equality (2) Right to Freedom (3) Cultural and Educational Rights (4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

93.

Which of the Following is NOT an indicator of economic development? (1) Increased per capita income (2) Decreased infant mortality (3) Increased life expectancy at birth (4) Decreased women participation in job market.

94.

The poverty line in Dinanagar is set at 100 per capita per day. Five Hundred people live in Dinanagar of whom 50 earn 30 per capita per day and another 25 earn 80 per capita per day each. Everybody else earn more than 100 per day per capita. What is the minimum amount that the government of Dinanagar will have to spend to completely eradicate poverty? (1) 3000 (2) 3500 (3) 4000 (4) 4500

95.

The local telephone company sells me a landline connection only if I purchase a handset from them as well. Which of the following rights does this practice violate under the Consumer Protection Act 1986? (1) Right to represent (2) Right to information (3) Right to choose (4) Right to seek redressal

96.

Match List-I (Type of Unemployment) with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List I (Type of Unemployment) A. Seasonal B. Frictional C. Disguised D. Structural E. Cyclical

List II (Characteristics) I. Occurs during boom or recession in the economy II. An absence of demand for a certain type of workers III Occurs when moving from one job to another IV. Actual contribution by the additional labour is nil V. Job opportunities during certain months in the year (1) A-V, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-I (2) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-I, E-II (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V (4) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I 97.

Suppose Indian Farmers sell wheat at 50 per kg and the international price of wheat is 40 per kg. What is the minimum rate of import duty Government of India must impose on imported wheat so that it does not adversely affect Indian farmers in the domestic market? (1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%

98.

The wage rate of a worker in a country is 300 per day. Which of these person(s) would you consider unemployed? A. Ramu is willing to work at 300 a day, but cannot find work. B. Suresh is willing to work only at 400 a day or more, and cannot find work. C. Shanti stays at home because she has young children to look after. (1) Ramu (2) Suresh (3) Ramu and Suresh (4) Ramu and Shanti

99.

Which of the following can be used as collateral in Indian banks to borrow money? (1) Bank Passbook (2) Credit Card (3) Own House (4) Passport

100.

The total agricultural land in a village is 1200 hectares. This is distributed among 320 families who form four groups in the following pattern. It is assumed that the land is distributed equally within each group. Identify the group of small farmers. Group Number of Families A 100 B 180 C 30 D 10 Total amount of land owned and operated by each group (in hectares) 300 300 300 300 (1) A (3) C (2) B (4) D


[79]

NTSE STAGE-II (2013) CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY Que s.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans

1

3

4

2

3

2

4

1

3

3

2

1

2

1

3

Que s.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans

2

3

1

4

4

1

3

1

4

1

2

1

4

1

3

Que s.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans

1

3

2

1

3

4

3

1

3

2

1

1

3

3

3

Que s.

46

47

48

49

50

Ans

2

4

2

4

1

26.

long candle length ® l short candle length ® s in 1 hr long Candle burn =

2.

l

5

so in 2 hr long candle burn = 2l 5

4.

a | bb | aaa | bbbb | aaaaa | bbb ...

5.

The no. in third column = No. in first column – No. in second column C3 Þ C1– C2 same in the rows R3 = R1 – R2

8.

9.

10.

long candle left = l – 2l = 3l 5

5

In 1 hr short candle burn =

s 3.5

So in 2 hr short candle burn = short candle left

Pythagorean Triplet x2 + y2 = z2 (79 + 65) 1/2 – (37 + 12)1/2 =5

s=

3 ´ 3. 5 l 5 ´ 1.5

s=

7 l 5 l , so = 5 s 7

= s–

2´s 3 .5 2s 1.5s = 3.5 3.5

nn – n 27. 3

11.

n –n

15.

3n + (–1)n

23.

(625 + 104)1/3 – (115 + 101)1/3 = 3

Total toys = x No. of dolls = x – 6 No. of car = x – 6 No. of books = x – 6 ATQ x–6+x–6+x–6=x 3x – 18 = x x=9

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406

[80]

30.

No. of buffalos =x No of cows = 2x x + 2x = 60 3x = 60 x= 20 No of cows = 40 No of buffalos = 20 As buffalo X is 17th So 16 Animal ahead of x out of which 9 are cows so 16 – 9 = 7 are buffalos So no. of buffalos below X = [20 – (7 + 1)] = 12

37.

In every one match are person in eliminated so when 118 match is completed than 118 person eliminated. So only two peron left and finally 119 match in which one person is eliminate and one wins.

38.

Sadhana < Ravi < Alka < Lata < Asha.

39.

First group Þ 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 Þ 15 Total match = 15 × 4 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 64

46.

32.–36.


[81]

NTSE STAGE-II (2013) CLASS-X [SAT]


1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans

4

2

4

3

1

2

2

2

3

4

2

4

2

1

3

Que s.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans

4

1

4

3

1

3

1

4

2

4

3

4

3

1

2

Que s.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans

4

3

3

4

1

3

1

2

3

4

4

1

3

1

3

Que s.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans

2

2

4

4

2

2

3

2

2

4

2

4

3

4

3

Que s.

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

Ans

3

3

3

4

1

3

1

4

2

4

2

2

4

3

4

Que s.

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

Ans Que s. Ans

3 91 4

2 92 2

4 93 4

4 94 1

2 95 2

4 96 2

1 97 4

4 98 3

1 99 2

1 100 2

1

3

4

1

2

15. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid B means liquid A is early vaporised than liquid B. Thus, liquid A has less B P and lower latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

Ca( OH)2 20. CaCO3 + mineral acid¾®CO2 ¾¾ ¾¾ ¾® CaCO3 (Y)

(X)

(X)

Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ¾¾® CaOCl2 (Y) (Z)Bleaching powder

16. 21. [A]CH3 –COOH + NH4OH ® CH3 – COONH4 + H2O weak acid

[B] Na2O First of all ‘C’ can be separated from the mixture by sublimation. Thereafter, the mixture of ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be put in water, filtered to separate B and recover A by crystallisation. 17. 2H2 + O2 ® 4gm 32gm 2gm 16gm 2 + 16 = 18 gm

2H2O 36gm 18gm

18. No. of electrons in L shell = 7 No. of protons = 9 Electronic configuration = 2,7 By acquiring one e– in L shell gets 8e– in the last shell. 19. This reaction takes place in presence of oxygen. Hence, it is a combustion reaction and in this reaction there is a addition of two elements so it is combination reaction.

weak base

+

salt

H2O ¾® NaOH + H2

metal oxide

base

[C] Mg + 2HCl ¾® MgCl2 + H2 metal

[D] Na2 O Metal oxide

salt

+

2HCl

¾®

Mineral acid

2NaCl + H2O Salt

22. 2Al + 6HNO3 ¾® Al2O3 + 6 NO2 + 3H2O | Protective layer

23. Na + H2O ¾® NaOH + H2 + Energy ( X)

( Y)

( Z)

NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) ¾® NaCl(aq) + H2O( l ) X = Na, Y = NaOH, Z = H2


[82]

24.

Alkaline KMnO4 X ¾¾¾¾ ¾¾¾ ® Y Acidification (Carboxylic acid) ( Alcohol )

32. Resistance of each bulb is R.

Conc .

Z ¾¾¾ ¾® + X Y ( Alcohol ) (Carboxylic acid) H2SO 4 Sweet smelling subs tan ce

I=

Hence X = Ethanoic acid, Y = Ethanol, Z = Ethylethanoate

2

æ V ö V2 ÷ R = PA = PB = ç è 3R ø 9R

Alkaline C2H5OH ¾¾ ¾¾® CH3COOH KMnO4 ( Y) ( X)

4V 2 9R When bulb A is fused, then PC =

Conc .

¾® CH3COOC2H5 C2H5OH CH3COOH ¾¾ ¾ H2SO 4 + ( Y) ( X) ( Z)

25. C2H2 is Ethyne and C3H6 is propene. Both of them are hydrocarbon. Hence they would undergo combustion to form CO2 & H2O. Both C2H2 & C3H6 are unsaturated compounds. Hence they would undergo addition reaction. 26. 2X + 3H2 ¾® 2 XH3 Element ‘X’ is placed on R.H.S. of periodic table. It is non-metal. Element ‘X’ is combining with three monovalent Hatoms. Hence its valency is three. It has 5 valence electrons. It is a gas.

Now, current, I =

(X)

(Y)

30.

31.

.... (ii)

V 2R

V2 .... (iii) 4R So, B will be brighter and C will be dimmer 33.

Since VAB & resistance (2R) is same so ‘i’ will also be same

34.

KE =

p2 2m

P is same so KE µ

1 m

35.

x is decreasing with decresing speed

37.

Average speed =

(Z)

Molucular formula of Z is XY2. Compound ‘Z’ is ionic compound, hence it would conduct electricity in molten state.

28.

.... (i)

So. PB = PC =

27. Element ‘X’ (Z = 12) is Mg and, Element ‘Y’ (Z = 17) is Cl. Mg + Cl2 ¾® MgCl2

2V 3R

20 = 1 m/s 20 maximum speed from graph is between time t = 10 sec. and t = 18 sec. Vmax =

If air bubble is in the path then sound wave will take more time to travel this distance. In optical lens (for eye defects) concave lens is used. focal length must be much larger then 2.5 cm if it is equal or less than 2.5 cm then it mean that the power point is at approximetly 2.5 cm, which is not possible. Since Fg is perpendicular to displacement at each instant so Work done = 0

38.

g=

GM R2

20 - 4 16 = = 2 m/s 18 - 10 8

4 G pR 3r 3 = R2

4 p grR 3 g µR =

39.

Plastic is non magnetic substance and open ring does not form magnetic poles so due to induction only ring Q will experience retarding force


[83]

47. tan1° tan2° tan3° .........tan89° = (tan1° tan89°) (tan2° tan88) ......... tan45° = (tan1° tan1°) (tan2° cot2°) ...........(1) = (1) (1) .............. (1) =1

41.

48. ax2 + bx + c = 0 will have real roots when c = 0. V = x(12 – 2x)2 This box has maximum volme when x = 2 cm which is 128 c.c. So, volume130 cc is not possible. 42. For similarity of triangles we have SSS criteria. So S1 in true. But for polygon : two polygon to be similar if the corresponding sides are in same ratio then corresponding angle must be same. So S2 is not correct.

49. If we cut square S from a piece of tin at that time the volume of open box is 0. But the open box made from S is always be greater than 0. So according to this 4th option is not possible. 50. Every parallelogram is a trapezium

43.

51. Triangle (By SSS criteria). a = 2 3 cm 1 3 2 a(x + y + z) = a 2 4 x+y+z=

44.

4

3 3 a= ´2 2 2

3 = 3 cm

6765201 = 51

45. All odd square can be written in the form 8n+1 12 = 1 = 8 ´ 0 + 1 32 = 9 = 8 ´ 1 + 1 52 = 25 = 8 ´ 3 + 1 72 = 49 = 8 ´ 6 + 1

52. Let there are x human being and y dogs \ Total legs = 2x + 4y one tenth of x human beings lost a leg. x \ (2x + 4y) – = 77 10 19 x + 4y = 77 10 when x = 10 4y = 77 – 19 = 58 (Which is not possible). when x = 30 57 + 4y = 77 4y = 20 y=5 \ Number of dogs = 5 53. Let if we take n small simicircle of radii r If we take n small simicircle of radii 2R = 2nr If we take n small simicircle of radii R = nr

46. Part I = pR = npr Part II = n (pr) so Part I & II always be equal. æaö Area of interior region = a – p ç ÷ è2ø 2

= a2 – p

a2 4

æ4-pö = a2 ç 4 ÷ è ø

2

54. From 1 to 100 number. No. which are divisible by 4 = 25 No. which are divisible by 6 = 16 No. which are divisible by 12 = 8 No. which are divisible by 4 or 6 = 25 + 16 – 8 = 33 So, number which are not divisible by 4 or 6 = 100 – 33 = 67 67 So, required probability = = 0.67 100


[84]

55.

(a - b ) 2 +

57. 23.10 1 00 1 000 1 0000 ........ is an irrational number as it is Non-terminating & non-repeating.

(b - a )2

= |a – b| + |b – a| Let a > b

58. Out of the options, 14 cannot be made as it required 2, Rs. 5 coins & 4, Rs. 1 coin i.e. 5, 5, 1, 1, 1, 1.

Let a < b

then

then

|a – b| + |b – a|

|a – b| + |b – a|

=a–b+a–b

=b–a+b–a

= 2a – 2b

59. Ascending order 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 12, 15 Median =

= 2b – 2a

i.e. +ve

60. Average speed = 6 km/hr.

i.e. +ve

So answer is always +ve if a ¹ b 6= 56.

4 4 pR3 = p (r 3 +r 3 +r 3 +..........r 3) 1 2 3 n 3 3

... (i)

2

S1 = 4pR S2 = 4p(r12 + r22 + r32 + ...........+ rn2 ) From (i) , we get R3 = r13 + r23 + r33 +...... + rn3 If all smaller sphere are of equal radius i.e. r then,

7+8 = 7.5. 2

2´4´ x 4+x

24 + 6x = 8x 2x = 24 x = 12 km/hr.

4 3 4 pR = p ´ nr 3 3 3

R3 = nr3 S1 R2 (nr 3 )2 / 3 n2 / 3 ´ r 2 = 2 S2 = n ´ r 2 = nr nr 2

nS1 = n2/3 S2 Þ n1/3S1 = S2

\ S2 > S1.


[85]

NTSE STAGE-II (2014) CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY Que s. Ans.

1 1

2 3

3 1

4 4

5 4

6 1

7 1

8 3

9 1

10 4

11 3

12 1

13 2

14 4

15 3

Que s.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans.

1

2

2

2

3

2

4

3

1

2

1

1

4

3

4

Que s. Ans.

31 3

32 2

33 1

34 2

35 4

36 2

37 4

38 1

39 4

40 4

41 3

42 3

43 3

44 4

45 1

Que s.

46

47

48

49

50

Ans.

3

4

4

2

4

1.

+51, +102, +153, +204,..... Ans 520

2.

NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, RPA30, YAM31 JANUARY 31 DAYS FEBRUARY 28 DAYS MARCH 31 DAYS APRIL 30 DAYS....

7.

8.

14.

15.

(8+3)×(9–3) = 44 (4+2)×(12–3) = 54 (10+6)×(13–8) = 80 (7×5×12)÷10 = 42 (5×6×8)÷10 = 24 (9×6×15)÷10 = 81 11+1 = 2 22+2 = 6 33+3 = 30 44+4 = 260 55+5 = 3130

17.

FAST (62+12+192+202) = 798 LAST (122+12+192+202) = 906 BUSY (22+212+192+252) = 1431

30. Than MANIPUR = 14M13V11J9 31.

By Difference’s difference

32.

(22+32+42) – (12+52) = 3 (72+82+92) – (62+102) = 58

41.

(72+22)–(32+52) = 19 (82+52)–(72+42) = 24 (62+42)–(32+52) = 18

44.

953 (RVXYS) 28 All letter’s position from back side R - 9, V - 5, X - 3, Y - 2, S - 8 So, 714 (TZWUV) 65.

2×1+4=6 6×2+6=18 18×4+8=80 80×8+10=650


[86]

NTSE STAGE-II (2014) CLASS-X [SAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans.

15. 16.

17.

18.

1 4 16 2 31 4 46 2 61 3 76 3 91 1

2 2 17 2 32 1 47 2 62 1 77 2 92 2

7 3 22 4 37 2 52 3 67 4 82 2 97 3

8 2 23 4 38 3 53 1 68 2 83 3 98 1

Noise, vaccume and light flash not example of matter. X Y 100 ML ® water 100 ml ® water 20ºC 0ºC ® 100 g ¬ water 100 g ice ¬ 0ºC ¯ more cooling y is colder than x At 313 k it from saturated solution. therefore all 50 gm. will be dissolve. when temperature down to 283 K (62 – 21 = 41 gm.) will be crystall cut. A = Al B z = 13 z=8 valency = 3 valency = 2 = Al2O3

20.

formula mass

19.

3 3 18 3 33 3 48 4 63 4 78 4 93 2

4 1 19 4 34 1 49 3 64 1 79 1 94 4

5 4 20 2 35 1 50 3 65 4 80 3 95 3

6 2 21 4 36 1 51 2 66 2 81 1 96 3

21.

and

22.

= 27 × 2 + 16 × 3 = 102

Q

® LR 12 gm C give CO2 = 44 gm

\

3 gm C give CO2 =

44 3 × 12 1

13 1 28 2 43 4 58 1 73 3 88 1

14 2 29 4 44 3 59 3 74 2 89 3

15 3 30 4 45 3 60 1 75 4 90 4

Q M shell is the valency therefore valency = 7

O2 + H2 ® H2O (g) O.S. of O2 become ¾®zero to – 2 Qit will be reduced Oxidation state of H2 becomes zero to + 1 it will be oxidised Q therefore reaction will be redox NH4 OH + CH3COOH ® CH3COONH4 + H2O base acid salt

Order of acidic strength H2SO4 > HCl > NH4OH Strongest acid

24. =1

12 4 27 2 42 4 57 3 72 2 87 2

ZnCO3 D ZNO + CO2 (thermla decompostion) 2Al + Fe2O3 ®Al2O3 + 2Fe (Thermite reaction)

32 mole of O2 = 32

1 4

X ® K, L, M shell 2,8,7 X = Cl

11 4 26 2 41 1 56 4 71 1 86 3

2AgCl hn 2Ag + Br2 (Photo chemical decomposition)

23.

=

10 3 25 4 40 1 55 3 70 2 85 4 100 4

(neutralisation reaction)

C(g) + O2 ¾® CO2 (g) 3 mole of = 12

9 4 24 3 39 4 54 3 69 3 84 3 99 3

strong acid

> NaOH

Weak base

strong bas

Na, K, Ca, Mg (i) Qthese matals can lose e– easily as compared to C therefore these are better reducing agent as compare to C. (ii) due to strong electropositive behaviour of these metals having strong tendency to react with oxygen.

= 11 gm


[87]

25.

Molecular formula ® C6H12

32.

Given :F = 10 N, m = 1 kg, t = 2s, u = 0 W =? s = 0 + 1/2 (10/1) (2)2 = 20 m W = 10×20 = 200 J

33.

Stethoscope is based on multiple reflection of sound.

cyclohexane 26.

27.

M.F. C4H8O

29.

30.

v1 sin i = v = n21 sin r 2

35.

f1 = 0.5 m, P1 =

36. 37.

(d) atomic no. 17 is Cl atomic no. 16 is S atomic no. 35 is Br Q Cl is more electronegative Body moving with constant speed can have acceleration only if it moves along a curved path. m = 20 Kg, u = 2 m/s, v = 0, S = 5 m v2 = u2 – 2 aS 0 = 4 - 2a x 5 a = 0.4 m/s2 F = ma = 20 x 0.4 = 8 N F=

G(m)( 4m)

38.

(100 ´ 10 3 )2 for smaller mass G(m)( 4m) m(1) =

39.

(1010 )

1010 4 for bigger mass

1 =2D 0.5

P1 + P2 = 1.5 2 + P2 = 1.5 P2 = –0.5 D 1 \ f2 = =–2m - 0.5

(a) Atomic no 18 it will be Ar ® inert gas valency = zero (c) 9, 17, 35, all are belong same group that is 17 and have same valency.

28.

34.

40.

Myopia, means person can see nearby objects.

W = DKE 5(q) = 1/2 mv2 10 q v2 = m mp > me \ ve > vp Magnetic field line are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet, only one field line passes through a point DC generator has split ring (commutator), whereas AC generator does not. Energy of star is due to Nuclear Fusion.

Gm =

G(m)( 4m) (4 m) (a) =

31.

(25 ´ 10 3 )2

Gm 1010 104 a= = = 625 ´ 1010 2500 4 ´ 625 ´ 10 6 2 a = 4 m/s Buoyant force B = 0.02 rl g v¢ = 0.02 100 × 10 ×V¢ = 0.02 V¢ = 0.02 × 10–4 m3 = 2 cm3

41.

æ 2 ç 1+ ç 3 ç 2 3 + çç 13 è 13

ö ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷÷ ø

æ 3 ç 1ç 2 ç 13 13 çç + 2 è 3

ö ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷÷ ø


[88]

æ ç ç = ç çç è

ö ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷÷ 13 ø 5 3 5

æ -1 ç ç 2 ç çç 5 13 è 6

3 (3x) 2 DE = AE – AD

ö ÷ ÷ ÷ ÷÷ ø

AE =

6 æ - 1ö 1 13 ÷ ´ ´ ç =– 5 è 2 ø 5 13 3

=

=

3x –x 2

=

x 2

AD = 1 42.

6- 5 Þ

6 +

3 –

5- 2

5 –

–

5–

6+ 2 2–

6 +

=

27 2 x 2 x + 4 4

=

28 x 2 = 4

2

Þ0

43.

AE 2 + DE 2

4

p(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 2 = 3(x2 – 2

5 2 x+ ) 3 3

2

5 2 æ5ö æ5ö 2 = 3[ x - x + ç ÷ - ç ÷ + ] 3 3 è6ø è 6ø

46.

æ BX ö ç ÷ è AB ø

2

BX = AB

2

éæ 5ö 25 2 ù = 3 êç x - 6 ÷ - 36 + 3 ú êëè ø úû

1–

2 éæ 5ö - 25 + 24 ù ê ú x + ç ÷ =3 6ø 36 êëè úû

=

7x=4

7

1 2

1 2

1 BX =1– 2 AB

AB - BX = AB

2 éæ 5ö 1ù ê ú x ç ÷ =3 6ø 36 ú êëè û

7x 2 =

2 -1 2

AX 2- 2 = AB 2

2

5ö 1 æ = 3çx - ÷ 6ø 12 è so minimum value is – 44.

45.

1 12

Let |x| = y y2 + y – 6 = 0 (y + 3) (y – 2) = 0 y = – 3 or y = 2 |x| = – 3 which is not possible |x| = 2 \x= ± 2 The product of the roots is –4 3x =12 , x = 4

47.

area equilateral D =

1 3 2 a = a (P1 + P2 + 2 4

P3) 2 3 2 a ´ = P1 + P2 + P3 a 4

3a = P1 + P2 + P3 2


[89]

48. 52. infinite tripazium can be made 49.

50.

1+1+1+1+ 1+1 2 +1 + 1 + 1 + 1 3+1+1+1 4+1+1 5 +1 2 +3+1 2 +4 3 +3 2 +2+2 2 +2 +1+1

1 way 5 way 4 way 3 way 2 way 6 way 2 way 1 way 1 way

Let radius = r area of sector APO =

120 1 ´ ppr2 = pr2 360 3

area of sector PBO =

6 way

=

n2 – 3n +3 = m2 ....(1) n2 – 3n + 3 – m2 = 0

1 2 pr 6

Now area of DAOP =

this eq. have integer roots. if a = 1, b,c Î I D is perfect sq. \ 9 – 4.1 . (3–m2 ) = k2 4m 2 – k2 = 3 (2m + k) (2m – k) = 3 × 1 2m + k = 3 2m – k = 1 on solving we get m = 1 Put m = 1 in equ.(1) n2 – 3n + 3 =1 (n – 2) × (n – 1) = 0 n = 2,1 so two values of n are possible 51.

N1 = 15x N2 = 15 y LCM ´ HCF = N1 ´ N2 225 ´ 15 = 15x 15y xy = 15 3.5 = 15 1.15 = 15 So, N1 = 3 ´ 15 = 45 N2 = 5 ´ 15 = 75 15 = 225 (45, 75) , (15, 225) two such pair exist

=

60 ´ pr2 360

1 ´ 2

r 3r ´ 2 2

3r 2 4

3 2 r 4 area of major shaded area : Area of minor shaded area Now area of DBOP =

æ1 2 3 2 ö÷ æç 1 2 3 2 ö÷ ç = ç 3 pr - 4 r ÷ : ç 6 pr - 4 r ÷ è ø è ø =

4p - 3 3 2p - 3 3

x and y are coprime 54.

or N1 = 1 ´ 15 = 15 N2 = 15 ´

x2 + y2 = 250 a2 + b2 + c2 = 250 \ x = 13 y=9 a=5 b = 12 c=9


[90]

A1 + A2 + A3 = 21 + 20 + 57.

(1)

= 41 + = 59.

(2)

420 29

420 29

1189 + 420 1609 = 29 29

Let 4th term = x + 3d = a 7th term = x + 6d = b 10th term = x + 9d = c on solving (1) & (2) we get x = 2a – b

..(1) ..(2)

a - (2a - b) 3 10th term = x + 9d = C &d=

æ a - (2a - b ) ö ÷ =C 2a – b + 9 ç 3 è ø = 2a – b + 3a – 6a + 3b = C – a + 2b = C 2b = a + c sum of roots of equation ax2 – 2bx + c = 0

(3)

sum of roots =

2b a+c = a a

(4) 60.

58.

a2 area of square PQRS 1 2 area of square PABCD = 2 = 2 a

20 + 21 + 29 s= = 35 2 D=

35 ´ 15 ´ 14 ´ 6

=

5´7´3´5´7´2´2´3 =5´7´3´2 = 210 210 =

1 A 20 2 1

A1 = 21

210 = A2 =

1 A 29 2 2

420 29

1 A ´ 21 2 3 A3 = 20 210 =


[91]

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION NTSE STAGE-II (2015) CLASS-X [MAT]

HINTS & SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans.

1 3

2 2

3 4

4 3

5 2

6 2

7 4

8 4

9 1

10 3

11 4

12 3

13 3

14 3

15 1

16 1 31 2 46 2

17 3 32 2 47 4

18 3 33 2 48 3

19 1 34 3 49 2

20 2 35 3 50 1

21 3 36 2

22 2 37 4

23 1 38 2

24 3 39 3

25 4 40 4

26 2 41 4

27 2 42 3

28 4 43 3

29 3 44 2

30 2 45 3

19. 1.

17.

112 – 92 121 – 81 = 40

option (3) is correct. Logic:Some women are teachers, so circle representing women and teacher are intersected and some women are docors, so circle representing women and doctors are also intersected. But there is no intersection between two profession so circle representing docotr and teacher are not intersected.

252 – 212 625 – 441 = 184

20.

two series first series 3,24,63,?,195 pattern 22–1,52–1,82–1,112–1,142–1 so first ?=120 second series: 6,30,72,?,210 pattern 22+2,52+5,82+8,112+11,142+14 so second ?=132

22.

[62 – (4 × 4)] –1 = 19 =S [42 – (7 × 1)] –1 = 8 = H [82 – (5 ×10)] –1 = 13 = N

24.

2.5 1 Avg. Speed = 1 + + 0.5 = 2 4

2.5 2.5 = 1.625 1 + 0.5 + .125 26.

18.

152 – 72 225 – 49 = 176

A x

B y

C 100 – x – y

500 = 2x x = 250

B = y = 250

100 - x - y = 250 2 1000 – x – y = 500 x + y = 500 y = 250 Ans. (2)


[92]

27.

5e + 7s + 9p = 100 × a 2e + 6s + 10p = 80 × b

35. Man × days =1600 = 400 + 350 Man = 40 40 35

5a – 25 = 7a 65 = 9a – 105 2a = 4b

45 to 47 N E T I S P R U M

7:x 90 =

1 ö æ ç 7 ´ 30 + x ÷ – 6x 2 ø è

90 = 210 +

6x –

x – 6x 2

x = 120 2

11x = 120 2 x=

9 240 9 ´ 60 = 21 = 21 min + 11 11 11 = 21 min +

D=

100 20 = = 6.66. 15 3

Total day = 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 6.66 = 56.66

120 = 15 e+s+p= 8 28.

+ 250 + 200 + 100 25 20 15

100 = M × D 100 = 15 × D

10e + 14s + 18p = 200 2e + 6s + 10p = 80 8e + 8s + 8p = 120

a = 25 = 2

+ 300 30

540 sec. 11

=$ =# =@ =% =& =? =* =+ ==

45.

MINT = % $ @ Ans. (3)

46.

RINSE * % $ &# Ans. (2)

47.

INTEREST % $ @ # * # & @

= 21 min 49 sce

æ

90 = 6x – ç 7 ´ 30 +

è

90 = 6x – 210 –

300 =

x=

1 ö x÷ 2 ø

x 2

11x 2

6 600 6 ´ 60 sec = 54 = 54 min + 11 11 11 =54 min +

360 sec. 11

= 54 min 32 sec.


[93]

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION NTSE STAGE-II (2015) CLASS-X [SAT]


1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

Ans

3

1

2

4

2

2

1

4

3

1

3

1

4

2

4

Que s.

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

Ans

4

4

1

3

2

4

2

2

2

3

1

3

2

3

4

Que s.

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

Ans

3

4

2

3

2

2

2

2

2

3

2

1

1

4

2

Que s.

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

Ans

3

4

4

4

2

3

3

1

3

4

4

3

2

1

2

Que s.

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

Ans

1

4

4

1

1

4

1

1

2

3

3

4

4

3

2

Que s.

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

Ans Que s. Ans

4 91 3

2 92 3

2 93 4

1 94 1, 3

3 95 4

1 96 4

4 97 3

3 98 3

1 99 2

2 100 2

1

4

2

1

2

15.

16.

Solubility of S = 28.6% at 50° C Amount of solute in 50 ml of saturated solution = 14.3g at 50° C at 40°C amount of S separates out = 2.4g in 50 ml remaining solute = 11.9gin 50 ml solubility of S at 40° C =

Given, amount of C = 6g amount of oxygen = 32g C + O2 ® CO2 12g 32g 44g Q 12g of C gives the amount of CO2 = 44g

44 g 12

Q 6g of C gives the amount gm of CO2 =

44 × 6 = 22g CO2 12

18.

Law of conservation of mass is only valid for chemical reactions and not for nuclear reactions.

19.

a-particle is doubly positive helium ion 24 He+ + No. of proton = Z = 2 No. of neutrons = A – Z = 4 –2 = 2 No. of electron = zero

11.9 × 100 = 23.8% 50

m/v 17.

Q 1g of C gives the amount gm of CO2 =

On compressing the gas, no. of collision of molecules at per unit area of the wall of the cylinder increases. Average Kinetic energy of the molecules remains constant as the temperature is constant.

20.

m 1 =69 for isotope 69Z m 2 = 71 for isotope71Z x1 = abundance of 69Z= 60% X2 =abundance of 71Z= 40% Relative atomis mass =

=

m1x 1 + m2 x 2 100

69 ´ 60 + 40 ´ 71 = 69.8 100


[94]

27.

In periodic table Electropositive nature increases from top to bottom in a group Electronegative nature decreases from top to bottom is a group Atomic size decreases from left to right in a period

28.

Let them meet at time t. At that time velocity of man must be greater or equal to as that of bus. u ³ at t £ u /a

21.

22.

1 2 at + d = ut 2 23.

d = ut –

D Cu2S+ O2 ¾¾® Cu2O + SO2 X Y copper glance

d £ u (u/a) –

2Cu2O + Cu2S ¾¾® 6Cu + SO2 Y 24.

25.

(i) Nitrate ores are rarely available as all nitrates are soluble in water. (ii) Bond dissociation energy of N2 is very high as the 3 covalent bonds are present between two nitrogen atoms. Both the statement are correct but the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

d £ 29.

1 u2 a 2 a2

u2 2a

v = u + at 0 = u – gt t = u/g = n(total time of ascent)

Snth = u + = u-

4 Structural isomers are possible for C4H9Br H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br CH3–CH2–

1 2 at 2

1 a(2n - 1) 2

1 æ 2u ö gç - 1÷÷ 2 çè g ø

= g/2

–CH3 30.

g=

4 prRg 3

g A rA R A = g = r ´R B B B =3×2=6

26. Total no. of electrons of C atoms = 3 × 6 = 18 electrons Total no. of electrons of O atoms = 1 × 8 = 8 electrons Total no. of electrons of H atoms = 6 × 1 = 6 electrons Total no. of electrons in one molecule = 32 electrons No. of electrons involved in bonding = 2 × total no. of bonds = 2 × 10 = 20 electrons

31.

In all case displacement is perpendicular to force. W1 = W2 = W3 = 0

33.

fdisc =

35.

Req =

360 rev =6 60 sec fsound = 60 × fdisc = 360 Hz R R R 4R + + = 2 3 2 3

V 3V I= R = eq 4R


[95]

36.

Bulbs are connected in parallel so V is same Heat produced by first bulb H1 = 12 × 10 = 120 J Similarily, H2 = 2× 10 = 20J H3 = 6 × 10 = 60J

37.

Magnetic field is produced by moving charge

44.

2x + y = 10 (x + y) + x = 10 x + y is max when x = 0 \ (x +y)max = 10 2x + y = 10 2(x + y) – y = 10 \ x + y is min y = 0 10 =5 2 \ (x + y)max + (x + y)min = 10 + 5 = 15 (x + y)min =

41.

42.

As the LCM of 12x and 5y is 720 so, 720 should be divisible by 5y or 144 is divisible by y. so, y should be the factor of 144 so, according the option to i.e. 144 is correct

45.

x = 5n + 2 y = 5m + 4 x + y = 5(m + n) + 6

a=

144 64

(a – d) 1. (a + d) =

=

x=

5 x=1 2

y+

1 = 1 (Not possible) y

1 5 = y 2 on solving we get 15 64

15 64

9 5 – 16 16

4 1 = 16 4

1 2 (a + d) – (a – d) =a+d–a=d

1 2 so only one integral solution possible. y = 2,

æ 9 ö - d2 ÷ = 15 ´ 4 = 5 ç 16 è ø 64 3 16 d2 =

= x2 – 2

y+

144 6 3 = = 64 8 4

(a2 – d2) 1. =

y2

7x – 2 (x2 – 2) = 9 7x – 2x2 + 4 = 9 2x2 – 7x + 5 = 0 2x (x – 1)– 5 (x – 1) (2x – 5) (x – 1) = 0

2z - 5 =–1 3 a=a–d b= a g=a+d 3a =

1

y2 +

x+y Remainder =1 5 \z=1

43.

1 =x y

y+

46.

.A, B, A + B are in AP \ 2B = A + A + B 2B = 2A + B B = 2A \ Area of bigger circle = A + B = 3A 3A = pR2

pR 2 3

A=

pr2 =

d= ±

pR2 3

r2 =

42 3

æ 1ö = 2ç ÷ è2ø

r2 =

16 3

=1

r=

4 16 4 3 = = 3 3 3


[96]

47.

c=a+b–8 Þa+b–c=8 a=b+c–8 Þb+c–a=8 b=a+b–8 (a + b + c) = 2 (a + b + c) – 24 a + b + c = 24 a+b–c=8 2c = 16 c=8 c=a=b=8

1- cos x 1 = sin x 3 3(1 – cosx) = sinx 9(1 + cos2x – 2cosx) = 1 – cos2x 9 + 9cos2x – 18 cosx = 7 – cos\2x 8 + 10cos2x – 18 cosx = 0 5cos2x – 9 cosx + 4 = 0 5cos2\x – 5cosx – 4cosx + 4 = 0 5cosx (cosx – 1) – 4(cosx – 1) = 0 cosx = 1 cosx = 4/5 sinx =

=

54 ´ 22 – 108 7

Þ

1188 - 756 432 = 7 7

= 61

51.

135p 1 ´ 122 – ´ 3x ´ x 360 2

5 7

% Change =

6pr 2 4pr 2

´ 100 = 150 %

52.

3 5

\ cos2x – sin2x = 49.

Then area =

3 2 8 = 16 3 4

area = 48.

x=6 2

16 9 7 – = 25 25 25

DABC ~ DADE

D=

abc 4R

12 - 2r 12 = r 5

R=

abc 4D

r=

30 11 Vol. of cylinder = pr2h = pr2(2r) = 2pr3 = 127.39

æqö 2.7.7.14 sinç ÷ è2ø = 4.49 sinq æqö 7 sinç ÷ è2ø 7 æqö = æqö æ q ö = 2 secç 2 ÷ 2 sinç ÷ cosç ÷ è ø è 2ø è2ø pR2 = =

æqö 22 49 ´ sec2 ç 2 ÷ è ø 7 4

54.

æqö 77 sec2 ç 2 ÷ è ø 2

x 1 = y x -1 x2 – x = y cos72 =

50.

2 x = 12

x2 + y2 - x2 2 xy

x2 – x = 2x cos72° x – 1 = 2 cos72° x = 1 +2 cos72°


[97]

æ 5 - 1ö ç ÷ =1+2 ç 2 ÷ è ø 5 -1 = 2 \ BD = x – 1

5 +1 2

5 +1 –1= 2

5 -1 2

=1+

=

58.

3 + a 5a + 1 , ) 2 2 these coordinats of M satisfy only 2. option. M(

59. 55.

Three digit = 3 ´ 3 ´ 2 = 18 Div. by 5 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 1 + 3 ´ 2 = 10 10 5 = 18 9 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 +9 + 10 + 11 + 12 + 13 + a + b = 13 ´ 15 91 + a + b = 195 a + b = 195 – 91 = 104 Now according to option 51 + 53 = 104 \ 2nd larger value is 51 Req. Probability =

60. ÐBAC – ÐOBC = 90 + q – q = 90

57.

areaDPBC 6 x 3 = = areaDABC 10 x 5


[98]


HINTS & SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY 1 3 16 3 31 3 46 3 Q.1

2 3 17 2 32 4 47 3

3 2 18 1 33 2 48 3

D

3

+3

4 3 19 4 34 3 49 2

Y

3

G

5 2 20 2 35 1 50 3

2

–4

9

+3

U

3

J

3

–4

27

Q

4

+3

3

M

–4

81

+3

3

P

M

5

–4

243

I

6 1 21 2 36 3

7 4 22 4 37 4

8 3 23 2 38 4

9 2 24 3 39 3

–13

91

Q.3

14 3 29 1 44 1

15 1 30 2 45 4

Case I :

Designer

Teachers

–13

78

Professors

Designer Male

Case II :

–13

Teachers

65 –13

Clearly in both case Conclusion III is follow and either I follows or II follows.

52 Q.10

B® C® A® E® D® |–®

Q.13

From 1st and 3rd diagram :

C

B

13 3 28 3 43 4

M ale

Q.7

H

E

12 4 27 1 42 3

Professors

0.8 (.8) = .512 0.04 (.04) 3 = .000064

F

11 2 26 3 41 2

104

3

Q.2

10 1 25 2 40 1

1 (Science) 2 (Hindi) 3 (Mathematics) 4 (Sanskrit) 5 (English) (Hindi or Sanskrit)

B

A D

G

G

Y

R

Bl G

Q.14 Q.6

Þ

O

– 33 + 11 – 9 + (28 ¸ 4) × 5 = – 33 + 11 – 9 + 7 × 5 = – 33 + 11 – 9 + 35 = – 42 + 46 = 4


[99]

Q.15

REASON ® PGYUMP 18 5 1 19

15

14 ––––® 16

7

25

21

13

6 4 7 2 = 15 Þ (6 × 4) – (7 + 2) = 15

16

–2

9 3

+2

4 5 = 18 Þ (9 × 3) – (4 + 5) Þ 27 – 9 = 18

–2 +2

8 3

–2

4 6 = ? Þ (8 × 3) – (4 + 6)

+2

Þ D

I

R

E

C

T

4

9

18

5

3

20

-2

+2

-2

+2

-2

+2

2

11

16

7

1

22

ß B

ß K

ß P

ß G

ß A

ß V

Q.16 Given C’s age = 12 yrs

10 = 14 Q.21

Q.23

3 × 12 = 18 yrs. 2 We know, A is 12 years older than B Þ A’s age = 18 + 12 = 30 yrs Þ Mother’s age = 2(30) = 60 yrs. Þ Husband’s age = 60 + 5 = 65 yrs Þ Ram’s age who is 15 yrs younger than him = (65 – 15) yrs = 50 yrs Alphabetical order : Anu (A), Joy(J), Pritam (P), Zeba (Z)

Cleary, all fathers are men and some of them can be teacher’s also, Therefore, it will be like this :

M F

Þ B’s age =

Q.17

Þ 24 –

T

Reena > Rita > Zoha and Reena = Reeta + 2 = Zoha + 5 ... (i) Also Reena + Zoha = 3(Rita – 5) by equation (i) (Rita + 2 ) + (Rita – 3) = 3(Rita – 5) 2Rita – 1 = 3Rita – 15 Þ Rita = 14 years 12 inch

Q.24

c

C b

Working days are : M T W Th F For 3 weeks : A J P Z A J P Z A J P Z A J P

2 inch

Pieces which have only two types of coatings are at edges, so no. of pieces = 2[(4 – 2) + (6 – 2)] = 2[2 + 4] = 12

Only Zeba work for 3 days. Q.18

Clearly, its Pritam who workded on 1st Wednesday then its Zeba and after her Anu.

Q.19

Printed Price = Rs 1000/After discount of 60% , price will be :

60 ö æ ÷ = Rs 400/Rs ç1000 - 1000 ´ 100 ø è Now, after this their is discount of 40% also : \ the price will be: 40 ö æ ÷ = Rs 240/Rs ç 400 - 400 ´ 100 ø è Q.20

Q.25

Pieces which have only one type of coating are at top surface of cake, so no. of pieces = [(6 – 2) × (4 – 2)] = 4 × 2 = 8

Q.26

As there are only 8 pieces of cake having chocolate cream and total pieces are 24 \ Remaining pieces = 24 – 8 = 16

Q.27

In morning Su is in the East so Monika’s face will be in North,

4 5 2 3 = 13 Þ (4 × 5) – (2 + 5) = 20 – 7 = 13 Þ Multiplying above two and subtracting sum of 2 number lying in lower row.


[100]

Q.28

Clearly – Both the statements are sufficien. So answer is 3

Q.29

We have four horses in one race divide 16 horses in for groups

Q.30

Q.39

Logic 12 + 52 + 72 = 75 92 + 72 + 82 = 194 82 + 32 + 42 = 64 + 9 +16 = 64 + 25 = 89

Q.40

Using Net

Q.41

First bell will ring at exact 8 O’clock, in next 8 seconds 7 bells will ring.

b,c,e, g, k, ? , q , s 2 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 11 , 13 , 17 , 19 All consecutive prime numbers so alphabet correspond to 13 is m.

Q.32

6 4

5

3

2 1

\ time taken for 1 ring = Points opposite to 2 is 6. Q.33

Q.34

8 × 10 = 11.43 sec. 7 (Q 1 bell will ring at exact 11 O’clock)

2, 10, 30, 68, _____, 222 2' = 13 + 1 10 = 23 + 2 30 = 33 + 3 64 = 43 + 4 130 = 53 + 5 222 = 63 + 6

8 sec. 7

\ time taken for 10 ring =

Q.42

1. ADEF 2. AGHD 3. ABCD

T–S×B–M B is wife of M T is wife of S S is son of B From these not true statement is S is the daughter of B

4. ABDH 5. ACDH 6. AFDG 7. AGDE 8. ACDF

Q.35

(1) Either I or II ; and III follows S

9. ABED

A

10. AFBD

B

11. ACDE

F

Sol. 43-45 According to given information

9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643 Q.36

14 28 55

113 424

9 + 14 = 23 23 + (2 × 14 =28) = 51

43.

(4) Umesh

44.

(1) Prem

45.

(4) Information inssufficient

51 + (2 × 28 = 56) = 107 Q.38

Age order Ronald > Veena

Amilia Parul > Ronal > Veena Shree > From this Parul is elder to Veena


[101]

46.

Given codes

Q. 48

1218199 Þ 121

81

99

(11)2

(9)2

11×9

1006480 Þ 100

64

80

(10) 2

(8)2

10×8

81

49

63

814963 Þ

643648 Þ

(9)2 (7) 2

9×7

64

48

36

(8)2 (6)2

8×6

49

35

492535 Þ

25

Q.49

æ è

500 = 5 × ç10n +

7×5

Cubical box each side length = 1 meter Means side of cube a = 1 meter Rod is fixed in the each side so length or Rod =

Q.47

(3) (6 – 5)3 + (1)2 (12 – 10)3 + (2)2 (18 – 15)3 + (3)2 (24 – 20)3 + (4)2

5(n - 1)n ö ÷ 2 ø

200 = 20n + 5n (n – 1) 200 = n(15 + 5n) 40 × 5 = n(15 + 5n) \ n=5 Days = 5 × 5 = 25 Q.50

(7)2 (5)2

(3) S T A R Y ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ g q d b e So tray Þ q b d e or b q d e Work = Man × days \ 20 × 25 = 10 × 5 + (10 + 5) × 5 + (10 + 5 × 2) × 5 + …….. 20 × 25 = 5[10 + (10 +5) + (10 + 5) × 2 + ….. (10 + 5 + n)]

3a=

3×1=

3 metre

Þ (1)3 + (1)2 = 1 Þ (2)3 + (2)2 = 8 + 4 =12 Þ (3)3 + (2)2 = 27 + 9 =36 Þ (4)3 + (4)2 = 64 + 16 =80


[102]


HINTS & SOLUTIONS ANSWER KEY 1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

3

2

1

3

4

4

2

3

3

1

4

2

2

4

2

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

4

2

2

3

2

1

2

4

3

4

4

3

2

3

4

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

1

3

3

1

2

1

2

3

3

1

1

4

1

4

4

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

2

2

1

3

1

3

4

4

2

4

2

3

4

4

4

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

1

3

4

1

1

3

2

4

4

3

4

1

3

2

1

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

2

3

3

3

4

4

4

1

3

2

3

4

2

4

2

91

92

93

94

95

96

97

98

99

100

4

3

1

1

2

3

3

2

2,3

3

Q.15

One molecule of H2O, contain 8 number of neutrons of oxygen atom only. So total no. of neutrons in 5 mole of H 2O molecules will be = 5 × 8 × 6.022 × 1023 = 2.409 × 1025

Q.16

Being more reactive Fe can displace copper from its salt solution. Fe + CuSO4 (aq.) ® FeSO4 + Cu¯

Q.17

In colloidal (B, D) and suspension (A) path of light is visible. Where as in solution (C) particles do not settle down in suspension (A) solute particles are visible to naked eye.

Q.18

Al is malleable but being more reactive it forms layer of oxide on its surface on exposing to air. So it cannot be used for a- particle scattering experiment.

Q.19

2 Mg + O2 ® 2MgO

Q.20

2Al2O3 ¾Electricit ¾ ¾¾y ® 4Al + 3O2 D CaCO3 ¾¾® CaO + CO2 D 2NaHCO3 ¾¾® Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2 D 2HgO ¾¾® 2Hg + O2

Q.21

Amphoteric oxide can react with both acid and base to from salt and water. Ex. : Al2O3 & ZnO

Q.22

X = Na Y = Cl

Q.25

No. of moles of O atoms =

9.033 ´ 10 23 = 1.5 6.022 ´ 10 23

mole Mass of O-atom = 1.5 × 16 = 24 g Moles of H-atom = 1.5 × 2 = 3 moles. Q.26

General formula of carboxylic acid is CnH2nO2


[103]

Q.28

I=

q t

h 2

Q = nte I × 1 = (n + 4.8 × 1018) × 1.6 × 10–19 N = 2.2 × 1018

s=r sv’g = 2r × v’g s × A × h × g = 2r × A × x × g

Q.29

x=

h 2

C

Q.39

(–x) A

`

R = mv 2 Q.30 Q.31

Q.32

Q.33

VA – 20 + 10 = vB (from KVL) VA – VB = 10 Magnetic force act perpendicular to velocity of charged particle magnetic field. So there is no component in direction of motion. Electric field can change only the velocity of charged particle. So velocity & momentum (mv) will be changed.

Q.40

Because kinetic energy is equal So x1= x2

Q.41

Desired No = LCM (13 & 21) k –10 Where k is a natural no. = 273 k –10 Given 500 < 273 k – 10 < 600 510 < 273 k < 610

æ dm + A ö æ 60 + 60 ö sin ç sin ç ÷ ÷ 2 è ø è 2 ø sin 60 = = = m= A 60 sin 30 sin sin 2 2

510 610
Speed of a body doesn’t depend on the direction.

Q.42

h 4

Q.38

r2 r1

B (–y)

Should be mv 2 from low of momentum conservation.

3 2 1 = 1.73 2 Q.37

h 2

r1

.34343434343..... .34343434343..... .68787878787...... = 0.687

h 2

‘OR’

34 31 0.34 = 99 & 3.4 = 90

h 4

34

31

681

So .34 + 3.4 = + = = 0.687 99 90 990 Given r1 = 2 r2 Mg = rv’g + (2rv’g) h A´h s ×A×h ×g =r×A× × g + 2r + × g. 2 4

Q.43

P(x) = k (x + 1)2 P(–2)= k (–1)2 = 2 Þ k = 2 Þ P(x) = 2 (x + 1)2 P(2) = 2 (2 + 1)2 = 18


[104]

Q.44

x– y = 2 + kx + y = 3 (1 + k)x = 5 Þ x =

n n + 3n + 5n + ..... + ( 2r - 1)n + 1 + 1 + ...... + 1 2

5 1+ k

=

n n{1 + 3 + 5 + .... + (2r - 1)} + r 2

=

n 2 rn r n+r = nr + 1 2 2

Q , (x, y) lies in first quadrant therefore, 5 must be (+) ve, 1+ k 5 > 0 Þ 1 + k > 0 Þ k > -1 ....(1) 1+ k From 1st equation x = 2 + y Substituting in 2nd equation kx + y = 3 Þ k(2 + y) + y = 3

A

\

h Q.47

60º

3 - 2k y= 1+ k We know, y > 0 Þ

B

3 - 2k >0 1+ k

3ö æ Þ kÎ ç - 1, ÷ 2ø è

….(2)

x2 – 6x – 2 = 0 a2 – 6a– 2 =0 a2 – 2 = 6a Similarly b2 – 2 = 6b

tan 30º =

1 h = …(1) 3 20 + x

DABD

tan 60º =

h = BD

h=

6 a 9 - b9 6 =3 9 9 = 2 a -b 2 Q.46

Þ

n n +1 2 n n 2 2 + n - 1 3 = 3n + 1 S2 = 2 2 n n 2 3 + n - 1 5 = 5n + 1 S3 = 2 2 M n 2r - 1 n + 1 Sr = 2 S1 =

S1 + S2 + …. + Sr =

n n + 3n + 5n + ..... + (2r - 1)n + 2

3

3x

….. (2)

from (2) in (1)

....(1) .... (2)

a10 - 2a 8 a10 - b10 - 2 a 8 - b8 2a 9 = 2 a9 - b9 a 8 a 2 - 2 - b8 b 2 - 2 = 2 a 9 - b9 From eq.(1), (2)& (3)

D 20 C

In DABC

3ö æ From (1) & (2) kÎ ç - 1, ÷ 2ø è Q.45

x

30º

3x 1 = 20 + x 3 3x = 20 + x Þ 2x =20 Q.48

x = 10 metre. cosec x – sin x = a

Þ ….(3)

1 - sin 2 x cos 2 x =a Þ =a sin x sin x

..

(1) Similarly secx – cos x = b

Þ

1 - cos 2 x =b cos x

Þ

sin 2 x =b cos x

From (1)

& from (2)

cos 4 x = a2 sin 2 x sin 4 x = b2 cos 2 x

… (2) ….(3)

…. (4)

Now, multiplying eq. (2) with eq. (3) & eq. (1) with eq.(4), we get a2b = cos3x (cos3x)2/3 = cos2x = (a2b)2/3 …. (5) Þ 2 3 & b a = sin x Þ (sin3x)2/3 = sin2x = (b2 a)2/3 …. (6) Now, adding (5) & (6), we get (a2b)2/3 + (b2a)2/3 = 1

n 1 + 1 + ..... + 1 r times 2 Þ

S1 + S2 + …. + Sr =


[105]

Q.49

35m

A

2pr2 = 4p Þ r2 = 2

B

3 h2

25m 12m

60º

D

12m C 23m Q.52

22 12 ´ 12 792 2 pr 2 ´ Then area = = = m 7 4 7 4 22 23 ´ 23 ´ When r = 23m, then area = 7 4 54819 2 = m 14 \ Increase in area =

5

V = 1m3 1 = a2 ×l

l = 90 cm

100 c, 3 90 Density = = 90 kg/m3 = .09 g/cm3 1 a=

3

æ 100 ö ÷ ´ 0.09 Weight of the cube = ç è 3 ø

A

Þ

100 ´ 100 ´ 100 9 × 27 100

Þ

10000 10 1 gm = kg Þ 3 kg 3 3 3

53m

Q.50

B

h2 =

side of square = a

54819 792 – = 302.5 m2 14 7

35m

32 - 2 2 = 5

1 2 p1 8 v1 1 = 3 = v2 1 2 10 p2 5 3

r2

Where r = 12 m

h2 =

C

66m

154 S= = 77 m 2

q

\ are of DABC = 77 ´ 11 ´ 24 ´ 42 = 924 m So area of circle = 1848 m 2

2

P

T q O

R

q

Q.53 q

2

2 ´ r 2 = 1848 7

S

R = 14 3 m

DPOT ~ DROS By AAA similarity Ð P = ÐR Since Alternate interior angles are equal therefore PT || RS

2p

Q.51 Q.54

4p Let radius of circle be 3 units 2pr1 = 2p Þ r1 = 1 3 h1

h1 = h1 =

32 - 12 = 8 8

Draw BL perpendicular to AC and join L to D. Since ÐBCL = 30º, we get ÐCBL = 60º. Since BLC is a right triangle with ÐBCL = 30º, we have BL = BC /2 = BD. Thus in ÐBCD, we observes that BL = BD and ÐDBL = 60º. This implies that BLD is an equilateral triangle and hence LB = LD. Using ÐLDB = 60º and ÐADB = 45º, we get ÐADL = 15º. But ÐDAL = 15º. Thus LD = LA. We hence have LD = LA = LB. This implies that L is the circumcentre of the

r1


[106]

– 14y – 6y = 49 – 9 – 20y = 40 y=–2 (x – 6)2 + (y + 6)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 (x – 6)2 + 16 = (x – 3)2 + 25 x2 + 36 – 12x + 16 = x2 + 9 – 6x + 25 6x = 18 x=3 Center = (3, –2)

1 1 ÐBLD = ´ 60º = 30 º 2 2

D. Thus, ÐBAD =

Since ÐADC = 135º. Which is equal to ÐBAD + ÐABC. Therefore ÐABC = 105º.

Q.55

Length of PS =

R1 + r

2

- R1 - r

R2 + r 2 - R2 - r

R1 + R 2

Q.58

2

A (2, 3)

2

2 R 1R 2 PQ = PS + QS By (1), (2), (3) & (4)

- R1 - R 2

2

=

….(4)

k= Q.59

B (–1, –2)

41 7

Let x is mean Then smallest no. = x – 10 largest no. = x + 15

So series x –10, 5, x + 15 [Q median = 5]

A

B

C

5 18 +2× =k 7 7

….(3)

2 R 1r + 2 R 2 r = 2 R 1 R 2 1 1 1 + = R1 R2 r 4

4

æ - 3 + 8 6 + 12 ö æ 5 18 ö Coordinate of C = ç 7 , 7 ÷ = ç 7 , 7 ÷ è ø è ø Point C lies on line x + 2y = k

So

Q.56

3

=

….(2)

2 R 2r Length of PQ =

=

….(1)

2 R 1r Length of QS =

2

x + 2y = k

6 5

Q

x - 10 + 5 + x + 15 =x 3 2x + 10 = 3x Þ x = 10 Given

C R

Þ

Therefore numbers are 0, 5 and 25

Þ

1 (Perimeter DABC) 2 1 1 AQ = (4 + 6 + 5) = × 15 2 2 AQ =

AQ = 7.5 cm

Q.60

0 + 25 + 625 650 2 0 2 + 5 2 + 25 2 = = = 216 3 3 3 3 P(getting atleast 5) = 1 – P(getting less than 5) 4 cases = 1 + 1 + 1 1+1+2 1+2+1 2+1+1 P(getting less than 5) =

(6, –6)

(3, –7) (x, y)

4 1 = 216 54

P (getting atleast 5) = 1 –

1 53 = 54 54

Q.57 (3, 3)

Points (6, –6), (3, –7) & (3, 3) (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = (x – 3)2 + (y + 7)2 y2 + 9 – 6y = y2 + 49 + 14y


[107]



1.

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

3

2

2

1

4

3

1

1

2

3

2

2

3

3

2

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

3

3

3

2

3

4

3

2

1

3

4

3

3

3

1

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

4

3

3

Bonus

3

1

3

2

3

4

2

1

1

2

4

46

47

48

49

50

1

4

4

4

1

On looking (i) & (ii) Good sing represent pie sie therefore pason

4.

represent mie. On looking (ii) & (iii) Good lyrics represents rie sie.

122 – 082

\ love represent tie good can be either rie or sie and accordingly (3) option follow that is rie

= 144 – 64

= 256 – 49

= 80

= 207

mie tie 2.

162 – (07)2

Option 1

ab_ab_aaa_bbaaa_bbbb ® ab/aabb/aaabbb/aaaabbbb \ (2) option abba 252 – 212 = 625 – 441

3.

= 184 24 + 25 = 40 + 41 =

=7 =9

36 + 45 = 50 + 71 =

7 + 9 = 16

9 + 11 = 20

= 11 1

5. C can be 1 or 5 or 6. But C cannot be equal to 1 because we get 5 digits in Answer. C is 5 or 6 By looking into the solution

70 + 99 = 100 + 125 =

= 13 = 15

(4) A = 2

B=3

C= 5

D=7

13 + 15 = 25


[108]

12.

Case – I

6.

Case – II

8+1=3+6 9=9

7.

and

Case – III

Conclusion A. Some boats are pens {follow in all} 8.

Option (1) is correct.

B. Some birds are paper {Not followed by 1}

Because it complete one rotation to reach its

C. None of the pens are birds {Not followed by 3}

starting point.

\ Only A follows.

13. 9.

On comparison W becomes SE.

10.

14.

(1) ABCIA

(2) CDHIC

(3) DEGHD

(4) BDHIB

(5) CEGIC

(6) DEFHD

(7) ABDHA

(8) BEGIB

(9) CEFIC

(10) ABEGA

(11) BEFIB

(12) ABEFA

255, 3610, 4915, M , 8125 52(5), 62(10), 72(15), 82(20), 92(25) \ M = 6420 Ans.

Cube with number face painted = (n – 2)3 Þ (6 – 2)3 Þ (4)3 = 64 (Option 3). 15. 11.

\ M = U 16 Option 2 16.

Sum of Column = 14 7 + 2 + 1 + 4 = 14 3 + 8 + 1 + 2 = 14

\ GH 24 is the odd among all. Option 2.

6 + 5 + 2 + 1 = 14 2 + 4 + 4 + M = 14 Þ M = 4 Option 3


[109]

17. (3) The expression is 56 (6 + 8) × 4 – 1 = 15.

27.

Radius of cylinder = 12 cm Height = 175 cm

18. (3) 100 – 81 27 + 3 × 6 = 115.

Height of new cylinder = 63 cm Let the radius of New cylinder r

19. (2) 68 satisfies all the given conditions.

So, volume of both cylinder should be equal (12)2 175 = r2 (63)

20. (3) (1, 9), (2, 8), (3, 7), (4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4), (7, 3),

on solving r = 20 cm.

(8, 2), (9, 1).

Option (3). 28. Option (3)

21.

Number of regions formed by lines follows the

29 and 30

pattern Hence 11 is the answer.

22. Number of students who do not play any game If square is divided in 4 region equally then any

is h.

region with 2 points will be having a property such

a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h = 150.

that distance between them is less than

b + g = 20

2 .

This means, we need minimum of 5 points such

e = 20

that atleast one of the region has two points and

f = 35

thus there will always be a pair of points such

d = 25

that distance between them is less than

a=h

2.

a= 23.

Given

h = a = 10.

Sum of digits of x is 15.

10 + 20 + c + 25 + 20 + 10 + 35 = 150.

So, x is divisible by 3 but not by 9.

So, c = 30.

and unit’s digit is 6. so x is even number.

29.

30. Average age of A, B and C is 43 years. So,

A BC = 43. 3

Number of students who play only kabadi is 30. Option (3).

Option (2) x is divisible by 6 but not by 9. 24.

e = 10 2

Number of students play only hockey is 10. Option (1).

31.

Number in the blank box = 72 + 92 + 82 = 49 + 81 + 64 = 194.

A + B + C = 129 Statement-I Age of C is 65 years.

32.

Number of circles 15.

I is sufficient as 129 - 65 = 64 sum of (B + C).

33.

M = 5x

Option (1) is answer.

W = 3x Let y part is removed and replaced by water. M = 5x –

25 -26.

W = 3x –

5 y 8

3 y+y 8

M=W 25. Option (3)

5x –

5 3 y  3x – y + y 8 8

26. Option (4)


[110]

x=

5 8 y y = y.. 8 5

40.

The minimum number of distinct colours needed to

A

T

13

1

20

so 13th prime is 41.

8 x 1 Required answer = 5 = . 5 8x

34.

M

1st prime is 2. 20th prime is 71. 41.

colour all the circles in the figure = 3

The digit in square is half of the sum of the number written in circle on either side of square.

35. 1 (8 + 3) = 6. 2

 x = 42.

= () H = 23 = 8

(1)4 = 1 + A. 43.

36.

C4 = (C2 . C3) C 1 = (10 – 7) 49 = 3 × 7 = 21.

37. 44. ar ABC is max.

The time gap between adjacent clock is 20, 40,

when AB = BC

R

, 80, 100

So the time in (V) clock.

AB2 + BC2 = AC2

is 12 : 20 + 60 min. = 1 : 20.

2AB2 = 72 AB = 6 = BC

45.

4, 6, 8, 10, 12

ar ABC = 1 1 ar ABC = × AB × BC = × 6 × 6 = 18 cm2. 2 2

No of cross increased by 2 So in the square there should be 4 cross.

46.

a, b, d, h, p 1 2 4 8 16

38. 47. By seen from west to east. E is a head of B

39.

and B is a head of A and A is ahead of C and D We can’t say () All king are beautiful nor . All Queen are King.

is ahead of C. By this conclusion any of the IV option are possible.

So neither nor follows.


[111]

48.

4 option is correct because if A is at the first place then. A __ __ __ Then C & D are always together. Which contradict the given condition that C & D can not be on adjacent seat.

49.

50.


[112]



2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

4

3

3

1

1

1

2

2

4

4

3

4

4

3

2

16

17

18

19

20

21

22

23

24

25

26

27

28

29

30

3

1

4

1

1

4

2

1

2

4

2

3

1

3

2

31

32

33

34

35

36

37

38

39

40

41

42

43

44

45

2

2

3

3

1

4

4

4

3

3

4

3

1

2

4

46

47

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

55

56

57

58

59

60

1

1

1

1

1

3

2

4

4

1

1

4

3

2

2

61

62

63

64

65

66

67

68

69

70

71

72

73

74

75

3

3

2

2

4

1

1

3

1

3

3

3

2

1

2

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

1

4

3

2

4

4

4

4

3

2

4

1

3

3

3

91

92

93

94

95

96

97

98

99

100

1

2

4

3

3

1

3

1

3

2

1.

Slowest growth will be observed in abscisic acid and auscin as Abscisic Acid is a plant growth inhibior hormone.

2.

They are cylindrical in appearance and has one nucleus per cell.

3.

C-Cerebellum and D-Mid brain controlls most of the involumtary actions

4.

Arthropoda phylum- All the given features are the characteristic features of the phylum arthropoda.

5.

Nostoc and Bacteria both are prokaryotic on the other hand in statement II- Penicillium in fungi but spirogyra is an algae.

6.

I and II- The other two features i.e. tap root system and two cotyledons are the characteristic features of dicots and the plant with parallel vanation is a monocat plant.

8.

II and IV The groups of organs are performing similar functions but have different origin.

9.

Trichoderma - It is used as fungicides

10.

Tt(F1) × tt (P) - A test cross is that in the plant with unknown genotype is creysed with the recessive plant. so Tt is the F1 generation and tt homogggous recessive.

11.

Elphantiasis is caused by Wuchereria worm (Nematoda) and Acne is caused by bacteria staphylococcus

12.

Pancreatic juice contains trypsin and lipase along with anylase

14.

Each bacteria doubles in 20 minutes so, after 20 minutes total bacteria = 2 × 10 Similarly, after 40 minutes total bacteria are 2 × 2 × 10 Therefore, in 120 minutes, total bacteria = 26 × 10

15.

Metal oxide ® M2O3 ® M+3 O–2 Metal Nitride ® M+3 N–3 ® MN

16.

Brass ® is Homogenous mixture (Cu + Zn)

17.

glucose (C6H12O6 ) ® 1.80gm mass =180

1.80 = .01 mol 180 1 ® 6 mol .01 mol ® .01 × 6 mol =


[113]

oxygen molecules ® .01 × 6 × NA = .01 × 6 × 6.23× 1023 = .06 × 6.023 × 1023 = 6 × 6.023 × 1021 = 36.132 × 1021 = 0.36 × 1023 36 water (H2O) 36 gm, mol = 18 = 2 mol = 2 mol × NA = 2 × 6.022 × 1023 = 12.044 × 1023 Total ‘O’ atoms = 12.044 × 1023 + 0.36 × 1023 = 12.404 × 1023 18.

35

Cl

37

1

& :

3

25

:

75

19.

Hence, C & E are not chemically same so answer is (4) 26.

Cl

Zn(s) + 2 Ag NO3 (aq) ® Zn (NO3)2 (aq) + 2 Ag(s) Hence, Zn is more reachive then Ag SoI + displace the Ag, from aqous solution.

25 ´ 35 75 ´ 37 + = 100 100 =

25.

27.

Temperature ® –5ºC– 0ºC ® T at 0ºC ® Phase change

875 + 2775 3650 = = 36.5 µ 100 100

(T = constant) at 0ºC to 100ºC ® Temperature is increased

Turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueuous solution of (i) Potassium acetate (CH3COOK), because potassium acetate is basic salt

28.

From t = 0 ® 1 v ® increasing slop

20.

From t = 1 ® 2 v ® constant

D

2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 D Cu2S + 2Cu2O ¾¾® 6Cu(s) + SO2(g)

21.

slop

dv = negative = –1 dt

Ester and Carboxylic acid R–COOR , – COOH 29.

23.

dv =a=0 dt

From t = 2 ® 3 v ® decreasing

Both graphite and diamond are allotrops of carbon all their chemical properties are same. although they show different physical properties.

slop 22.

dv = a = constant dt

RQ2

1 1 1 = = f v u

Þ

1 -10 1 + = –2 f 4 2

is covalent compound

Þf= 24.

-1 Þ concave lens 2

power (p) =

30.

X is CH3COOH, C2H4O2

1 = 2.0 D f

suppose ball will reach the ground after t1 second and leight is h1 , then h1 = 0 ×t1 + h1 = 5 t12

1 × 10 × t12 2 ........(i)


[114]

Now, ball rebounds with velocity 5 m/s and reaches to height h2 and time taken is t2 second then v = u – gt 0 = 5 – 10 × t2 t2 = 1/2 second

we know that – H = ut + ½ gt2 H=0×t+

1 × ge t2 2 similarly for planet – H =

1 h2 = 5t2 – × 10 t 22 2

and

h2 = Given

H=

5 m 4

Þ t1 = 1 second

Þ

\ h1 = 5 × 1 = 5 m

31.

32.

5 = 3.75 m 4

Fore = rate of change in momentum F = rAv2 = rA

2 ×t

Þ t’ =

2 × 50 = 70.7

36.

R=r×

p 2 2| d v 4

15 3 = m/s2 10 2 F.B.D for block A

Þ t’ =

frequency remains unchanged. & V = fl we know that velocity of sound in air is less as compare to in water. So accourding to relation from equation wavelength is also less in air as compare in water.

15 = (8 + 2)a

Þ

1 1 ge g t2 = · (t’)2 2 e 2 2

35.

F = ma

Þ

......(ii)

1 1 ge t2 = gp (t’)2 2 2

t1 + t2 = 1.5 second

So, net displacemet = h1 – h2 = 5 –

......(i)

1 g (t’)2 2 p from equ. (i) & (ii) –

1 1 1 – × 10 × 2 2 4

h2 = 5 ×

1 × ge t2 2

a=

sl ÞR = p A D2

l

...(1)

4

volume remains unchanged vi = vf A1l1 = A2l2

\ 15 – FAB = 8 × a 15 – FAB = 8 ×

2

p 2 p æDö Dl= ç ÷ l 4 4 è5ø 2

3 2

Þ

FAB = 3N 33.

l2 = 25 l rl 2

r ´ 25l D2 ´ 4 25

\ R2 = A = p 2

W aparent = W actual – FB where FB = force of buyonce

æ ç rl R2 = 625 ç çç p ´ D2 è4

300 = 800 – FB FB = 500

34.

ge =

gp =

gp =

from equ. (i).

GM e R 2e 37.

GM p Rp2 G ´ 2M e (2Re )2

ö ÷ ÷ ÷÷ ø

Þ gp =

ge 2

R2 = 625R according to momentum conservation– pi = pf mu + 0 = (m + M)v æ m ö V= ç ÷u èm + Mø

......(i)


[115]

initial kinetic energy – 1 mu2 2 Final kinetic energy – Ki =

\

d=0×t+

Þ

t=

....(ii)

1 (m + M)v2 2 from equ. (i) – Kf =

1 æ qE ö 2 ç ÷t 2 èmø

2md qE

1 So, t µ

q

2

Kf =

m 1 u2 (m + M) (m + M)2 2

Kf =

2 2 1 mu 2 (m + M)

t

.....(iii)

=

t

Þ t2 = 40.

m ù é 1 mu2 ê1 ú ë m + Mû 2

2

If current flowing in same direction then wires attract each other and if current is flowing in opposite direction then wires repel each other. force µ0 I1I 2 = length 2pd

1 æ mM ö 2 DK = ç ÷u 2 èm +Mø 38.

Þ

From fig. – OP =

(17)2 + (12)2 =

12 433

µoil = 39.

12 433

= 1 × sin 90º

433 = 1.734 12

If electri field is E then force of charge q – F = qE ....(i) according to newton’s law of motion – F = ma ....(ii) From eq.(i) and (ii) – qE = ma

æ qE ö a= ç ÷ èmø Now, S = ut +

1 2 at 2

1 d

RS is far so d and F ¯ 41.

Possible remainders = Þ 13 = 1 ® r1 = 1 23 = 8 ® r2 = 8 Þ 33 = 27 ® r3 = 0 43 = 64 ® r4 = 1 Possible sum = 1 + 8 = 9

42.

p(x) = q(x)(x – 1) + 3(given) p(x) = q(x) (x – 3) + 5(given) Also, p(x) = (x – 1)(x – 3) + r(x) for x = 1, p(1) = r(3) for x = 3, p(3) = r(3) Suppose r(x) = Ax + B r(1) = A + B = 3 r(3) = 3A + B = 5 \ A = 1 and B = 2 r(x) = Ax + B r(–2) = – 2A+ B r(–2) = –2(1) + 2 r(–2) = – 2 + 2

given – angle of refraction (r) = 90º according to snell’s law – µoil sin i = µair sin r µoil ×

F µ

PQ is near so d ¯ and F

433

if angle of incidence is i then from fig. – sin i =

q2 q1

2q q

Þ t = 2

So, loss in kinetic energy – DK = Ki – Kf 2 2 1 1 mu = mu2 – 2 2 (m + M)

t1 t2 =

\

r(–2) = 0


[116]

43.

44.

Condition for infinite many solutions.

Given,

b 3 = g 4

Let the side of square be x units. Then, Diameter of a circle = x untis

ab 6 = ag c

b 6 3 6 = Þ = g c 4 c

\c=8 So, radius of O circle =

x2 – 6x + c = 0 Þ x2 – 6x + 8 = 0 x2 + – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0 x(x – 4) – 2(x – 4) = 0 (x – 4)(x – 2) = 0 x = 4 or 2 Now, x2 – bx + 6 = 0 x2 – bx + 6 = 0 42 – b(4) + 6 = 0 or 16 + 6 – 4b = 0 or 22 = 4b 11 =b 2 For b = 5 satisfies,

45.

46.

3 p-3 p = = p p 12 p=±6 [from (1) and (2)] p=+6 [from (2) and (3)] p=6 Let a, b be the roots of x2 – bx + 6 = 0 and a, g be the roots of x2 – 6x+ c = 0 a + b = b, a + g = 6 x2 – bx + 6 = 0 2 ab = 6, ag = c x – 6x + c = 0

x 2

x x \ OD = 2 4 Let the side of equilateral D be y units Then, Þ AD2 + DC2 = AC2

Þ OA = OB = OC =

2

Þ 22 – b(2) + 6 = 0 4 + 6 = 2b 10 = 2b

Þ Þ

5=b

2

æ 3x ö æyö ç 4 ÷ + ç 2 ÷ = y2 è ø è ø 9x2 3y 2 = 16 4 4 x2 = y2 3

a+b=5 a.b = 6 (possible values a = 2, b = 3)

Þ

x2 =

so the common root will be 2.

Þ

ar.(Square) =

Þ

ar.(Square) = k.ar.(Triangle)

Þ

k=

a=2 1 S5 = (S10 – S5) 4 4S5 = S10 – S5 5S5 = S10

47.

é5 ù 5 ê 2 ´ 2 + (5 - 1)d ú = 10 2 ´ 2 + (10 - 1)d 2 2 ë û 5 10 4 + 9d (4 + 4d) = 2 2

Þ

5×

Þ Þ

20 + 20d = 8 + 18d d=–6 S30 =

4 4 . 3 3

æ 3 2ö y ÷ çç ÷ è 4 ø 16 3 3

ar.(Triangle)

16 3 3

Here, PT = 8 units and BT = 4 units Then, TB × TA = TP2 Þ 4 × TA = (8)2 Þ TA = 16 \ BA = 12

30 [2 × 2 + (30 – 1)(– 6)] 2

=

30 30 ´ -170 [4 + 29 × (–6)] = 2 2

=

-5100 = – 2550 2


[117]

Also, in DBTP, TP2 = TB2 + BP2

Þ 82 = 42 + BP2 Þ BP2 = 64 + 16 = 48 Þ BP = 4 3 Also in DABP AB2 + BP2 = AP2

Þ (12)2 + 4 3

x2 = 2 + 2

= 2(x)2 x2 =

Þ r = 4 3 units 48.

2

2 36 -38 3 24 -27 4 18 -22 6 12 -18 9

b

b

-3 -24 27 -4 -18 22 -6 -12 18 -9

17

So Total possible values of b will be 12. 49.

2

2

-17

-1 -72 73 -2 -36 38

-8

5 cm (AC = Diameter) 2

Area of square = 5 cm2

Possible roots for a, b Î – ive a

5 cm. 2

æ 5ö ÷÷ a + a = çç 2 è 2ø 5 2a2 = 4 × 2 a2 = 5 cm2

a b b 1 72 -73

8

5 Þx= 2

AC = 2

x2 + bx + 72 = 0 (given) Possible roots for a, b Î + ive

2 4

Area of square = 2 cm2

50.

Let a1x2 + b1x + c1 = 0 and a2x2 + b2x + c2 = 0 bet the two quadratic equation since 1 is a common root. Then, Þ a1 + b1 + c1 = a2 + b2 + c2 = 0 Þ b1 = –(a1 + c1) and b2 = –(a2 + c2) Also, the discriminants of two qudratic equation are equal Then, Þ b12 –4a1c1 = b22 – 4a2c2 Þ (a1 + c1)2 – 4a1c1 = (a2 + c2)2 – 4a2c2 Þ (a1 – c1)2 = (a2 – c2)2 Þ (a1 – c1)2 = ± (a2 – c2)2 Þ a1 – a2 = c1 – c2 or a1 + a2 = c1 + c2 Now, the roots of equation, x = –

b1 ± D1 2

= a1

and c1 Side of square = OP =

2

x =

2 cm

2 cm, OQ = x cm 2 2

2

æ 2ö ÷÷ + çç è 2 ø

2

and the roots of equation 2, x =

-b2 ± D2

= 2 a1 and c2

If a1 = a2 = 1 be the common roots Then, other roots are c1 and c2 Þ c1 – c2 = a1 – a2 = 0 or c1 + c2 = a1 + a2 c1 + c2 = 2 Þ c1 = c 2 Hence, roots are either equal or their sum is 2.


[118]

51.

53.

D1N1 = D2N2 4 16 x × 32 = x × N2 25 5 N2 = 40

Let sides of the solid brick be x, 2x and 3x Volume = Number of bricks = 6x3 Let x = 1, 6 × 1 = 6 x = 2, 6 × 8 = 48 x = 3, 6 × 27 = 222 x = 4, 6 × 64 = 384 x = 5, 6 × 125 = 750 At x = 5, no. of cubes are going above 400.

54.

Pattern to be followed.

Now, N2D2 = N3D3 40 ×

16x 16x = × N3 25 125

N3 = 50 Medians are 18, 14, 10 52.

Let the third point be C(x, y) Mean =

Then,

18 + 14 + 10 42 = = 14 3 3

Þ CA = CB = AB Þ CA2 = CB2 = AB2

55.

Clearly 2272 – 875 = 1397, is exactly divisible by N. Now, 1397 = 11 × 127 \ The required 3 – digit number is 127, the sum of whose digit is 10.

56.

Given

Þ (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = (x – 2)2 + (y + 1)2 = (1 – 2)2 + (2 + 1)2

Þ x2 + 1 – 2x + y2 + 4 – 4y = x2 + 4 – 4x + y2 + 1 + 2y

Þ 2x – 6y = 0 Þ x = 3y

... (1)

sin q = cos q =

3 5 4 5

Now, sin(90 – q) =

y 1

Þ y = cosq Þy=

cos(90 – q) =

\ (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 10 Þ (3y – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 10

(Q x = 3y)

Þ 2y – 2y – 1 = 0 On solving we get, 3

\ x = 3 1± 3 Hence C(x, y) lies in either 1st quarant or 3rd quadrant. So, C cannot lie in the second quadrant

x 1

Þ x = sinq x =

2

Þy=1±

4 5

57.

3 5

Here, P(x) = x2 + 5Kx + K2 + 5 and P(–2) = 0 P(–3) ¹ 0 \ 4 – 10K + K2 + 5 = 0 Þ K2 – 10K + 9 = 0 Þ (K – 9) (K – 1) = 0 Þ K = 1, 9 ... (i) Also P(– 3) ¹ 0 Þ 9 – 15K + K2 + 5 ¹ 0 Þ K2 – 15K + 14 ¹ 0 Þ (K – 14)(K – 1) ¹ 0 ... (ii) Þ K ¹ 14, 1 From (i) and (ii) K=9


[119]

58.

cos4q+ sin2q = m, Þ cos4q + 1 – cos2q = m let cos2q = x 2

Then,

1ö æ 3 Þ m = x –x + 1 = ç x - ÷ + 2ø 4 è

60.

2

2

1ö æ 1 Now, 0 £ ç x - ÷ £ 2 4 è ø 2

Þ

Þ

59.

1ö 3 æ 3 1 3 £ çx - ÷ + £ + 2ø 4 è 4 4 4 3 £m£1 4

Let number of apples, bannas and coconuts b ex, y and z respectively. 2x + 3y + z = 26 3x + 2y + 2z = 35

... (i)

45 20 = AD BD

(tangent in both triangles)

AD 9 = BD 4

... (ii)

(i) × 3, (ii) × 2 6x + 6y + 3z = 78 6x + 4y + 4z = 78 12x + 13y + 7z = 148

tan(90 – q) = cotq

Cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconut is Rs. 148

20 AC = (let AC = BC = x) BC 45 x2 = 900 Let AD = 9y, BD = 4y \ 9y + 4y = 30 y=

30 13

9 ´ 30 270 = 13 13 æ 10 ö Þ AD = 20 ç 13 ÷ m è ø

\ AD =


[120]

NTSE STAGE-2 Booklet

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